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Worksheets

IGCSE Physics Questions

Total questions: 174

Worksheet time: 3hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

2.

A tunnel has a length of 50 km. A car takes 20 min to travel between the two ends of the tunnel. What is the average speed of the car?

a)

2.5 km / h

b)

16.6 km / h

c)

150 km / h

d)

1000 km / h

3.
a)

pole 1 and pole 2.

b)

pole 2 and pole 3.

c)

pole 3 and pole 4.

d)

pole 4 and pole 5.

4.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

5.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

6.

A small steel ball is dropped from a low balcony. Ignoring air resistance, which statement describes its motion?

a)

It falls with decreasing acceleration.

b)

It falls with constant acceleration.

c)

It falls with decreasing speed.

d)

It falls with constant speed.

7.

Which speed/ time graph applies to an object at rest?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

8.
a)

10 m

b)

20 m

c)

100 m

d)

200 m

9.
a)

150 m

b)

300 m

c)

600 m

d)

1200 m

10.
a)

4.0 s

b)

6.0 s

c)

10 s

d)

16 s

11.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

12.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

13.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

14.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

17.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

18.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

19.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

20.

What is the efficiency of a solar cell if 1000 J of solar energy hits the cell and 200 J are converted into electrical energy?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

21.

What is electrical energy converted into when a drill is used?

a)

Kinetic energy

b)

Sound

c)

Heat

d)

All of the above

22.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

23.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

24.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

25.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

26.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

27.

Electricity can be obtained from different energy resources. Which energy resource is used to obtain electricity without producing heat to boil water?

a)

coal

b)

geothermal

c)

hydroelectric

d)

nuclear

28.

What is designed to change electrical energy into kinetic energy?

a)

A. capacitor

b)

B. generator

c)

C. motor

d)

D. transformer

29.

A power station uses nuclear fission to obtain energy. In this process, nuclear energy is first changed into

a)

A. Chemical energy.

b)

B. Electrical energy.

c)

C. Gravitational energy.

d)

D. Internal energy.

30.

If a system is isolated, the total energy of the system

a)

Increases constantly.

b)

Decreases constantly.

c)

Is constant.

d)

Depends on the work done on the system.

e)

Depends on the work done by the system.

31.

Which of the following is defined as an energy transfer?

a)

kinetic energy

b)

work

c)

potential energy

d)

chemical energy

32.

A light plastic cart and a heavy steel cart are both pushed with the same force for a distance of 1.0 m, starting from rest. After the force is removed, the kinetic energy of the light plastic cart is ________ that of the heavy steel cart.

a)

greater than

b)

equal to

c)

less than

d)

can't say unless we know how big the force is

33.

Each of the boxes shown is pulled for 10 m across a level, frictionless floor by the force given. Which box experiences the greatest change in its kinetic energy?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

E

34.

Rank in order, from largest to smallest, the gravitational potential energies of the balls.

a)

1 > 2 = 4 > 3

b)

1 > 2 > 3 > 4

c)

3 > 2 = 4 > 1

d)

3 > 2 > 4 > 1

35.

Starting from rest, a marble first rolls down a steeper hill, then down a less steep hill of the same height. Ignoring friction, for which is it going faster at the bottom?

a)

Faster at the bottom of the steeper hill

b)

Faster at the bottom of the less steep hill

c)

Same speed at the bottom of both hills

d)

Can’t say without knowing the mass of the marble

36.

A small child slides down the four frictionless slides A–D. Rank in order, from largest to smallest, her speeds at the bottom.

a)

vD > vA > vB > vC

b)

vD > vA = vB > vC

c)

vC > vA > vB > vD

d)

vA = vB = vC = vD

37.

You are traveling along a freeway at 65 mi/h; your car has kinetic energy. You suddenly skid to a stop because of congested traffic. What happened to the kinetic energy your car just had?

a)

It is all in internal energy in the road

b)

It is all in internal energy in the tires

c)

Some of it has transformed to internal energy for the tires and the road, and some of it transferred away by sound energy and thermal energy into the air.

d)

It was destroyed

38.

