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Accounting 9_Quiz1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

As the risk of material misstatement increase, detection risk should decrease.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

If planned detection risk is reduced, the amount of evidence the auditor accumulates will decrease.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Inherent risk and control risk are inversely related to each other

a)

True

b)

False

4.

The risk of material misstatement refers to the combination inherent risk and control risk

a)

True

b)

False

5.

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk is evaluated to help an auditor assess the susceptibility of a financial statement assertion to a material misstatement assuming there are no related controls.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Inherent risk is inversely related to the amount of audit evidence whereas detection risk is directly related to the amount of audit evidence required

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Inherent risk is directly related to the amount of evidence whereas detection risk is directly related to the amount of audit evidence required.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Inherent risk and control risk are assessed by the auditor and function independently of the financial statement audit

a)

True

b)

False

9.

As the acceptable level of detection risk increases, an auditor may change the timing of the tests on controls by performing them throughout the year rather than at one time.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

As the acceptable level of detection risk increases, an auditor may change the timing of substantive tests by performing them at an interim date rather than year end.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

The risk that an auditor will conclude, based on substantive tests, that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance when, in fact, such misstatement does exist is referred to as detection risk.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When an auditor increases the assessed level of risk of material misstatement because certain control procedures were determined to be ineffective, the auditor would most likely increase the level of detection risk.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

The risk of material misstatement includes non-sampling risk.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, an auditor may change the nature of substantive procedures from less effective to more effective procedures.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

As the acceptable level of detection risk decreases, the assurance directly provided from substantive procedures should increase.

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Materiality judgments are made in light of surrounding circumstances and necessarily involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The documentation of an auditor’s understanding of internal controls must include flowcharts.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

To obtain evidential matter about control risk, an auditor selects tests from a variety of techniques including confirmation.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Reports on service organization typically provide reasonable assurance that their financial statements are free of material misstatements.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Where computer processing is used in significant accounting applications, internal control activities may be defined by classifying control activities into two types: general and application.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

Based on the requirement of PSA 3330, how frequently must an auditor test operating effectiveness of controls that appear to functions as they have in past years and on which the auditor wishes to rely in the current year?

a)

Monthly

b)

Each audit

c)

At least every second audit

d)

At least every third audit

22.

An auditor uses the knowledge provided by the understanding of internal control and the final assessed level of control risk primarily to determine the nature, timing and extent of the

a)

Attribute tests

b)

Tests of controls

c)

Compliance tests

d)

Substantive tests

23.

Which of the following is not a medium that can normally be used by an auditor to record information concerning a client’s internal control policies and procedures?

a)

Narrative memorandum

b)

Flowchart

c)

Procedures manual

d)

Questionnaire

24.

When the auditor attempts to understand the operation of the accounting system by tracing a few transactions through the accounting system, the auditor is said to be:

a)

Tracing

b)

Vouching

c)

Performing a walk through

d)

Testing controls

25.

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the control activities?

a)

The actions, policies and procedures that reflect the overall attitudes of the management

b)

The identification and analysis of risks and relevant to the preparation of the financial statements

c)

The policies and procedures that help ensure that necessary actions are taken in order to achieve the entity’s objectives

d)

Activities that deal with the ongoing assessment of the quality of internal control by management

26.

Proper segregation of functional responsibilities in an effective structure of internal control calls for separation of functions of

a)

Authorization, execution, and payment

b)

Authorization, recording, and custody

c)

Custody, execution, and reporting

d)

Authorization, payment, and recording

27.

Which of the following is not one of the specific control activities that are relevant to financial statement audit?

a)

Performance reviews

b)

Physical controls

c)

Segregation of duties

d)

Monitoring

28.

The policies and procedures that help ensure that management directives are carried out are referred to as the:

a)

Control environment

b)

Control activities

c)

Monitoring of controls

d)

Information systems

29.

Which of the following deal with ongoing or periodic assessment of quality of internal control by management?

a)

Quality control activities

b)

Monitoring activities

c)

Oversight activities

d)

Management activities

30.

Which of the following is not one of the subcomponents of the control environment?

a)

Management philosophy and operating style

b)

Organizational structure

c)

Adequate separation of duties

d)

Commitment to competence

31.

