wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

MOCK Exam OMMC 2021

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following structures normally passes through the inguinal canal in the adult female?

a)

Round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve

b)

Gartner’s duct cyst

c)

Cooper’s ligament

d)

Pyraidalis muscle

2.

The posterior rectus fascia (sheath) ends at the which part of the abdominal wall?

a)

Insertion of the rectus muscles

b)

Area approximately 3-4 cm below the umbilicus

c)

Arcuate line (semicircular line, linea semicircularis, line of Douglas)

d)

Area approximately 2-3 cm above the pubic symphysis

3.

The pelvis includes which of the following bones?

a)

Trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum and pubis

b)

Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum and coccyx

c)

Ilium, ischium, pubis

d)

Sacrum, ischium, ilium and pubis

4.

The plane from the sacral promontory to the inner posterior surface of the superior symphysis is referred to as which of the following?

a)

True conjugate

b)

Obstetric conjugate

c)

Diagonal conjugate

d)

Bi-ischial diameter

5.

Most female pelves in the adult human have an inlet that would be classified as which of the following in the Caldwell-Moloy definitions?

a)

Android

b)

Platypelloid

c)

Gynecoid

d)

Anthropoid

6.

The joint between the two pubic bones is called which of the following?

a)

Sacroiliac joint

b)

Pubic symphysis

c)

Piriformis

d)

Sacrococcygeal joint

7.

Which of the following foramen or canal where the piriformis muscle, gluteal vessels and posterior femoral cutaneous nerves pass through?

a)

Obturator foramen

b)

Pudendal canal

c)

Greater sciatic foramen

d)

Lesser sciatic foramen

8.

Ligaments that are attached to the uterus include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a)

Uterosacral

b)

Broad

c)

Cardinal

d)

Cooper’s

9.

Nabothian cysts results from which of the following?

a)

Wolffian duct remnants

b)

Blockage of the crypts in the uterine cervix that are lined with squamous epithelium

c)

Blockage of the crypts in the uterine cervix that are lined with columnar epithelium

d)

Paramesonephric remnants

10.

Which of the following describes the urogenital diaphragm in the female?

a)

Encloses the ischiorectal fossa

b)

Envelops the prostate gland

c)

Includes the fascial covering of the deep transverse perineal muscle

d)

Located in the anal triangle

11.

Which of the following statements regarding the vessels of the vagina is FALSE?

a)

The arterial supply of the vagina comes from the cervicovaginal branch of the uterine artery, inferior vesical, middle hemorrhoidal, and internal pudendal arteries

b)

Venous drainage ofbthe vagina is accomplished through an extensive plexus rather than through well-defined channels

c)

Being a relatively avascular organ, the vagina is predisposed to atrophic changes in older patients

d)

The lymphatic drainage is such that the superior portion of the vagina (along with the cervix) drains into the external iliac nodes, the middle portion into the internal iliac nodes and th elower third mainly into the superficial inhuinal nodes and internal iliac nodes.

12.

Which of the following is the main blood supply of the vulva?

a)

Pudendal artery

b)

Inferior hypogastric artery

c)

Inferior hemorrhoidal artery

d)

Ilioinguinal artery

13.

Which of the following correctly describes the chorion lavae?

a)

The site of chorionic implantation

b)

The congregation of chorionic villi next to the decidua basalis

c)

The chorion, denuded villi

d)

Maternal decidual formation

14.

The femoral sheath (canal) contains all of the following structures, EXCEPT:

a)

Femoral artery

b)

Femoral Vein

c)

Femoral Nerve

d)

Lymphatic vessels including Cloquet’s nodes

15.

The deep perineal space in women contains which of the following?

a)

Deep transverse perineal muscle

b)

Levator ani muscle

c)

Bulbocavernosus muscle

d)

Ischiocavernous muscle

16.

Which of the following is NOT a presumptive sign/symptom of pregnancy?

a)

Cessation of menses

b)

Quickening

c)

Nausea and Vomiting

d)

Darkening of the skin on the palms of the hands

17.

Probable signs of pregnancy include

a)

Detection of fetal movements by the physician

b)

Enlargement of the abdomen

c)

An X-ray demonstrating the fetus

d)

Nausea in the morning

18.

Which of the followinf describes the changes of the vagina that occur during pregnancy?

a)

Decreased secretions

b)

Decrease vascularity

c)

Hypertrophy of the smooth muscle

d)

Decrease in the thickness of the vaginal mucosa

19.