A major league pitcher can throw a baseball with a kinetic energy of 150 J. How much work must the pitcher do to the ball to give it that much KE?

a)

150 J

b)

0

c)

Can’t tell without knowing the mass of the ball

39.

A rock has 10 J of potential energy on top of a roof. If it is dropped and lands with only 8 joules of kinetic energy, how much work did air resistance do on the rock?

a)

-18 J

b)

-10 J

c)

-8 J

d)

-2 J

40.

A basketball that is dropped bounces back up to its original height. Pick the correct energy transformation from the point when it was dropped until it returns to the original height.

a)

KE --> PE --> Elastic

b)

PE --> KE --> Elastic --> KE --> PE

c)

KE --> PE --> Elastic --> PE --> KE

d)

Elastic --> PE --> KE --> Elastic

41.

How much work is done on a 200-kg crate that is hoisted 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 J

b)

1000 J

c)

1600 J

d)

4000 J

42.

How much power is required to raise a 200-kg crate a vertical distance of 2 m in a time of 4 s?

a)

400 W

b)

1000 W

c)

1600 W

d)

4000 W

43.

If a charging elephant has kinetic energy, it must also have

a)

potential energy

b)

momentum

c)

work

d)

all of these

44.

The particles in a solid can...

a)

Move freely

b)

Have no bonds

c)

Vibrate

d)

Melt

45.

Which one is a property of a liquid

a)

Takes the shape of its container

b)

Fixed volume

c)

Can be compressed

d)

Has a fixed shape

46.

Brownian motion is defined as...

a)

The random movement of small particles due to collisions with larger particles

b)

The random movement of particles in a solid due to collisions with smaller surrounding particles

c)

The random movement of particles around us

d)

The random movement of particles in a fluid due to collisions with smaller surrounding particles

47.

During a change of state the temperature of a substance...

a)

Stays the same

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

48.

Evaporation...

a)

Happens to every molecule in a boiling liquid

b)

Only happens to the particles at the surface

c)

Will increase with a smaller surface area

d)

Is the same as boiling

49.

When a gas changes to a liquid it is called...

a)

Evaporation

b)

Condensation

c)

Boiling

d)

Melting

50.

How does changing the temperature affect gas pressure?

a)

Lower temperature means higher pressure

b)

Higher temperature means higher pressure

c)

Higher temperature means lower pressure

d)

Temperature has no effect

51.

To make a thermometer more sensitive you can...

a)

Decrease the length

b)

Decrease the diameter of the tube

c)

Increase the length

d)

Decrease the volume of the bulb

52.

Heat transfer through a solid is called..

a)

Conduction

b)

Convection

c)

Radiation

d)

Melting

53.

When gas is heated it becomes...

a)

More dense

b)

Heavier

c)

Less dense

d)

Lighter

54.

Which energy transfer does not require any particles?

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

d)

None of the above

55.

The diagram shows a beaker of water. Four molecules are levelled. The relative amount of energy of each molecule is shown.


Which molecule is most likely to escape from the liquid?

a)

Molecule A

b)

Molecule B

c)

Molecule C

d)

Molecule D

56.

The volume of gas in a sealed syringe is increased. The temperature of the gas does not change.


After this change is made, what has happened to the gas molecules in the syringe?

a)

They move more quickly

b)

They move more slowly

c)

They hit the syringe walls less often

d)

They hit the syringe walls more often

57.

The diagram shows four labelled changes of state between solid, liquid and gas.


Which changes need an energy input?

a)

P and Q

b)

Q and R

c)

R and S

d)

S and P

58.

Which diagram best shows the path of a gas molecule?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

The diagram shows four beakers A, B, C and D. The beakers contain different amounts of the same liquid at the same temperature. The beakers are left next to each other on a laboratory bench overnight. The diagrams are all drawn to the same scale.


