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Repro & Evolution (OYM)

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All Bryophytes and Tracheophytes have originated from

a)

Psilophyton

b)

Zosterophyllum

c)

Chlorophyte ancestors

d)

Rhynia

2.

Which of the following plants do not exist beyond Permian period of Palaeozoic era?

a)

Bryophytes

b)

Arborescent lycopods

c)

Herbaceous lycopods

d)

Ferns

3.

Out of the animals listed below, which of the following represent the proper sequence from the earliest in the fossil record to the latest?

(a) Archeopteryx

(b) Winged insects

(c) Australopithecus

(d) Cephalopods

a)

a, b, d, c

b)

b, d, a, c

c)

d, b, a, c

d)

d, b, c, a

4.

Choose the option where following distribution curve can be observed

a)

Average body weight at which new born baby is more likely to survive

b)

Selection of long necked giraffe during drought

c)

Increase in pesticide resistance strains of mosquitoes

d)

High frequency of melanic moths during industrialisation

5.

Which of the following plants fell to form coal deposits slowly during the course of evolution?

a)

Gymnosperms

b)

Conifers

c)

Gnetales

d)

Giant ferns

6.

How many of the following factors alter the gene frequency in a non-directional way?

a) Gene migration

b) Natural selection

c) Genetic drift

d) Mutation

a)

a,c

b)

c,d

c)

b,c

d)

a,b

7.

Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. Australopithecines

a)

They walked like gorillas about 15 mya

b)

Essentially ate fruit

c)

Hunted with stone weapons

d)

Probably lived in East African grasslands

8.

Pre historic cave paintings can be seen at Bhimbetka Rock shelter in district __A___ and are associated with __B___ prehistoric humans. Fill the blanks with correct options

a)

A- Madhya Pradesh, B- Homo sapiens

b)

A- Indore, B- Homo erectus

c)

A- Raisen , B- Homo sapiens

d)

A- Gwalior , B- Homo habilis

9.

According to Darwin, how many of the following features suitable to an organism which are well camouflaged in its surroundings so that it checks detection by its predators

(a) Is favoured by natural selection

(b) Leaves more progeny

(c) Has higher fitness

(d) Contribute less to gene pool

a)

a,b,c only

b)

b,c only

c)

a,b,d only

d)

None of the above

10.

Birds with average-sized wings survived in a severe storm more successfully than with longer or shorter wings. It illustrates a type of natural selection in which

a)

More individuals acquire value other than mean character values

b)

Single peak is obtained in the middle of distribution curve as natural selection can lead to stabilization

c)

All individuals acquire values other than mean character value

d)

All individuals acquire mean character value

11.

Which of the following organism is phylogenetically close living relative of birds?

a)

Mammals

b)

Thecodonts

c)

Crocodiles

d)

Dinosaurs

12.

“Evolution of life forms on earth had occurred but driven by use and disuse of organs”. This concept of evolution was proposed by

a)

Charles Darwin before Lamarck

b)

Charles Darwin after Lamarck

c)

Lamarck after Charles Darwin

d)

Lamarck before Charles Darwin

13.

Read the following statements A and B and choose the correct option

Statement A: Every population has built in variation in characteristics which enable them to survive better in natural conditions.

Statement B: In a mixed population, those that can better-adapt, survive and increase in population size but no variant is completely wiped out.

a)

Both the statements A and B are correct

b)

Both the statements A and B are incorrect

c)

Only statement A is correct

d)

Only statement B is correct

14.

Evolution is a stochastic process based on A in nature and B in the organisms

Choose the option which fill the blanks A and B correctly

a)

A- Chance events B- Chance mutation

b)

A- Chance mutation B- Chance events

c)

A- Selective mating B- Convergent evolution

d)

A- Gene migration B- Constant gene pool

15.

According to evolutionary history of vertebrates, first homeothermic animals evolved on earth were

a)

Amphibians

b)

Reptiles

c)

Birds

d)

Mammals

16.

Due to similar environmental pressure there are development of similar features in marsupials and placental mammals that leads to convergent evolution. Select the set of mammals which do not follow this pattern

a)

Bobcat and tiger cat

b)

Wombat and sugar glider

c)

Lemur and spotted cuscus

d)

Wolf and Tasmanian wolf

17.

Complete the analogy

Thecodonts: crocodiles:: -----------: Mammals

a)

Stem reptiles

b)

Therapsids

c)

Sauropsids

d)

Dinosaurs

18.

Herbivorous, horned dinosaur who performed quadrupedal locomotion was

a)

Tyrannosaurus

b)

Triceratops

c)

Brachiosaurus

d)

Stegosaurus

19.

From his experiments, S.L. Miller produced amino acids by mixing the following in a closed flask.

a)

CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 800°C

b)

CH4, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

c)

CH3, H2, NH3 and water vapor at 600°C

d)

CH3, H2, NH4 and water vapor at 800°C

20.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the origin of life?

I. Formation of protobionts

II. Synthesis of organic monomers

III. Synthesis of organic polymers

IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems

a)

I, II, III, IV

b)

I, III, II, IV

c)

II, III, I, IV

d)

II, III, IV, I

21.

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes in environment brought about by anthropogenic action? (1) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands.

(2) Herbicide resistant weeds.

