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WorksheetsFinal Review
Total questions: 175
Worksheet time: 3hrs 55mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A form of energy resulting from the existence of charged particles
a)
Electricity
b)
Charge
c)
Coulomb
d)
Static
2.
materials in which charges can flow freely and can carry an electric current
a)
Conductors
b)
Insulators
c)
Magnets
d)
Circuits
3.
Materials that do not easily transfer an electrical current
a)
Parallel
b)
Volt
c)
Conductor
d)
Insulator
4.
the work that must be done against electric forces to move charge from one point to another
a)
Force
b)
Potential difference
c)
Current
d)
Kinetic difference
5.
the rate at which electric charges move through a conductor
a)
Current
b)
Potential difference
c)
Resistance
d)
Induction
6.
A device that is a source of electrical current
a)
Cell
b)
Circuit
c)
Transducer
d)
Transistor
7.
A common example of an electrical cell is a
a)
Chloroplast
b)
Lightswitch
c)
Battery
d)
Resistor
8.
the opposition posed by a material or device to the flow of current
a)
Current
b)
Wattage
c)
Resistance
d)
Potential difference
9.
A complete loop through which a current flows
a)
Circuit
b)
Battery
c)
Wire
d)
Track
10.
What type of circuit is this?
a)
Parallel
b)
Series
11.
What type of circuit is this?
a)
Series
b)
Parallel
12.
Internal energy that can be
measured as temperature
a)
Thermal Energy
b)
Kinetic Energy
c)
Potential Energy
d)
Electrical Energy
13.
A measure of the average kinetic energy in the particles of a substance
a)
Phase
b)
Kineticism
c)
Temperature
d)
Charge
14.
Which of the following is not a unit of temperature?
a)
Kelvin
b)
Coulomb
c)
Fahrenheit
d)
Celsius
15.
The temperature at which molecular movement is at a minimum
a)
Absolute zero
b)
Thermal Minimum
c)
Total low
d)
Freezing
16.
Energy transferred between two objects of different temperature
a)
Energy
b)
Temperature
c)
Heat
d)
Convection
17.
Al + HBr --> AlBr3 + H2
Balance the following equation. What is the coefficient for HBr?
Balance the following equation. What is the coefficient for HBr?
a)
2
b)
6
c)
3
d)
1
18.
The substances listed on the right side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Yields
b)
Reactants
c)
Products
d)
Precipitates
19.
The substances listed on the left side of a chemical equation are the
a)
Products
b)
Coefficients
c)
Precipitates
d)
Reactants
20.
In the following equation, what are the reactants?
CaO + 3 C → CaC2 + CO
CaO + 3 C → CaC2 + CO
a)
CaO + 3 C
b)
CaC2 + CO
c)
3 C → CaC2
d)
the stuff on the outside
21.
In the following equation, what are the products?
HCl + Zn → H2 + ZnCl2
HCl + Zn → H2 + ZnCl2
a)
HCl + Zn
b)
H2 + ZnCl2
c)
Zn → H2
d)
the stuff on the outside
22.
Which problem is balanced?
a)
PbO2 + 2H2
b)
SO2 + H20 --> H2SO4
c)
2Na + 2H2O --> 2NaOH + H2
23.
What is a coefficient?
a)
The small number on the right of the chemical symbol.
b)
The large number to the left of a formula.
24.
Decomposition occurs when...
a)
Two formulas combine.
b)
A formula breaks apart.
c)
An atom is replaced during a reaction.
25.
A synthesis occurs when...
a)
Two formulas combine.
b)
A formula breaks apart.
c)
An atom is replaced during a reaction.
26.
Is the equation balanced?: 2H2O + O2 --> 4MgO + 3Fe
a)
Yes
b)
No
27.
How would this equation be classified?
O2 + 2H2 --> 2H2O
O2 + 2H2 --> 2H2O
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Combustion
d)
Single Displacement
28.
Balance this equation:
MgCl2 --> Mg4+ Cl2
MgCl2 --> Mg4+ Cl2
a)
It's already balanced.
b)
4MgCl2 --> Mg4+ 4Cl2
c)
4MgCl2 --> Mg4+ 5Cl2
29.
Balance this equation
_Zn+_HCl-->_ZnCl2 +_H2
_Zn+_HCl-->_ZnCl2 +_H2
a)
1,1,2,1
b)
1,1,1,2
c)
1,2,1,1
d)
2,1,1,1
30.