From which beaker does the largest quantity of liquid evaporate?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

what is the name given to the effect that allows wavefronts to reach point X, shown in the diagram?

(a)  

61.

Water waves travel from deeper water to more shallow water. This causes them to refract.


Which property always remains the same when refraction occurs?

a)

Wavelength

b)

Frequency

c)

Amplitude

d)

Speed

62.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

63.

what is the formula for finding the wavelength of a wave?

a)

v = f λ

b)

λ / v = f

c)

v f = λ

d)

λ / f = v

64.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

65.

Sound waves travel at a speed of 1500m/s through a substance. Their wavelength is 5.0 cm. What is their frequency?

(a)  

66.
a)

It doubles

b)

It halves

c)

It remains the same

d)

It becomes four times as large

67.

a)

The speed of wave increases.

b)

The speed of wave decreases.

c)

The frequency increases.

d)

The frequency decreases.

68.

a)

Decrease the speed of waves (but keep the wavelength the same).

b)

Increase the speed of the waves (but keep the wavelength the same).

c)

Make the gap smaller

d)

Make the gap bigger

69.

What is a frequency?

a)

the number of wave crests passing a point in one second.

b)

the numbers of waves in total.

c)

the height of the waves times each second.

d)

the speed of waves over time.

70.

light waves are (a)   waves

71.

the vibrations of longitudinal waves are (a)   to the direction in which the waves are travelling.

72.

the vibrations of transverse waves are (a)   to the direction in which the waves are travelling.

73.

what is the arrow pointing to?

a)

compression

b)

rarefaction

74.

The word diffraction means...

a)

dispersing of waves

b)

reflecting of waves

c)

refraction of waves

d)

spreading of waves

75.
A ray of light passes through a window. Which path does it take? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
76.
The diagram shows the image of a clock in a plane mirror. What time is shown?
a)
02:25 
b)
02:35 
c)
09:25 
d)
09:35 
77.
 A parallel beam of light falls on a converging lens. Which diagram shows what happens to the beam of light? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
78.
A man sees a stone at the bottom of a pool of water. Which path could be taken by light from the stone to the man? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
79.
A ray of light is reflected by two parallel plane mirrors X and Y.  Which statement is correct? 
a)
The angle of incidence at mirror X is 30°.
b)
The angle of incidence at mirror Y is 60°.
c)
The angle of reflection at mirror X is 120°.
d)
The angle of reflection at mirror Y is 0°. 
80.
A student shines a narrow beam of white light into a prism as shown in the diagram. He sees a spectrum of colours emerging from the prism.  Which three colours does he see at X, at Y and at Z? 
a)
X: blue, Y:yellow, Z:red
b)
X: red, Y:blue, Z:yellow
c)
X: red, Y:yellow, Z:blue
d)
X: yellow, Y:red, Z:blue
81.
A ray of red light enters a semi-circular glass block normal to the curved surface. Which diagram correctly shows the partial reflection and refraction of the ray? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
82.
An object 5.0 cm high is placed 2.0 cm from a converging (convex) lens which is being used as a magnifying glass. The image produced is 6.0 cm from the lens and is 15 cm high.
What is the focal length of the lens? 
a)
2.0cm
b)
3.0cm
c)
4.0cm
d)
6.0cm 
83.
Which colour, red or blue, has the higher frequency and which has the longer wavelength? 
a)
higher frequency: blue
longer wavelength: blue
b)
higher frequency: blue
longer wavelength: red
c)
higher frequency: red
longer wavelength: blue
d)
higher frequency: red
longer wavelength: red
84.
An eye views an object O by reflection in a plane mirror. Which is the correct ray diagram? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
85.
A ray of light enters a glass block at an angle of incidence i producing an angle of refraction r in the glass.
Several different values of i and r are measured, and a graph is drawn of sin i against sin r.
Which graph is correct? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
86.
The diagram shows the passage of a ray of light through a triangular glass block. What is the critical angle of light in glass? 
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
87.
The diagram shows a ray of light from one point on a lamp striking a plane mirror. The image of the point on the lamp formed by the mirror is 
a)
at P and is real.
b)
at P and is virtual.
c)
at R and is real.
d)
at R and is virtual. 
88.
A semi-circular block is made from a plastic. A ray of light passes through it at the angles shown. 
To two decimal places, what is the refractive index of the plastic?
a)
1.25
b)
1.41
c)
1.51
d)
1.61 
89.