The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in the gestation is called which of the following?

a)

Hegar’s sign

b)

Chadwick’s sign

c)

Cullen’s sign

d)

Von Fernwald’s sign

20.

During early pregnancy a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to which of the following?

a)

Paraovarian cyst

b)

Fallopian tube hypertrophy

c)

Corpus luteum cyst

d)

Follicular cyst

21.

This refers to the symptoms of excessive salivation that may occur during pregnancy?

a)

Deglutition

b)

Pruritus

c)

Ptyalism

d)

Emesis

22.

Which of the following gatrointestinal changes occur during pregnancy

a)

Compression and downward displacement of the appendix by the uterus

b)

Increased intestinal tone and mobility

c)

Physical elevation of the stomach

d)

More rapid gastric emptying time.

23.

Which of the following statement describes the changes in the urinary tract during pregnancy?

a)

Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

b)

Decrease in renal plasma flow

c)

Increase in BUN and creatinine

d)

Increase in the amount of dead space in the urinary tract

24.

If an intravenous pyelogram were performed in the third trimester of normal pregnancy, you would be likely to find which of the following findings?

a)

The kidneys appearing smaller than normal because of diaphragmatic compression.

b)

Obstruction of the right ureter secondary to the dextrorotation of the uterus

c)

Ureteral dilation, probably secondary to progesterone effect and compression of the lower urinary tract by the uterus

d)

Vesicoureteral reflux secondary to stretching of the trigone by the enlarging uterus.

25.

A lowered hemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiologic finding. This is mainly due to which of the following statements?

a)

Low iron stores in all women

b)

Blood lost to the placenta and fetus

c)

Increase plasma volume

d)

Decrease reticulocytosis

26.

During pregnancy and labor, which of the following is FALSE regading the maternal leukocytes?

a)

The leukocyte count generally remains in the normal range during pregnancy until labor begins

b)

The leukocyte count may be physiologically markedly elevated during labor

c)

Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increase

d)

Lymphocytosis occurs physiologically during pregnancy

27.

The supine position is important during late pregnancy because it may cause all of the following, EXCEPT

a)

Complete occlusion of the inferior vena cava

b)

A significant reduction in the maternal ventilatory capacity

c)

A significant reduction in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration.

d)

augmentation of the cardiovascular effects due to high conduction.

28.

The average woman can expect to retain as much as 7 L of water during normal gestation. Which of the following statements plays a role in the retention?

a)

Increased capilliary permiability

b)

Decrease venous pressure in the lower fourth of the body

c)

Increase plasma oncotic pressure

d)

Marked increase in the maternal exchangeable sodium

29.

Which of the following is probably responsible for the physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?

a)

Large fluctations in plasma bicarbonate

b)

Increased estrogen production

c)

Increased progesterone production

d)

Decrease plasma P02

30.

Women often complain of shortness of breath during normal pregnancy. Which of the following statement physiologically describes this condition?

a)

Pulmonary resistance increases during pregnancy

b)

Vital capacity is irregularly altered by pregnancy

c)

Maximal breathing capacity is not altered by pregnancy

d)

Small amniotic fluid emboli are shed throughout pregnancy

31.

Which of the following cardiorespiratory changes is abnormal during pregnancy?

a)

Systolic murmur

b)

Hyperpnea

c)

Decreased vital capacity

d)

Increased pulmonary vascular markings

32.

Which of the following physiologic changes does NOT accompany pregnancy?

a)

An increase in cardiac output

b)

An increase in blood volume

c)

An increase in functional residual volume

d)

An increase in renal perfusion

33.

Which of the following statements regarding immunity in pregnancy is TRUE?

a)

Humoral immunity against measles, herpes simplex and influenza A decreases in pregnancy

b)

Alpha-interferon is nearly absent in maternal tissues

c)

The leukocytosis of pregnancy is one manifestation of the maternal hyperimmune state.

d)

Polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemotaxis and adherence increases from the second trimester onward in a normal pregnancy.

34.

Pregnancy induces which of the following changes in adrenal hormones?

a)

Increases bound and free cortisol

b)

Increases only bound cortisol

c)

Increases only free cortisol

d)

Increases aldosterone

35.