Which of the following subcomponents of the control environment define the existing lines of responsibility and authority?

a)

Organizational structure

b)

Management philosophy and operating style

c)

Human resource policies and practices

d)

Management integrity and ethical values

32.

Which of the following components of an entity’s internal control structure includes the development of employee promotion and training policies?

a)

Control activities

b)

Control environment

c)

Information and communication

d)

Quality control system

33.

In evaluating the design of the entity’s internal control environment, the auditor considers the certain subcomponents of control environment and how they have been incorporated into the entity’s processes. Subcomponents of control environment would include

a)

Integrity and ethical values

b)

Commitment to competence

c)

Organizational structure

d)

Information and communications systems

34.

The overall attitude and awareness of an entity’s board of director concerning the importance of the internal control usually is reflected in its

a)

Computer-based controls

b)

System of segregation of duties

c)

Control environment

d)

Safeguard over access of assets

35.

Which of the following is not one of the components of an entity’s internal control?

a)

Control risk

b)

Control activities

c)

Information and communication

d)

The control environment

36.

An act of two or more employee to steal assets and cover their theft by misstating the accounting records would be referred to as:

a)

Collusion

b)

A material weakness

c)

A control deficiency

d)

A significant deficiency

37.

Which of the following internal control objectives would be most relevant to the audit?

a)

Operational objective

b)

Compliance objective

c)

Financial reporting objective

d)

Administrative control objective

38.

Which of the following is not one of the three primary objectives of effective internal control?

a)

Reliability of financial reporting

b)

Efficiency and effectiveness of operations

c)

Compliance with laws and regulations

d)

Assurance of elimination of business risk.

39.

The fundamental purpose of an internal control is to

a)

Safeguard the resources of the organization

b)

Provide reasonable assurance that the objectives of the organization are achieved

c)

Encourage compliance with organization objectives

d)

Ensure the accuracy, reliability and timeliness of information

40.

The primary responsibility for establishing and maintaining an internal control rests with

a)

The external auditors

b)

The internal auditors

c)

Management and those charged with governance

d)

The controller or the treasurer

41.

The objective and scope of the audit and the extent of the auditor’s responsibilities to the client are best documented in a(n)

a)

Client’s representation letter

b)

Independent auditor’s report

c)

Audit engagement letter

d)

Management letter

42.

Which of the following is not a valid reason why an auditor sends to his client an engagement letter?

a)

Avoid misunderstanding with respect to the engagement

b)

Confrms the auditor’s appointment

c)

Discloses the objective and scope of the audit

d)

Assures CPA’s compliance to PSAs

43.

The secondary purpose of the engagement letter is to:

a)

Remind management that the primary responsibility for the financial statements rests with management.

b)

Satisfy the requirements of the CPA’s liability insurance policy

c)

Provide a written record of the agreement with the client as to the services to be provided

d)

Provide a starting point for the auditor’s preparation of the preliminary audit program

44.

S1:The engagement letter will include identification of significant dates throughout the engagement

S2: The engagement letter will inform the client about the audit procedures to be performed.

a)

True, true

b)

False, false

c)

True, false

d)

False, true

45.

Which of the following procedures is performed primarily during audit planning?

a)

Risk assessment procedures

b)

Tests of controls

c)

Substantive tests

d)

All of the above are performed primarily during audit planning

46.

Which of the following is not a risk assessment procedure?

a)

Inquiries of management and others within the entity

b)

Analytical procedures

c)

External confirmation with customers

d)

Observation and inspection

47.

S1

materiality judgments are made in light of surrounding circumstances and necessarily involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments.

S2

An auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of a reasonable person who will rely on the financial statements.

a)

True, true

b)

False, false

c)

True, false

d)

False, true

48.

S1

Analytical procedures are required to be used in planning a financial statement audit.

S2

Analytical procedures are required to be used all throughout the audit

a)

True, true

b)

False, false

c)

True, false

d)

False, true

49.

S1

In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability that internal controls fail and the failure is not detected by the auditor’s procedures.