The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:

a)

copper

b)

nichrome

c)

aluminium

d)

iron

90.

The electrical resistance of insulators is

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Zero

d)

Infinitely high

91.

An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?

a)

440 W

b)

110 W

c)

55 W

d)

0.0023 W

92.
a)
b)
c)
d)
93.

In the circuits shown, all resistors are identical

Which circuit has the least resistance?

a)
b)
c)
d)
94.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

95.

State the name of the logic gate A and B

a)

NOT and AND

b)

AND and OR

c)

NOR and NAND

d)

NOT and NOT

96.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

97.

What would be the reading on the voltmeter?

a)

2 V

b)

6 V

c)

4 V

d)

8 V

98.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

99.

A teacher writes a set of notes about two non-identical bulbs which are connected in parallel

He makes one mistake. Which of the statements below is incorrect?

a)

They have the same current flowing through them

b)

They have the same potential difference across them

c)

They can be switched on and off individually

d)

If one bulb blows, the other will continue to work

100.

Which part of the electric heater must be earthed?

(a)  

101.

What is component Z ?

(a)  

102.

What is component B

a)

Thermistor

b)

Resistor

c)

Light Dependent Resistor

d)

Relay

103.

What does a NAND gate comprise of ?

a)

AND

b)

NOT

c)

OR

d)

NOR

104.

How are resistance and length interrelated ?

a)

Directly Proportional

b)

Inversely Proportional

105.

How is resistance and cross-sectional area interrelated?

a)

Directly Proportional

b)

Inversely Proportional

106.

What does the voltmeter read?

a)

2 V

b)

3 V

c)

10 V

d)

1 V

107.

What is the reading of the ammeter

a)

0.32 A

b)

0.44 A

c)

1 A

d)

0.28 A

108.

What happens to the resistance of the LDR when it is dark

a)

Resistance decreasae

b)

Resistance increases

c)

Resistance is constant

d)

Resistance is unchanged

109.

What happens to a thermistor on a hot day

a)

Resistance increases

b)

Resistance decreases

c)

Resistance is constant

d)

Resistance is unchanged

110.

Which one is a Fuse?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
111.

What advantage does a circuit-breaker have over a fuse in an electric circuit?

a)

A circuit-breaker provides an alternate route for the current to flow

b)

A circuit-breaker can be reset

c)

A fuse can be reset

d)

A fuse is more expensive

112.

An appliance works at 3A. What is the best option for a fuse in the circuit connected to this appliance and why?

a)

5A, so that the fuse does not blow when the appliance is used normally

b)

7A, since it allows a current much larger than needed for the appliance to flow in the circuit

c)

2A, so that the fuse blows when the appliance is used normally

d)

3A, since the fuse blows at the same value of current that the appliance needs

113.

What is the difference between a.c. and d.c?

a)

d.c. is always a bigger current than a.c.

b)

a.c. is always a bigger current than d.c.

c)

a.c. remans constant in direction of current flow whereas d.c. oscillates in direction of current flow

d)

a.c. oscillates in direction of current flow whereas d.c. remains constant in direction of current flow

e)

There is no difference

114.

Explain the meaning of the term "earthed".

a)

A wire that has a direct connection to the earth

b)

A wire that is directly covered with earth

c)

A wire made of earth

d)

An insulated wire that is buried in the earth

115.