Women who become hypertensive during late pregnancy have a decreased resistance to which of the following in early pregnancy?

a)

Epinephrine

b)

Angiotensin 1

c)

Angiotensin II

d)

Prostaglandin E2

36.

Prior to labor, uterine contractions results to which of the following?

a)

No change in placental blood flow

b)

Decrease placental blood flow

c)

Increased placental blood flow

d)

Counter-current placental blood flow

37.

Three of the following are transferred by the placenta to the fetal circulation in concentrations higher than those found in the maternal blood, EXCEPT:

a)

Vitamins

b)

Phosphate

c)

Amino acids

d)

Oxygen

38.

Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is TRUE?

a)

In the placenta, maternal and fetal blood are kept completely separate

b)

The placenta has high levels of alkaline phosphatase

c)

The placenta produces steroids hormones from acetate

d)

Frequently, tumor cells cross the placenta from the mother to fetus but seldom affect the fetus

39.

A diabetic patient with an amniotic fluid lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1 delivered a small infant who developed infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS). which of the following statement most likely the reason?

a)

a lack of phosphotidylglycerol

b)

the L/S test was done on fetal urine

c)

diabetic patients do not produce lecithin

d)

maternal blood was present in the specimen

40.

The smallest circumference of the normal fetal head corresponds to the plane of which diameter?

a)

Suboccipitobregmatic

b)

Occipitofrontal

c)

Bitemporal

d)

Biparietal

41.

The oxygen dissociation curve of fetal blood lies to the right of the curve of maternal blood. This implies to which statement below?

a)

At a given 02 tension and pH, fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) binds less 02 than adult hemoglobin (Hb A)

b)

The fetus needs a greater 02 tension than the mother

c)

There is more Hb F than Hb A

d)

O2 should transfer easily to the fetus

42.

In what blood vessel from the umbilical vein enters the fetal circulation?

a)

Portal sinus and ductus venosus

b)

The inferior vena cava

c)

The lesser hepatic veins

d)

Ductus arteriosus

43.

At what blood vessel in the fetal circulation has the highest oxygen content?

a)

Superior vena cava

b)

Aorta

c)

Ductus venosus

d)

Ductus arteriosus

44.

At what age of gestation does local stimuli evoke squinting, opening of mouth and flexion?

a)

10 weeks

b)

14 to 16 weeks

c)

24 to 26 weeks

d)

28 weeks

45.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding fetal organ system?

a)

The adrenal is relatively larger than it is in adults

b)

Inadequate fetal thyroid hormone is compesated for by maternal thyroid hormone

c)

The testes are incapable of secreting androgens at birth

d)

A fetus does not produce growth hormone

46.

The last menstrual period was June 30. The expected date of confinement (EDC) is approximately

a)

March 23

b)

April 7

c)

March 28

d)

March 7

47.

Occassionally, while taking history, one discovers that the pregnant patient has a craving for and eats great deal of certain undesirable and inedible substances. Such habit is called?

a)

Ptyalism

b)

Pica

c)

Eccyesis

d)

Pseudocyesis

48.

A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be

a)

Reassurance after a thorough examination

b)

Needle aspiration of the nodules

c)

Surgical removal of the areola

d)

Mammography

49.

A pregnant woman at 4 weeks gestation had an upper GI series and is worried about possible fetal effects from radiation. You inform her that the risk for mental retardation to the fetus is greatest during what age of gestation?

a)

Implantation stage from 0 to 7 days

b)

1st to 8th week gestation

c)

8th through 15 week of gestation

d)

15th through 25th week of gestation

50.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about the risk of chromosomal defects in the fetus?

a)

There is little worry regarding Down syndrome before the age 35yo.

b)

Paternal age is very important in the etiology of Down syndrome

c)

Efficacy of screening for Down syndrome is improved by adding estriol and hCG concentration to the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein

d)

Screening for Down syndrome can be improved by checking amniotic fluid and acetylcholinesterase level.

51.

Which of the following factors is NOT measured as part of a biophysicalbprofile (BPP)?

a)

Amnitic fluid volume

b)

CST

c)

NST

d)

Fetal movement

52.

Which of the following statements about CST and NSTs is/are TRUE

a)

NST is contraindicated in situations where labor is contraindicated

b)

A positive nonreactive CST contraindicates labor

c)

A CST is falsely negative less frequently than an NST is falsely reactive

d)

A positive CST is an excellent predictor of fetal well-being

53.