Balance this equation.
_Mg + _Cl2 --> _MgCl2
_Mg + _Cl2 --> _MgCl2
a)
1, 2,1
b)
already balanced
c)
2,1,1
d)
1,1,2
31.
Balance this equation
_N2 + _H2 --> _NH3
_N2 + _H2 --> _NH3
a)
1,2,3
b)
1,3,2
c)
1,1,2
d)
2,1,1
32.
How many atoms of aluminum are on each side of the following equation: 4Al + 3O2 --> 2Al2 O3
a)
2
b)
6
c)
1
d)
4
33.
Balance this equation:
P4+O2 --> P2O3
P4+O2 --> P2O3
a)
3 P4+ O2 --> 2 P2O3
b)
P4+ O2 --> 2 P2O3
c)
P4+ 3 O2 --> 2 P2O3
d)
P4+ 2 O2 --> 3 P2O3
34.
Balance this equation,
Al2O3 --> Al + O2
Al2O3 --> Al + O2
a)
Cannot be balanced
b)
2Al2O3 --> 2Al+3O2
c)
2Al2O3--> 4Al+3O2
d)
3Al2O3--> 2Al+O2
35.
N2 + H2 = NH4
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
36.
In the equation 2 Al2O3 --> 4 Al + 3 O2, what is the mole ratio of aluminum to oxygen?
a)
10:6
b)
3:4
c)
4:3
d)
2:3
37.
Given the reaction: 4Al + 3O2 --> 2Al2O3
How many moles of Aluminum oxide do you have if you have 2 moles of Al?
How many moles of Aluminum oxide do you have if you have 2 moles of Al?
a)
3 mole
b)
2 mole
c)
1 mole
d)
0.5 mole
38.
2Na + S -->Na2S
What is the total number of moles of S that reacts when 4.0 moles of Na were completely consumed?
What is the total number of moles of S that reacts when 4.0 moles of Na were completely consumed?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
0.5
d)
4
39.
4NH3 + 5O2-->4NO + 6H2O
What is the total number of moles of H2O produced when 12 mole of NH3 is completely consumed?
What is the total number of moles of H2O produced when 12 mole of NH3 is completely consumed?
a)
15
b)
18
c)
20
d)
24
40.
N2 + 3H2 --> 2NH3
How many moles of N2 is needed to react with 6 moles of H2?
How many moles of N2 is needed to react with 6 moles of H2?
a)
6.7
b)
2.0
c)
3.0
d)
15.0
41.
6CO2 + 6H2O --> C6H12O6 + 6O2
What is the total number of moles of CO2 needed to make 2 moles of C6H12O6?
What is the total number of moles of CO2 needed to make 2 moles of C6H12O6?
a)
2.5
b)
6
c)
12
d)
15
42.
What number should be in front of N2 in this chemical equation?
___N2+___F2 --> ___ NF3
___N2+___F2 --> ___ NF3
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
43.
What kind of reaction is this:
4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
4Fe + 3O2 → 2Fe2O3
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
44.
What kind of reaction is this:
2H2O2 →2 H2O + O2
2H2O2 →2 H2O + O2
a)
Synthesis
b)
Decomposition
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Combustion
45.
What kind of reaction is this:
Fe + CuSO4 -> Cu + FeSO4
Fe + CuSO4 -> Cu + FeSO4
a)
Double Replacement
b)
Decompostion
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Combustion
46.
The reaction below is an example of?
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
AgNO3 + NaCl → AgCl + NaNO3
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Double Replacement
c)
Decomposition
d)
Combustion
47.
What kind of reaction is this:
CaCO3 + Ag2SO4 → CaSO4 + Ag2CO3
CaCO3 + Ag2SO4 → CaSO4 + Ag2CO3
a)
Decomposition
b)
Single Replacement
c)
Double Replacement
d)
Combustion
48.
An element plus additional element reacts to form one product is an example of which type of chemical reaction?
a)
combustion
b)
decomposition
c)
synthesis
d)
single replacement
49.
Which type of reaction can be recognized by the general pattern?
A + BC--> AC + B
A + BC--> AC + B
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Single Replacement
d)
Double Replacement
50.
Which type of reaction involves one element and one compound reacting?
a)
Single Replacement
b)
Double Replacement
c)
Combustion
d)
Synthesis
51.