S2

Audit risk may be eliminated by 100% testing of the items in the population

a)

True, true

b)

False, false

c)

True, false

d)

False, true

50.

In a financial statement audit, detection risk represents:

a)

The susceptibility of an account balance to error that could be material.

b)

The risk that error could occur and not be prevented or detected by the internal control structure of the client

c)

The risk that the auditor fails to modify materially misstated financial statements

d)

The risk that error could occur and not be detected by the auditor’s procedures.

51.

This involves developing an overall strategy for the expected conduct and scope of the examination; the nature, extent, and timing of which vary with the size and complexity, and experience with and knowledge of the entity.

a)

Audit planning

b)

Audit procedure

c)

Audit program

d)

Audit working papers

52.

Initial planning involves four matters. Which of the following is not one of these?

a)

Develop an overall audit strategy

b)

Request that bank balances be confirmed

c)

Schedule engagement staff and audit specialists

d)

Identify the client’s reason for the audit

53.

A CPA is conducting the first examination of a client’s financial statements. The CPA hopes to reduce the audit work by consulting with the predecessor auditor and reviewing the predecessor’s working papers. This procedure is

a)

Acceptable if the client and the predecessor auditor agree to it.

b)

Acceptable if the CPA refers in the audit report to reliance upon the predecessor auditor’s work.

c)

Required if the CPA is to render an unmodified opinion.

d)

Unacceptable because the CPA should bring an independent viewpoint to a new engagement.

54.

The preliminary judgment about materiality and the amount of audit evidence accumulated are related.

a)

directly

b)

indirectly

c)

not

d)

inversely

55.

According to PSA 320, materiality should be considered by the auditor when:

a)

Determining the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures: Yes

Evaluating the effects of misstatements: Yes

b)

Determining the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures: Yes

Evaluating the effects of misstatements: No

c)

Determining the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures: No

Evaluating the effects of misstatements: No

d)

Determining the nature, timing and extent of audit procedures: No

Evaluating the effects of misstatements: Yes

56.

Which of the following statements is not correct about materiality?

a)

The concept of materiality recognizes that some matters are important for fair presentation of financial statements in conformity with the applicable financial reporting framework, while other matters are not important.

b)

An auditor considers materiality for planning purposes in terms of the largest aggregate level of misstatements that could be material to any one of the financial statements.

c)

Materiality judgments are made in light of surrounding circumstances and necessarily involve both quantitative and qualitative judgments

d)

An auditor’s consideration of materiality is influenced by the auditor’s perception of the needs of a reasonable person who will rely on the financial statements.

57.

“Performance materiality” is the term used to indicate materiality at the:

a)

balance sheet level

b)

account balance level

c)

income statement level

d)

company-wide level

58.

When comparing level of materiality used for planning purposes and the level of materiality used for evaluating evidence, one would most likely expect

a)

The level of materiality to be always similar

b)

The level of materiality for planning purposes to be similar

c)

The level of materiality for planning purposes to be higher

d)

The level of materiality for planning purposes to be based on total assets while the level of materiality for evaluating purposes to be based on net income

59.

Qualitative factors can affect an auditor’s assessment of materiality. Which of the following qualitative factors could influence the assessment of materiality?

I. Misstatements that are otherwise immaterial may be material if affect earnings trends.

II. Minor misstatements resulting from the consequences of contractual obligations.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

neither I or II

60.

Auditors frequently refer to the terms audit assurance, overall assurance, ad level of assurance to refer to

a)

detection risk

b)

audit report risk

c)

acceptable audit risk

d)

inherent risk

61.

The risk that financial statements are likely to be misstated materially without regard to the effectiveness of internal control is the;

a)

Inherent risk

b)

Audit risk

c)

Client risk

d)

Control risk

62.

When planning a financial statement audit, the auditor should assess inherent risk at the

a)

Financial statement level: Yes

Account balance or transaction class level: Yes

b)

Financial statement level: Yes

Account balance or transaction class level: No

c)

Financial statement level: No

Account balance or transaction class level: No

d)

Financial statement level: No

Account balance or transaction class level: Yes

63.

