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Worksheets

Endothrill01

Total questions: 26

Worksheet time: 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Somatostatin inhibits the release of:

a)

Growth hormone

b)

Insulin

c)

Thyrotropin

d)

All of the above

2.

For therapeutic use, growth hormone is obtained

from

a)

Recombinant DNA technique

b)

Human cadaver pituitaries

c)

Porcine pituitaries

d)

Chemical synthesis

3.

Hyperprolactinemia can cause the following except

a)

Amenorrhoea

b)

Gynaecomastia

c)

Multiple ovulation

d)

Depressed fertility

4.

Menotropins is a preparation of:

a)

FSH + LH obtained from urine of menstrua-

ting women

b)

LH obtained from urine of pregnant women

c)

FSH + LH obtained from urine of menopausal

women

d)

LH obtained from serum of pregnant mare

5.

Superactive GnRH agonists cause:

a)

Initial as well as sustained release of gonado-

tropins

b)

Initial inhibition followed by stimulation of

gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

c)

Initial stimulation followed by inhibition of

gonadotropin release after 1-2 weeks

d)

Initial as well as sustained inhibition of

gonadotropin release

6.

Carbimazole acts by inhibiting:

a)

Iodide trapping

b)

Oxidation of iodide

c)

Proteolysis of thyroglobulin

d)

Synthesis of thyroglobulin protein

7.

The thyroid inhibitor which produces the fastest

response is:

a)

Lugol’s iodine

b)

Radioactive iodine

c)

Propylthiouracil

d)

Lithium carbonate

8.

The physical half life of radioactive 131I is:

a)

8 hours

b)

8 days

c)

16 days

d)

60 days

9.

The major limitation of the thiazolidinediones in the

treatment of type 2 diabetes mellitus is:

a)

Frequent hypoglycaemic episodes

b)

Hyperinsulinemia

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Low hypoglycaemic efficacy in moderate to

severe cases

10.

The primary route of administration of insulin is:

a)

Intradermal

b)

Subcutaneous

c)

Intramuscular

d)

Intravenous

11.

The insulin preparation of choice in diabetic keto-

acidosis is:

a)

Regular insulin

b)

Lente insulin

c)

Isophane insulin

d)

A 30:70 mixture of plain and isophane

insulin

12.

Choose the correct statement(s) about pioglitazone:

a)

It acts as an agonist on nuclear paroxisome

proliferator receptor γ

b)

It enhances transcription of insulin res-

ponsive genes

c)

It lowers blood sugar in type 2 diabetes

mellitus without causing hyperinsulinemia

d)

All of the above

13.

Select the compound that is preferred for high dose

intravenous corticosteroid pulse therapy:

a)

Cortisone

b)

Hydrocortisone

c)

Triamcinolone

d)

Methyl prednisolone

14.

Which of the following bones is affected more by

glucocorticoid induced osteoporosis:

a)

Lumber vertebra

b)

Humerus

c)

Radius

d)

Femur

15.

Select the disorder in which methyltestosterone is

beneficial but testosterone is ineffective:

a)

Hereditary angioneurotic edema

b)

Delayed puberty in a boy

c)

Impotence due to testicular failure

d)

AIDS related muscle wasting

16.

Circulating testosterone levels in men are elevated

during treatment with:

a)

Danazol

b)

Finasteride

c)

Flutamide

d)

Ketoconazole

17.

The daily dose of estrogen for hormone replacement

therapy in postmenopausal women is:

a)

Same as for contraception

b)

Higher than that for contraception

c)

Lower than that for contraception

d)

Variable depending on the age of the woman

18.

Select the drug which administered orally causes

cervical ripening in pregnant women to facilitate

surgical abortion or induction of labour:

a)

Mifepristone

b)

Raloxifene

c)

Natural progesterone

d)

Levonorgestrel

19.

Health benefits afforded by the combined estrogen-

progestin oral contraceptive pill include the following

except:

a)

Reduced menstrual blood loss

b)

Lower risk of fibrocystic breast disease

c)

Lower risk of myocardial infarction

d)

Lower risk of endometrial carcinoma

20.

Ergometrine stops postpartum haemorrhage by:

a)

Causing vasoconstriction of uterine arteries

b)

Increasing tone of uterine muscle

c)

Promoting coagulation

d)

Inducing platelet aggregation

21.

The drug used for controlling tetany is:

a)

Intravenous diazepam

b)

Intramuscular vitamin D

c)

Intravenous calcium gluconate

d)

Intravenous calcitonin

22.

The most suitable vitamin D preparation for vitamin

D dependent rickets is:

a)

Calciferol

b)

Cholecalciferol

c)

Calcifediol

d)

Calcitriol

23.

The major limitation in the use of clozapine for

treatment of schizophrenia is:

a)

Its potential to cause agranulocytosis

b)

Its inability to benefit negative symptoms of

schizophrenia

c)

High incidence of extrapyramidal side effects

d)

Production of hyperprolactinemia

24.

The psychotic symptoms most benefited by neuro-

leptic drugs are:

a)

Judgement and memory impairment

b)

Loss of insight and volition

c)

Hallucinations, delusions and aggressive

behaviour

d)

Apathy and social withdrawal

25.

A 30-year-old male patient who is treated with halo-

peridol for his diagnosis of schizophrenia is considered

to be well-managed symptomatically for his psychotic

symptoms. However, he is reporting restlessness, the

inability to sit still at the dinner table, and his family

notices that he is pacing up and down the hallway

frequently. Of the following, which is the best medication

to treat this antipsychotic-induced akathisia?

a)

Benztropine.

b)

Dantrolene.

c)

Amoxapine

d)

Bromocriptine

e)

Propranolol

26.

Which of the following antipsychotic agents is available

in a LAI (Long acting injectable) formulation that may be useful for patients

with difficulty adhering to therapy?

a)

Asenapine

b)

Chlorpromazine

c)

Clozapine

d)

Quetiapine

e)

Risperidone