What type of reaction is illustrated below?
2HI --> H2 + I2
2HI --> H2 + I2
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
52.
Classify
Zn + H2S → ZnS + H2
Zn + H2S → ZnS + H2
a)
synthesis
b)
combustion
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
53.
Classify
FeS + HCl → H2S + FeCl2
FeS + HCl → H2S + FeCl2
a)
synthesis
b)
combustion
c)
single replacement
d)
double replacement
54.
Classify
Fe + O2 → Fe2O3
Fe + O2 → Fe2O3
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
double replacement
d)
single replacement
55.
Which of the following general formulas represents a single-displacement reaction?
a)
AB → A + B
b)
A + B → AB
c)
A + BC → AC + B
d)
AB + CD → AD + CB
56.
The formula AB → A+B represents what type of chemical reaction?
a)
synthesis
b)
decomposition
c)
single displacement
d)
double replacement
57.
Substance that changes the rate of a chemical reaction without being consumed in the reaction
a)
bonding
b)
catalyst
c)
chemical reaction
d)
activation energy
58.
Which of these is associated with Alpha Radiation?
a)
4/2
b)
0/0
c)
0/-1
d)
0/1
59.
What is emitted during Gamma Radiation?
a)
Particles.
b)
Protons
c)
Beta Rays.
d)
Gamma Rays.
60.
Which of these is associated with Beta Radiation?
a)
0/0
b)
4/2
c)
0/1
d)
0/-1
61.
TRUE or FALSE: gamma changes the atomic number.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
What is the most penetrating radiation?
a)
gamma
b)
alpha
c)
beta
d)
positron
63.
If the atomic mass is 200, and alpha radiation is used, what is the atomic mass of the daughter particle?
a)
200
b)
198
c)
196
d)
194
64.
What is emitted during Alpha Radiation?
a)
A helium nuclei.
b)
A helium atom
c)
Gamma Rays.
d)
Positrons
65.
Alpha makes the atomic number decrease by how many?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
66.
Isotopes of the same element have different ____________.
a)
numbers of protons
b)
numbers of electrons
c)
symbols
d)
numbers of neutrons
67.
How is the alpha particle written in a nuclear equation?
a)
42He
b)
24He
68.
Which type of nuclear radiation is being emitted here?
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
d)
Neutron Emission
69.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
d)
Neutron Emission
70.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
d)
Neutron Emission
71.
Has the symbol
a)
Alpha
b)
Beta
c)
Gamma
d)
Neutron Emission
72.
The process of the production of lighter nuclei from heavier nuclei is called
a)
mass energy
b)
magneticism
c)
fusion
d)
fission
73.
The process by which nuclei having low masses are united to form nuclei with larger masses is ____.
a)
a chain reaction
b)
fission
c)
a chemical reaction
d)
fusion
74.
All waves carry
a)
energy
b)
light
c)
matter
d)
particles
75.
Material (matter) through which a wave travels
a)
medium
b)
Doppler Effect
c)
sound
d)
pitch
76.
What does pitch depend on?
a)
amplitude
b)
frequency
c)
intensity
d)
volume of sound
77.
The part of a longitudinal wave where the particles of the medium are close together.
a)
rarefaction
b)
compression
c)
crest
d)
trough
78.
A part in a longitudinal wave where the particles are spread apart
a)
compression
b)
rarefaction
c)
crest
d)
trough
79.
A wave that requires a medium through which to travel
a)
mechanical wave
b)
chemical wave
c)
electromagnetic wave
d)
pitch
80.
The Doppler effect can cause an apparent change in...
a)
loudness
b)
intensity
c)
pitch
d)
reasonance
81.
As a sound source approaches and then moves past a stationary observer, the observer will hear
a)
a steady rise in pitch
b)
a sudden drop in pitch
c)
a drop in pitch, then a rise in pitch
d)
a rise in pitch, then a drop in pitch
82.
Which type of wave is pictured here?
a)
Longitudinal
b)
Transverse
c)
Light
d)
Electromagnetic
83.
The distance between two identical parts on a wave. For example one compression, to the next compression.
a)
Compression
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Amplituide
d)
Wavelength
84.
It is measured as how far the particles of a wave travel from the rest position. It is also how loud the sound wave is.
a)
Compression
b)
Rarefaction
c)
Amplitude
d)
Wavelength
85.