Which of the following is an incorrect statement?

a)

Detection risk cannot be changed at the auditor’s discretion.

b)

If individual audit risk remains the same, detection risk bears an inverse relationship to inherent and control risk.

c)

The greater the inherent and control risk the auditor believes exists, the less detection risk that can be accepted.

d)

The auditor might make separate or combine assessments of inherent risk and control risk.

64.

Relationship between control risk and detection risk is ordinarily

a)

Parallel

b)

Direct

c)

Inverse

d)

Equal

65.

Which of the following is not correct regarding an auditor’s decision that a lower acceptable audit risk is appropriate?

a)

More evidence is accumulated

b)

Less evidence is accumulated

c)

Special care is required in assigning experienced staff

d)

Review of audit documentation is performed by personnel not assigned to the engagement

66.

These consist of the analysis of significant ratios and trends including the resulting investigation of fluctuations and relationships that are inconsistent with other relevant information or deviate from predictable amounts.

a)

Financial statement analysis

b)

Variance analysis

c)

Analytical procedures

d)

Regression analysis

67.

Which of the following statements about analytical procedures is incorrect?

a)

Analytical procedures are required to be performed in the planning phase of the audit.

b)

Analytical procedures are required to be done during the testing phase of the audit.

c)

Analytical procedures are required to be done during the completion phase of the audit.

d)

Analytical procedures may be performed in the planning, testing and completion phases of the audit.

68.

In developing the overall audit plan and audit program, the auditor should assess inherent risk at the:

a)

Audit plan: Financial statement level

Audit program: Accounting balance level

b)

Audit plan: Accounting balance level

Audit program: Financial statement level

c)

Audit plan: Accounting balance level

Audit program: Accounting balance level

d)

Audit plan: Financial statement level

Audit program: Financial statement level

69.

An auditor should design the written audit program so that

a)

All material transactions will be selected for substantive testing

b)

Substantive tests prior to the balance sheet date will be minimized.

c)

The audit procedures selected will achieve specific audit objectives.

d)

Each account balance will be tested under either tests of controls or tests of transactions.

70.

Which of the following matters would least likely appear in the audit program?

a)

Specific procedures that will be performed.

b)

Specific audit objectives.

c)

Estimated time that will be spent in performing certain procedures.

d)

Documentation of the accounting and internal control systems being reviewed.

71.

In evaluating internal control, the auditor is basically concerned that the system provides reasonable assurance that operational efficiency has been achieved in accordance with management plans

a)

True

b)

False

72.

The maintenance of the system of internal control is an important responsibility of the internal auditor

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Because of the cost/benefit relationship, test of controls maybe applied on a test basis in some circumstances

a)

True

b)

False

74.

The concept of reasonable assurance in the context of an entity's internal controls recognizes that auditors may fail to detect material misstatements

a)

True

b)

False

75.

An effective control environment guarantees that all controls are followed as prescribed

a)

True

b)

False

76.

The risk assessment component of internal controls refers to the auditor's assessment of control risk

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Assessing control risk at below the maximum would involve identifying specific internal controls relevant to specific assertions

a)

True

b)

False

78.

In the audit of financial statements, an auditor's primary consideration regarding an internal control policy or procedure is whether the policy or procedure affects management's financial statement assertions

a)

True

b)

False

79.

As part of gaining an initial understanding of internal control, an auditor is required to obtain knowledge about the operating effectiveness of the internal control

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Assessing control risk below maximum involves concluding that controls are ineffective

a)

True

b)

False

81.

After the auditor has prepared a flowchart of the internal controls surrounding sales and evaluated the design of the system, the auditor would perform tests of controls on all control activities documented in the flowchart

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Observation is a procedure that would most likely be used by an auditor in performing tests of control activities that involve segregation of functions and functions and that leave no transaction trail

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Tracing bills of lading to sales invoices provides evidence that billed sales were shipped

a)

True

b)

False

84.

Tracing copies of sales invoices to shipping documents will provide evidence that all shipments to customers were billed

a)

True

b)

False

85.

The accounts payable department receives the purchase order form to ensure that the goods had been received by the party requesting the goods

a)

True

b)

False

86.