(3) Drug resistant eukaryotes.

(4) Man-created breeds of domesticated animals like dogs.

a)

only (1)

b)

(1) and (3)

c)

(2), (3) and (4)

d)

only (4)

22.

Embryological support for evolution was disapproved by

a)

Karl Ernst von Baer

b)

Alfred Wallace

c)

Charles Darwin

d)

Oparin

23.

Flippers of penguins and dolphins are examples of

a)

adaptive radiation

b)

convergent evolution

c)

industrial melanism

d)

natural selection

24.

Which one of the following scientist’s name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?

a)

De Vries - Natural selection

b)

Mendel - Theory of Pangenesis

c)

Pasteur - Inheritance of acquired characters

d)

Weismann - Theory of continuity of germplasm

25.

Variations caused by mutation, as proposed by Hugo de Vries, are

a)

small and directional

b)

random and directionless

c)

random and directional

d)

small and directionless

26.

A gene locus has two alleles A, a. If the frequency of dominant allele A is 0.4, then what will be the frequency of homozygous dominant, heterozygous and homozygous recessive individuals in the population?

a)

0.16 (AA); 0.36 (Aa); 0.48 (aa)

b)

0.36 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.16 (aa)

c)

0.16 (AA); 0.24 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

d)

0.16 (AA); 0.48 (Aa); 0.36 (aa)

27.

In a species, the weight of newborn ranges from 2 to 5 kg. 97% of the newborn with an average weight between 3 to 3.3 kg survive whereas 99% of the infants born with weights from 2 to 2.5 or 4.5 to 5 kg die. Which type of selection process is taking place?

a)

Cyclical selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Stabilising selection

d)

Disruptive selection

28.

In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belong to genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to aa. Based on this data, the frequency of allele A in the population is

a)

0.4

b)

0.5

c)

0.6

d)

0.7

29.

At a particular locus, frequency of A allele is 0.6 and that of a is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in a random mating population at equilibrium?

a)

0.36

b)

0.16

c)

0.24

d)

0.48

30.

Match the hominids with their correct brain size. (A) Homo habilis (i) 900cc

(B) Homo neanderthalensis (ii) 1350 cc

(C) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800cc

(D) Homo sapiens (iv) 1400cc

a)

(A) (iv) (B) (iii) (C) (i) (D) (ii)

b)

(A) (iii) (B) (i) (C) (iv) (D) (ii)

c)

(A) (iii) (B) (ii) (C) (i) (D) (iv)

d)

(A) (iii) (B) (iv) (C) (i) (D) (ii)

31.

Which of the following contraceptive methods involve a role of hormone ?

a)

Pills, Emergency contraceptives, Barrier methods

b)

Lactational amenorrhea, Pills, Emergency contraceptives

c)

Barrier method, Lactational amenorrhea, Pills

d)

CuT, Pills, Emergency contraceptive

32.

Select the hormone-releasing Intra-Uterine Devices.

a)

Lippes Loop, Multiload 375

b)

Vaults, LNG-20

c)

Multiload 375, Progestasert

d)

Progestasert, LNG-20

33.

Which of the following is a correct statement?

a)

IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.

b)

IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.

c)

IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.

d)

IUDs suppress gametogenesis

34.

The contraceptive ‘Saheli’

a)

blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus, preventing eggs from getting implanted

b)

increases the concentration of estrogen and prevents ovulation in females

c)

is an IUD

d)

is a post-coital contraceptive

35.

Tubectomy is a method of sterilisation in which

a)

small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up

b)

ovaries are removed surgically

c)

small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up

d)

uterus is removed surgically

36.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?

a)

No sperm occurs in seminal fluid

b)

No sperm occurs in epididymis

c)

Vasa deferentia is cut and tied

d)

Irreversible sterility

37.

Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive?

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

38.

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy?

a)

8

b)

12

c)

18

d)

6

39.

Select the option including all sexually transmitted diseases.

a)

Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes

b)

Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes

c)

AIDS, Malaria, Filaria

d)

Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis

40.

Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (column I) with their causative agent (column II) and select the correct option.

Column I Column II

A. Gonorrhoea (i) HIV

B. Syphilis (ii) Neisseria

C. Genital warts (iii) Treponema

D. AIDS (iv) Human papilloma virus

a)

A (iii) B (iv) C (i) D (ii)

b)

A (iv) B (ii) C (iii) D (i)

c)

A (iv) B (iii) C (ii) D (i)

d)

A (ii) B (iii) C (iv) D (i)

41.

In which of the following techniques, the embryos are transferred to assist those females who cannot conceive?

a)

ZIFT & IUT

b)

GIFT & ZIFT

c)

ICSI & ZIFT

d)

GIFT & ICSI

42.

Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro fertilisation is transferred into

a)

uterus

b)

fallopian tube

c)

fimbriae

d)

cervix

43.

Choose the odd one w.r.t ill-effects of use of contraceptive pills

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Breakthrough bleeding

c)

Irregular menstrual cycle

d)

STI's

44.

The world population which was around 2 billion in 1900 rocketed by how many times by 2000?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

45.

After the occurrence of fertilization which hormone prevents degeneration of corpus luteum?

a)

Progesterone

b)

hPL

c)

hCG

d)

Relaxin