What kind of wave is this?
a)
Transverse Wave
b)
Longitudinal Wave
86.
Which direction does a Transverse wave travel
a)
parallel
b)
perpendicular
87.
Which direction does a compressional wave travel
a)
parallel
b)
perpendicular
88.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest frequency?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
89.
Which wave in the diagram has the greatest wavelength?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
90.
Which wave has the greatest amplitude?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
91.
The wavelength is represented by which letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
92.
The wave crest is represented by which letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
E
93.
The wave trough is represented by which letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
94.
The amplitude of a wave is represented by which letter?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
95.
The rest/line of origin of a wave is represented by which letter?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
D
d)
E
96.
Which type of wave only has movement that is parallel to the direction of the wave?
a)
transverse wave
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
surface wave
d)
none of the above
97.
Which type of wave only has movement that is perpendicular to the direction of the wave?
a)
Transverse wave
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
surface wave
d)
none of the above
98.
What is Half-life?
a)
The amount of time it takes for some of the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
b)
The amount of time it takes for half the electrons in a sample of the isotope to decay
c)
The amount of time it takes for half the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
d)
the amount of time it takes to double the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
99.
The half-life of strontium-90 is 25 years. How much strontium-90 will remain after 100 years if the initial amount is 4.0 g?
a)
3.0g
b)
0.25mg
c)
0.3g
d)
0.25g
100.
The half-life of Zn-71 is 2.4 minutes. If one had 100.0 g at the beginning, how many grams would be left after 7.2 minutes has elapsed?
a)
100.0g
b)
50.0g
c)
12.5g
d)
8.5g
101.
If 10 mg of iodine 131 is given to a patient, how much is left after 24 days? The half-life of iodine-131 is 8 days.
a)
1.25mg
b)
1.25g
c)
10g
d)
10mg
102.
In the equations, frequency=1/period and period=1/frequency. What kind of relationship are frequency and period?
a)
direct
b)
inverse
103.
Given the equation:
Acceleration = (final velocity - initial velocity)/ time.
Find the acceleration of the elephant.
Given: The elephant accelerates from 2 m/s to 5 m/s in 3 seconds.
Acceleration = (final velocity - initial velocity)/ time.
Find the acceleration of the elephant.
Given: The elephant accelerates from 2 m/s to 5 m/s in 3 seconds.
a)
2 m/s2
b)
1 m/s2
c)
3 m/s2
d)
9 m/s2
104.
A string has a period of .8 seconds. What is its frequency?
a)
1.25 seconds
b)
.2 seconds
c)
.2 hertz
d)
1.25 hertz
105.
The unit for frequency
a)
Hertz
b)
Heinz
c)
Seconds
d)
Cycles
106.
When a sound wave hits a wall and echoes back, this is an example of what?
a)
Refraction
b)
Diffraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Interference
107.
This image is representing what wave interaction?
a)
Refraction
b)
Diffraction
c)
Reflection
d)
Interference
108.
What is the reason the pencil appears different under water?
a)
Interference
b)
Refraction
c)
Diffraction
d)
Reflection
109.
An interaction that occurs when 2 waves meet is known as what?
a)
Diffraction
b)
Standing wave
c)
Interference
d)
Resonance
110.
When 2 waves meet and there amplitude increases it is known as what?
a)
Constructive Interference
b)
Amplitude Addition
c)
Positive Interference
d)
Destructive Interference
111.
An interaction between 2 waves that causes a smaller amplitude
a)
Constructive interference
b)
Destructive interference
c)
Resonance
d)
Diffraction
112.
When a wave moves around a barrier or though an opening it is known as what?
a)
Diffraction
b)
Refraction
c)
Rarefaction
d)
Destruction
113.
When an object or wave hits a surface through which it cannot pass, it bounces back. What is this?
a)
Diffraction
b)
Reflection
c)
Refraction
d)
Resonance
114.
True or false? The two types of interference are constructive and destructive interference.
a)
True
b)
False
115.
a)
absorption
b)
diffraction
c)
reflection
d)
refraction
e)
transmission
116.
a)
absorption
b)
diffraction
c)
reflection
d)
refraction
e)
transmission
117.
Which of the figures represents reflection?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
118.
Which of the following represents refraction?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
119.
What object would absorb the most radiation?
a)
A black T-shirt
b)
A mirror
c)
A white skateboard
d)
A red apple
120.