The authority to accept incoming goods in receiving should be based on an approved purchase order

a)

True

b)

False

87.

For effective internal control purposes, the vouchers payable department generally should stamp, perforate, or otherwise cancel supporting documentation after payment is mailed

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Vendors' statements and vendors' invoices are both relatively reliable evidence because they originate from a third party

a)

True

b)

False

89.

Credit memos are normally issued to adjust the customers balance to the amount owed to the company

a)

True

b)

False

90.

The document that the accounting staff will use as the primary basis for recording sales transactions and updating the customers accounts receivable subsidiary ledger is the sales invoice

a)

True

b)

False

91.

PSA 315 (Identifying and Assessing the Risks of Material Misstatement through Understanding the Entity and its Environment) requires the auditor to perform risk assessment procedures at

a)

The financial statement level only.

b)

The assertion level only.

c)

The financial statement level and the assertion level for classes of transactions, account balances and disclosures.

d)

Either the financial statement or assertion level.

92.

The auditor's risk assessment procedures should always include the following, except

a)

Inquiries of management and of others within the entity.

b)

Analytical procedures.

c)

Observation and inspection.

d)

Substantive test procedures and tests of controls.

93.

The auditor's risk assessment procedures

a)

By themselves, do not provide sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base the audit opinion.

b)

Should not consider information obtained from the auditor's previous experience with the entity.

c)

Are designed to detect material misstatements at the assertion level for classes of transactions account balances and disclosures.

d)

Are designed to test the effectiveness of the entity's controls

94.

The auditor should obtain an understanding of the entity's objectives and strategies, and those business risks that may result in risks of material misstatement. Which of the following statements concerning the entity's business risk is incorrect?

a)

Business risk is broader than the risk of material misstatement of the financial statements, though it includes the latter.

b)

An understanding of the business risks facing the entity increases the likelihood of identifying risks of material misstatement.

c)

The auditor has a responsibility to identify or assess all business risks.

d)

Business risk may arise from the development of new products or services that may fail.

95.

The risk that the auditor may give an inappropriate opinion when the financial statements are materially misstated is called

a)

Detection risk

b)

Business risk

c)

Audit risk

d)

Inherent risk

96.

Audit risk has three components: inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. Which is correct?

a)

Detection risk is a function of the efficiency of an auditing procedure.

b)

Cash is more susceptible to theft than an inventory of coal because it has a greater inherent risk.

c)

The risk that material misstatements will not be prevented or detected on a timely basis by internal control can . be reduced to zero by effective controls.

d)

The existing levels of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk can be changed at the discretion of the auditor

97.

The risk that an auditor's substantive procedures will lead to the conclusion that a material misstatement does not exist in an account balance or transaction class when, in fact, such misstatement does exist is

a)

Control risk

b)

Inherent risk

c)

Audit risk

d)

Detection risk

98.

The existence of audit risk is recognized by the statement in the auditor's report that the

a)

Financial statements are presented fairly, in all material respects, in accordance with Philippine Financial Reporting Standards.

b)

Audit includes examining, on a test basis, evidence supporting the amounts and disclosures in the financial statements.

c)

Auditor obtains reasonable assurance about whether the financial statements are free of material misstatement.

d)

Auditor is responsible for expressing an opinion on the financial statements, which are management's responsibility.

99.

There is an inverse relationship that exists between the acceptable level of detection risk and the

a)

Risk of failing to discover material misstatements.

b)

Assurance provided by substantive tests.

c)

Preliminary judgments about materiality levels.

d)

Risk of misapplying audit procedures.

100.

Which of the following statements concerning audit risk and its components is incorrect?

a)

Regardless of the assessed levels of inherent and control risks, the auditor should always perform some substantive procedures for material account balances and classes of transactions.

b)

The higher the assessment of inherent and control risks, the more evidence the auditor should obtain from the performance of substantive procedures.

c)

The assessed level of inherent risk need not be considered in determining the nature, timing, and extent of substantive procedures required to reduce audit risk to an acceptably low level.

d)

After obtaining .an understanding of the accounting and internal control systems, the auditor should make a preliminary assessment of control risk, at the assertion lev· el, for each material account balance or class of transactions.