An Rh-negative pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation was found to have a titer of 1:32 anti Lewis antibodies and no other evidence of sensitization to red cell antigens. You should

a)

Perform a repeat blood test at 4 weeks to see if the titer increases

b)

Plan to give D-immunoglobulin at 28 weeks gestation

c)

Plan serial amniocentesis, starting 24 to 26 weeks gestation

d)

Advise termination of pregnancy

54.

The side effects of oral iron that often cause patients to complain seem related most to which factor?

a)

Amount of iron ingested

b)

Amount of iron needed

c)

Amount of iron absorbed

d)

Degree of anemia

55.

Sounds heard by Doppler examination of the fundus may include all of the following, EXCEPT

a)

Funic souffle

b)

Fetal heart tone

c)

Fetal abdominal souffle

d)

Uterine bruit

56.

An 18 year old single, obese G1 is first seen in the clinic for prenatal check up at 16 weeks aog. Her history is unremarkable and she claims to be in good health. Her physical examination is within normal limits except that she is somewhat pale. Suggested nutritional counseling should include

a)

A strict diet for reducing weight

b)

22 to 25 g of protein in the diet everyday

c)

1200 calories of intake a day

d)

Folic acid supplementation

57.

Multiple gestation is frequently associated with all of the following, EXCEPT

a)

Hypertension

b)

Hydramnios

c)

Fertility drugs

d)

Postmaturity

58.

Repeated second trimester abortions especially when associated with a lack of paiful uterine contractions suggest most strongly of which of the following?

a)

Defective germ plasm

b)

Uterine myoma

c)

Incompetent cervix

d)

Folic acid deficiency

59.

This medication when taken during pregnancy can cause aplastic anemia

a)

Tetracycline

b)

Chloramphenicol

c)

Sulfas

d)

Nitrofurantoin

60.

An unconcious obstetric patient was admitted to the ER in the 8th month of pregnancy with BP of 60/20 and a pulse of 120 without vaginal bleeding would be LEAST likely to have which of the following?

a)

Abruptio placentae

b)

Placenta previa

c)

Eclampsia

d)

Amniotic fluid embolism

61.

Which of the following maternal complications associated with hydramnios?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Urinary tract anomalies

c)

Diabetes

d)

Postmature pregnancy

62.

A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain since the past days. She reports that her LMP was 4 weeks ago but was lighter than normal. On PE, she had a stable vital signs. She has a direct tenderness at the suprapubic area, no rebound tenderness or guarding. On IE cervix closed without blood on examining finger. Pregnancy test, POSITIVE. What is the test you should order first?

a)

Pelvic ultrasound

b)

CBCPC

c)

Quantitative B-hCG

d)

Urine gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing

63.

A 38 year old G3P0 0020 woman on her 9 weeks AOG presents in the hospital with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. She appears pale and states that she feels light-headed when sitting or standing. On PE, temp 37C, BP 90/60, pulse rate 98 bpm and respiratory rate 18 breaths per min. On PE, abdomen reveals rigid with rebound tenderness on palpation. Pelvic examination reveals a small amount of vaginal bleeding, 6 weeks size uterus and fullness at the right adnexa. Urine beta hCG confirms +pregnancy. What is you first step?

a)

Proceed immediately to the operating room for emergency laparotomy

b)

Perform an emergency dilation and suction curettage in the emergency department

c)

Obtain pelvic ultrasound

d)

Give the patient IM methotrexate

64.

A 25 year old G1P0 presents in the clinic for annual examination. Her LMP was 5 weeks prior. Her menses has been irregular since menarche and she is sexually ative. On PE, uterus is slightly enlarge, anteverted nontender uterus with normal bilateral adnexa. The patient consented for pregnancy test which reveals positive. You perform a transvaginal ultrasound revealing neither ectopic or intrauterine. What will be your next step?

a)

Obtain a serum quantitative beta hCG

b)

Explain that the patient likely has a chemical pregnancy that will not develop into a viable pregnancy.

c)

Explain to the patient that she likely had miscarriage

d)

Offer the patient IM methotrexate for presumed ectopic pregnancy

65.