The current in a motor is 2.1 A and the potential difference across it is 12V. The motor takes 1.5 seconds to lift a mass. What is the energy transferred to the motor as it lifts the mass?

a)

85 J

b)

3.8 J

c)

38 J

d)

8.5 J

116.
What happens to the strength of an electromagnet as you add more coils around it?
a)
Increases
b)
Decreases
c)
Stays the same
d)
Stops completely
117.
This picture is an example of a ___________
a)
Step- Up Transformer
b)
Step- Down Transformer
c)
Motor
d)
Generator
118.
Based on this picture, which side will have a higher voltage?
a)
Secondary
b)
Primary
c)
Both sides have the same voltage
d)
Cannot be determined
119.

What makes transporting electricity most efficient?

a)

Low voltage

b)

High voltage

c)

High current

d)

Double insulated wire

e)

Low charge

120.

Which statement about a magnet is correct?

a)

A magnet attracts a gold rod.

b)

A magnet does not attract a plastic rod.

c)

A magnet never repels another magnet.

d)

A magnet sometimes repels an unmagnetised nickel rod.

121.

Which statement about magnetism is correct?

a)

An unmagnetised iron bar becomes magnetised when it is placed near a magnet.

b)

An unmagnetised steel bar can be magnetised by passing a current through it.

c)

The direction of magnetic field lines is from an S-pole to an N-pole.

d)

The N-poles of two magnets attract each other.

122.

In which pair are both materials magnetic?

a)

aluminium and copper

b)

copper and iron

c)

iron and steel

d)

steel and aluminium

123.

The diagram shows the magnetic field around two bar magnets.

Which diagram shows the poles of the magnets?

a)
b)
c)
d)
124.

A wire perpendicular to the page carries an electric current in a direction out of the page. There are four compasses near the wire.

Which compass shows the direction of the magnetic field caused by the current?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

125.

An electromagnet with a soft-iron core is connected to a battery and an open switch. The soft-iron core is just above some small soft-iron nails.

The switch is now closed, left closed for a few seconds, and then opened.


What do the soft-iron nails do as the switch is closed, and what do they do when the switch is then opened?

a)

as switch is closed - nails jump up; as switch is opened - nails fall down

b)

as switch is closed - nails jump up; as switch is opened - nails stay up

c)

as switch is closed - nails stay down; as switch is opened - nails jump up

d)

as switch is closed - nails stay down; as switch is opened - nails stay down

126.

Which action will demagnetise a magnetised piece of steel?

a)

Cool it in a freezer for several hours.

b)

Hit it repeatedly with a hammer.

c)

Put it in a coil carrying a direct current (d.c.).

d)

Put it near an unmagnetised piece of iron.

127.

Which action will demagnetise a magnetised piece of steel?

a)

Cool it in a freezer for several hours.

b)

Hit it repeatedly with a hammer.

c)

Put it in a coil carrying a direct current (d.c.).

d)

Put it near an unmagnetised piece of iron.

128.

Which procedure may be used to demagnetise a steel bar?

a)

cooling it in a freezer for several hours

b)

earthing it with a copper wire for several seconds

c)

removing it slowly from a coil carrying an alternating current (a.c.)

d)