When standing in the sun this behavior allows you to warm up as light and other waves hit your clothes.
a)
Reflection
b)
Refraction
c)
Absorption
d)
Transmission
121.
Maurice is wearing a yellow shirt. What behavior is causing our eye to see the yellow waves?
a)
absorption
b)
transmission
c)
reflection
d)
refraction
122.
Scott travels north 5 miles and then goes west 3 miles before coming straight back south 2 miles. What is his distance?
a)
10
b)
7
c)
8
d)
6
123.
Distance and direction of an object's change in position from a starting point
a)
displacement
b)
distance
c)
motion
d)
reference point
124.
Jermaine runs exactly 2 laps around a 400 meter track. What is the displacement?
a)
800
b)
400
c)
0
d)
200
125.
How far an object has moved?
a)
displacement
b)
distance
c)
motion
d)
reference point
126.
A change in position or location
a)
Magnetism
b)
Gravity
c)
Position
d)
Movement
127.
David walks 3 km north, and then turns east and walks 4 km. What is the distance?
a)
7 km
b)
3 km
c)
4 km
d)
1 km
128.
1. Amy runs 2 miles south, then turns around and runs 3 miles north. What is displacement?
a)
5 miles
b)
1 miles
c)
2 miles
d)
3 miles
129.
Ray runs 30 feet north, 30 feet west, and then 30 feet south. What is the distance?
a)
90 feet
b)
30 feet
c)
60 feet
d)
0 feet
130.
1. Ray runs 30 feet north, 30 feet west, and then 30 feet south. What is the displacement?
a)
30 feet west
b)
90 feet
c)
30 feet south
d)
0 feet
131.
What kind of quantity has both a magnitude and a direction?
a)
scalar
b)
vector
c)
frame of reference
d)
time
132.
Bill runs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home. What is Bill's distance?
a)
0 meters
b)
400 meters
c)
800 meters
d)
1600 meters
133.
Bill runs 400 meters to Andy's house, turns around, and runs 400 meters back home. What is Bill's displacement?
a)
0 meters
b)
400 meters
c)
800 meters
d)
1600 meters
134.
Which of the following could never be negative?
a)
a distance
b)
a velocity
c)
a displacement
d)
a vector
135.
A persons walks 50 meters directly north, stops, and then travels 32 meters directly south. What is their displacement?
a)
82 meters
b)
18 meters
c)
28 meters
136.
A persons walks 50 meters directly north, stops, and then travels 32 meters directly south. What is their distance traveled?
a)
82 meters
b)
18 meters
c)
32 meters
137.
A car drives 84 meters forward. It's displacement and distance would be the same.
a)
True
b)
False
138.
Velocity is both ____ and _____.
a)
speed , direction
b)
direction, mass
c)
volume, density
d)
direction, magnitude
139.
What is the speed of a car that traveled 56 m in 4 seconds?
a)
64 m/s
b)
34 m/s
c)
14 m/s
d)
0.0625 m/s
140.
Which of the following is a unit for acceleration?
a)
km/s
b)
m/s2
c)
mi/hr
d)
ft
141.
65mi/hr South is an example of...
a)
Speed
b)
Velocity
c)
Acceleration
d)
Direction
142.
Calculate the speed of a sprinter who ran 200 meters in 20 seconds.
a)
10m/s
b)
10km/s
c)
10m/hr
d)
10km/hr
143.
You walk 10 meters to math class in 20 seconds. Your average speed is
a)
2 m/s
b)
0.5 m/s
c)
200 m/s
d)
5 m/s
144.
Find the velocity of a plane that traveled 3000 miles west in 5 hours.
a)
65 mph west
b)
6 mph west
c)
600 mph west
d)
6000 mph west
145.
A ball of clay is thrown at a wall at a velocity of 28.0 m/s. After it hits the wall, it takes 0.020 s to stop. What is the acceleration of the clay when it hits the wall?
a)
1400 m/s2
b)
-1400 m/s2
c)
0.56 m/s2
d)
-0.56 m/s2
146.
A box sliding down an inclined plane attains a velocity of 27 m/s in 3 seconds from rest. Find the acceleration.
a)
30 m/s
b)
24 m/s2
c)
9 m/s2
d)
81 km/hr
147.
A roller coasters accelerates from an initial velocity of of 6.0 m/s to a final velocity of 70 m/s over 4 seconds. What's the acceleration?
a)
24 m/s2
b)
18 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
16 m/s
148.