A 35 year old G3P0 0020 woman on her 8 weeks AOG presents to your clinic for prenatal check up. On PE she is afebrile, normotensive with normal pulse. Pelvic examination reveals a 7 to 8 week sized uterus with normal adnexa. Cervix is closed with no active bleeding. A TVS done revealing an intrauterine pregnancy with a CRL consistent with 7 weeks and 2 days. No FHT appreciated. What is your diagnosis?

a)

Incomplete abortion

b)

Threatened abortion

c)

Ectopic pregnancy

d)

Missed abortion

66.

A 25 year obese woman G1P0 at 16 weeks AOG came for PNCU. This is her first prenatal check up. She undergoes the quad screen and has an elevated levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP). Given the elevated MSAFP, her pregnancy is at increased risk for which of the following?

a)

Gestational diabetes

b)

Gastroschisis

c)

Down syndrome

d)

Klinefelter syndrome

67.

Which of the following is TRUE about first trimester screening?

a)

First trimester serum screening has an 80% sensitivity for Down syndrome

b)

Nuchal Thickness (NT) screening has a 70% sensitivity for Down syndrome

c)

Combined first trimester screening has a 90% sensitivity for Down syndrome

d)

First trimester screening has a sensitivity for Down syndrome that is greater than the sequential screen.

68.

Which of the following statements correctly describes the first stage of labor?

a)

Includes an active and latent phase

b)

Begins when the cervix has completely dilated

c)

Is considered prolonged if its duration is longer than 2 hrs in a nulliparous woman

d)

Is commony associated with repetitive early and variable decelerations

69.

On examination, you attempt to determine the presentation of the fetus. Which of the following presentation and positions would be most favorable to achieve vaginal delivery?

a)

Breech

b)

Transverse

c)

Vertex with occiput posterior

d)

Vertex with occiput anterior

70.

Which of the following statements describe the secod degree laceration?

a)

Involves the anal mucosa

b)

Is commonly associated with buttonhole laceration

c)

Involves the mucosa of the skin only

d)

Extends in the perineal body, but does not involve anal sphincter

71.

Which of the following cervical examinations is the most favorable for induction of labor?

a)

Cervix closed, posterior, firm with 0% effacement

b)

Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced with st-2

c)

Cervix soft, anterior, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced with st-1

d)

Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced st-3

72.

For women undergoing induction of labor with Bishop score of 5 or less, which of the following is commonly used first step?

a)

Nonstress test

b)

Oxytocin drip

c)

Attempts at induction should be avoided at a Bishop score less than 5

d)

Cervical application of prostaglandin E2

73.

An uncomplicated vaginal delivery typically includes which maneuver?

a)

Perineal support to decrease perineal trauma

b)

An episiotomy to hasten delivery

c)

Vacuum extraction if the fetal station is low

d)

McRoberts maneuver

74.

Stage 3 begins following the delivery of the infant and typically involves which of the following?

a)

Placental separation

b)

Stopping oxytocin drips if they were used during stage 2

c)

An abrupt increase in the size of the intrauterine cavity

d)

A delay of 60 minutes before the placenta is delivered

75.

Which of the following is a contraindication of trial of labor after cesarean(TOLAC)?

a)

Prior classical hysterotomy

b)

Prior Kerr hysterotomy

c)

Small for gestational age fetus

d)

Oligohydramnios

76.

Which of the following is the most common complication of vacuum extraction?

a)

Fetal facial nerve palsy

b)

Maternal perineal laceration

c)

Cephalohematoma

d)

Fetal skull fracture

77.

A 33 year old woman presents her anatomy ultrasound at 18 weeks by IVF dating. On ultrasound, the fetus is noted to have an anterior placenta with a posterior succenturiate lobe. She has no cerns. Her pregnancy is otherwise uncomplicated at this time. What does the finding an anterior placenta with posterior succenturiate lobe on ultrasound put this patient at risk for?

a)

Placenta previa

b)

Placental abruption

c)

Vasa previa

d)

Preterm labor

78.

What does the sinusoidal pattern on the fetal monitoring strip suggest?

a)

Fetal anemia

b)

Uteroplacental insufficiency

c)

Cord compression

d)

Head compression

79.

A 24 year old G2P1 1001 woman at 38 weeks AOG by LMP came in due to labor pains occuring every 4 to 5 mins. She had a previous one low transverse cesarean section for breech at 39 weeks gestation. On IE, cervix is 2 cm open, 50% dilted st -3. The patient strongly desires to have a vaginal delivery if at all possible. What is the BEST initial management for this case?

a)

Close observation in triage with continuous fetal monitoring and repeat internal exam in 2 to 4 hrs.

b)

Discharge home and follow up in 1 week at clinic

c)

Admission to labor and delivery unit and do repeat cesarean delivery without trial of labor

d)

Admission to labor and delivery unit, continous fetal monitoring and start oxytocin augmentation.