rubbing it in one direction with a woolen cloth

129.
What do the lines around this magnet represent?
a)
North Pole
b)
South Pole
c)
Magnetic Declination
d)
Magnetic Field
130.
If you place the North pole of a magnet next to the South pole of another magnet, they will:
a)
Attract
b)
Repel
c)
Do nothing
d)
Shatter
131.
A paper clip is an example of a:
a)
magnetic material
b)
permanent magnet
c)
bar magnet
d)
insulator
132.
What happens when two north poles of a magnet are placed together?
a)
they repel
b)
they attract
c)
they cancel each other out
d)
the strength of the magnet is doubled
133.
In un-magnetized materials the domains are __________ aligned.
a)
super
b)
slightly
c)
randomly
d)
always
134.
Electric motors are devices that convert _____ energy into  _____ energy.
a)
electrical; mechanical
b)
mechanical; electrical
c)
chemical; potential
d)
mechanical; kinetic
135.
What kind of magnet can be turned on and off?
a)
refridgerator magnet
b)
electromagnet
c)
magnetite
d)
iron
136.
Region around a magnet in which magnetic force can act.
a)
Magnetic field 
b)
Magnetic force
c)
Domain
d)
Perimeter
137.
Two south poles will...
a)
attract
b)
repel 
138.
Magnets that are arranged like this will _______. 
a)
move away from each other (repel)
b)
move towards each other (attract)
139.
The strongest part of a magnet is...
a)
the bars.
b)
the force field.
c)
the poles. 
d)
the middle.
140.
Iron and steel can become _____.
a)
magnetized
b)
transformed into plastics
c)
lined up to the poles
d)
part of the equator
141.
A simple electromagnet can be made with which of the following?
a)
an electric current
b)
a turbine and nail
c)
a nail, a wire, and a battery
d)
a compass and a battery
142.
What will happen when these magnets are brought close together?
a)
They will attract each other.
b)
They will repel each other.
c)
Both magnets will turn to the left
d)
Both magnets will turn to the right
143.

The diagram shows a transformer.

The input voltage is 240 V.

What is the output voltage?

a)

6.0 V

b)

12 V

c)

20 V

d)

40 V

144.

A strong electromagnet is used to attract pins.

What happens when the current in the coil is halved?

a)

No pins are attracted.

b)

Some pins are attracted, but not as many.

c)

The same number of pins is attracted.

d)

More pins are attracted.

145.

A coil carries a current in a magnetic field. The coil experiences a turning effect.

Which device uses this effect?

a)

a d.c. motor

b)

an electromagnet

c)

a relay

d)

a transformer

146.

A magnet is suspended from a spring so that it can move freely inside a stationary coil. The coil is

connected to a sensitive centre-zero galvanometer.


The magnet repeatedly moves slowly up and down.

What does the galvanometer show?

a)

a constantly changing reading

b)

a steady reading to the left

c)

a steady reading to the right

d)

a steady reading of zero

147.

A transformer has 50 turns on its primary coil and 100 turns on its secondary coil. An alternating

voltage of 25.0 V is connected across the primary coil.

What is the voltage across the secondary coil?

a)

12.5 V

b)

50.0 V

c)

100 V

d)

200 V

148.

What is an advantage of transmitting electricity at a high voltage?

a)

It is faster.

b)

It is safer.

c)

Less energy is wasted.

d)

Less equipment is needed.

149.

An e.m.f. is induced across a wire when it moves through the magnetic field between the poles of

a magnet.

Which electrical device operates because of this effect?

a)

a battery

b)

a cathode-ray tube

c)

a generator

d)

a motor

150.

What is an advantage of transmitting electricity at a high voltage?

a)

It is faster.

b)

It is safer.

c)

Less energy is wasted.

d)

Less equipment is needed.

151.

The diagram shows a flat, rectangular coil placed between the poles of a magnet.

There is a current in the coil that makes it turn in the direction shown in the diagram.

Which change would make the coil turn in the opposite direction?

a)

decreasing the current in the coil

b)

increasing the number of turns on the coil

c)

reversing both the direction of the current in the coil and the poles of the magnet

d)

reversing only the direction of the current in the coil

152.

A step-up transformer is used before electricity is transmitted by overhead cables.

Which statement explains why the step-up transformer is used?

a)

It increases the current to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.

b)

It increases the current to reduce energy loss in the cables.

c)

It increases the voltage to increase the speed at which the electricity travels.

d)

It increases the voltage to reduce energy loss in the cables.

153.