A dog runs with an initial speed of 7.5 m/s on a waxed floor. It slides to a stop in 15 seconds. What is the acceleration?
a)
-7.5 m/s
b)
-7.5 m/s2
c)
-0.5 m/s2
d)
7.5 mi//hr
149.
A car starts from rest at a stop light and reaches 20 m/s in 3.5 s. Determine the acceleration of the car.
a)
2.2m/s2
b)
7.0m/s2
c)
5.7m/s2
d)
70m/s2
150.
What law is best described by inertia?
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
151.
F = MxA
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
152.
Force exerted between the surfaces of two objects.
a)
Friction
b)
Inertia
c)
Force
d)
Gravity
153.
"For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
154.
"An object in motion (or at rest) will to stay in motion (or at rest) until an outside force acts upon it."
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
155.
Force = Mass x Acceleration
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
Newton's 4th Law
156.
Any push or pull on an object.
a)
force
b)
velocity
c)
inertia
d)
momentum
157.
A Newton is a unit of...
a)
force
b)
inertia
c)
acceleration
d)
velocity
158.
When all the forces on an object are equal and opposite, & the net force is zero, that's...
a)
balanced forces
b)
unbalanced forces
c)
terminal velocity
d)
reaction forces
159.
A student leaves a pencil on a desk and the pencil stays in the same spot until another student picks it up.
a)
Law of Inertia
b)
Law of Acceleration
c)
Law of Conservation of Momentum
160.
What is the acceleration of a 50 kg object pushed with a force of 500 newtons? To solve this problem you must do -
a)
500 ÷ 50
b)
50 ÷ 500
c)
500 x 50
161.
A 50 kg skater pushed by a friend accelerates 5 m/s2. How much force did the friend apply? To solve this problem you must do -
a)
50 ÷ 5
b)
5 ÷ 50
c)
50 x 5
162.
The mass of a car is 1000 kg. How much force would be required to accelerate the car at a rate of 3 m/s2?
a)
1000 ÷ 3
b)
3 ÷ 1000
c)
1000 x 3
163.
A force of 250 N is applied to an object that accelerates at a rate of 5 m/s2. What is the mass of the object? To solve this problem you must do -
a)
250 ÷ 5
b)
5 ÷ 250
c)
250 x 5
164.
If a 10 kilogram object accelerates suddenly at 15 m/s^2, how much force was applied to the object?
a)
150 Newtons
b)
15 Newtons
c)
150 kilograms
d)
100 kilograms
165.
If a force of 50 Newton's was applied to an object with a mass of 500 grams, what will the object's acceleration be?
a)
10 m/s^2
b)
.1 m/s^2
c)
100 m/s^2
d)
1 m/s^2
166.
A 20 kg bike accelerates at 10 m/s2. what was the force?
a)
25 Newtons
b)
20 Newtons
c)
200 Newtons
d)
10 Newtons
167.
Unit of mass
a)
m/s 2
b)
m/s
c)
newtons
d)
kg
168.
A 5 kg block is pulled across a table by a net force of 32 N. Calculate the acceleration of the object. To solve this problem you must do -
a)
32 ÷ 5
b)
5 ÷ 32
c)
32 x 5
169.
If an object was accelerating at 10 m/s^2, and a force of 10 newtons was required to accelerate it, what was the object's mass?
a)
1 kilogram
b)
10 kilograms
c)
2 kilograms
d)
5 kilograms
170.
Who is the scientist who came up with the Laws of Motion?
a)
Sir Issac Newton
b)
The Greeks
c)
John Dalton
171.
What is Newton's Third Law?
a)
Object in motion stays in motion and an object at rest stays at rest unless acted on by a outside force
b)
Force = mass x acceleration
c)
For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction
172.
Unbalanced forces make an object:
a)
Come to rest
b)
move at constant velocity
c)
accelerate
d)
explode
173.
If you exert a net force of 8 N on a 2-kg object, what will its acceleration be?
a)
2 m/s2
b)
4 m/s2
c)
16 m/s2
d)
10 m/s2
174.
Friction between two objects in motion
a)
potential friction
b)
kinetic friction
c)
static friction
d)
motion friction
175.
Friction between two objects at rest
a)
potential friction
b)
kinetic friction
c)
static friction
d)
motion friction
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