A current-carrying coil in a magnetic field experiences a turning effect.

How can the turning effect be increased?

a)

Reduce the size of the current.

b)

Increase the number of turns on the coil.

c)

Use thinner wire for the coil.

d)

Reverse the direction of the magnetic field.

154.

A transformer has 2400 turns on its primary coil and 200 turns on its secondary coil.

What input voltage is needed to give an output voltage of 240 V?

a)

12 V

b)

20 V

c)

240 V

d)

2880 V

155.

A student investigates electromagnetic induction. She has a bar magnet and a coil of wire that is

connected to a sensitive ammeter.

Which movement does not cause a reading on the ammeter?

a)

moving the magnet to the left

b)

moving the coil to the right

c)

moving both the magnet and the coil to the left at the same speed

d)

moving both the magnet and the coil towards each other at the same speed

156.

Which device uses slip rings?

a)

a d.c. electric motor

b)

a relay

c)

a transformer

d)

an a.c. generator

157.

A step-down transformer is used to light a 12 V lamp from a 240 V mains supply. The lamp lights

at normal brightness. The primary coil has 600 turns.


How many turns are in the secondary coil?

a)

12

b)

20

c)

30

d)

50

158.

The atomic number indicates how many...are found in the nucleus of an atom.

a)

Neutrons

b)

Protons

c)

Electrons

d)

Quarks

159.

The most penetrating form of nuclear radiation is...

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

heat

160.

Which best describes the structure of a beta particle?

a)

helium nucleus

b)

slow moving proton

c)

fast moving electron

d)

high frequency light wave

161.

What is the half-life of this radioactive substance?

a)

5700 years

b)

11400 years

c)

17100 years

d)

22800 years

162.

The overall charge on an alpha particle is...

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

163.

The overall charge on a gamma ray is...

a)

-1

b)

0

c)

+1

d)

+2

164.

A radioactive source has an initial activity of 200kBq and a half-life of 15 days. How many days would it take for the activity to fall to 25kBq?

a)

15

b)

30

c)

45

d)

60

165.

The most ionising form of nuclear radiation is...

a)

alpha

b)

beta

c)

gamma

d)

infrared

166.
How many neutrons does the isotope of lithium have?
a)
8
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
167.
Isotopes of the same element have different ____________. 
a)
 numbers of protons  
b)
numbers of electrons
c)
 symbols 
d)
numbers of neutrons
168.

Which line in the table describes the nature of an alpha-particle and a gamma-ray?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

169.

A radioactive nucleus R decays with the emission of a β-particle as shown:


Which equation is correct?

a)

x = p

b)

y = q

c)

p = x – 1

d)

q = y – 1

170.

The equation shows the decay of the nuclide X:


What are the values of P and Q ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

171.

A detector is used to measure the count-rate near a radioactive source. The reading is 4000

counts per minute. After 30 minutes the count-rate has fallen to 500 counts per minute.

What is the half-life of the radioactive source? You may ignore the effects of background

radiation.

a)

3 minutes

b)

5 minutes

c)

6 minutes

d)

10 minutes

172.

Between 1909 and 1911, Geiger and Marsden carried out experiments in which alpha particles

were fired at metal foil. Most of the alpha particles passed through the foil with small deflections,

but some were deflected through a large angle.

These results suggest that

a)

atoms contain clouds of electrons through which some alpha particles cannot pass.

b)

atoms contain neutrons that alpha particles bounce off.

c)

atoms have positive and negative charges spread throughout their volume.

d)

atoms have positive charges concentrated in a small volume.

173.

A narrow beam of alpha-particles is fired at a thin piece of gold foil.

Which is the final direction of the largest number of alpha-particles?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

174.

A student investigates a radioactive source that emits only alpha-particles. Without any source

nearby, the detector shows a low reading. The source and thick cardboard are placed near the detector, as shown:


What is the reading on the detector now, and why?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D