80.

A 24 year old G1P0 on her 36 weeks AOG with limited prenatal care presents via ambulance to labor and delivery unit complaining of severe abdominal pain and profuse vaginal bleeding. The patient is unstable and unable to communicate coherently. The emergency medical technician (EMT) reports that initially her BP was 180/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 110 BPM, but she has lost at least 500 ml of blood in route. On examination, her BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse rate is 120 BPM, she appears to vbe in significant pain to answewr questions and her abdomen is rigid. What is the BEST next step?

a)

Sterile speculum examination followed by sterile vaginal examination

b)

Abdominal ultrasound

c)

Emergent cesarean section

d)

Stabilize the patient, obtain 2 large bore IV catheters, start IV bolus while checking fetal heart tones

81.

What is the most important laboratory test to order for patient diagnosed with placental abruption emergently?

a)

Type and cross

b)

CBC

c)

PT, PTT, international normalized ratio (INR)

d)

Urine test for proteinuria

82.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of MgS04 on cellular calcium?

a)

Increases conversion of ATP to cAMP, which results in decreased levels of free calcium ions through sequestration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum

b)

Antagonizes calcium and stabilizes cell membranes

c)

Decrease influx of calcium into cells

d)

Blocks cycooxygenase and decreases levels of prostaglandins

83.

A 27-year-old primigravid woman presents for her first prenatal care visit. Her last menstrual period was three months ago. She reports having regular periods that come every 28 days and lasts for about five days. Her prenatal blood work reveals an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, and Western blot is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The CD4+ count is 800 cells/mm3, HIV viral load is 60,000 copies/mL, and hemoglobin is 10 g/dL. Which of the following is true about highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?

a)

The patient’s CD4+ count is high enough that HAART is not indicated

b)

The patient’s hemoglobin is too low to start HAART

c)

The patient should start HAART

d)

HAART has a significant risk of teratogenicity

84.

A 30-year-old primigravida woman presents to the clinic at 20 weeks of gestation for a prenatal visit. She currently has no complaints. Her vitals are pulse 70/min, blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg, the temperature of 98 F, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Ultrasound of the uterus done during the visit shows diverging horns of the uterus. Which of the following is very important to assess during her visit to determine the cause for the high blood pressure of this patient?

a)

Adrenal gland

b)

Gastrointestinal tract

c)

Kidneys and urinary tract

d)

Aorta

85.

A 17-year-old female gravida 2 para 1 presents to the office at 28 weeks gestation with complaints of left-sided vulvar pain. The patient reports having difficulties sitting and pain in the vaginal region. On examination of the patient, there appears to be an enlarged left vulvar mass with signs of erythema, swelling, and tenderness to palpation. The patient denies any fever and any history of sexually transmitted diseases. The patient is diagnosed with a Bartholin abscess. What is the most likely pathogen

a)

Escherichia Coli

b)

Staphylococcus Aureus

c)

Group B Streptococci

d)

Enterococcus species

86.

A 29-year-old patient presents with complaints of vaginal discharge for a few days. The patient reports no itching or pain and describes the discharge as foul-smelling. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Her exam is remarkable for a grey discharge present in the vaginal vault that is confirmed to be bacterial vaginosis, and the clinician prescribes appropriate treatment. Her pap smear comes back significant for atypical squamous cells, and can not exclude high-grade intraepithelial lesion. Which of the following is the best next best step in her management?

a)

Repeat the cytological testing in 6 months

b)

Test for human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes

c)

Loop electrosurgical excisional procedure

d)

Colposcopy

87.

33y.o G1P1 (1001) underwent right salpingo-oophorectomy due to an ovarian new growth. Histopath result showed below. What is the structure pointed?

a)

Call-Exner body

b)

Endometrial gland

c)

Corpus luteum cyst

d)

Schiller-Duval body

88.

A 47 year old G4P4 consulted due to intermenstrual and coital bleeding. A mass is noted protruding from her cervix. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Prolapsed submucous myoma

b)

Cervical cancer

c)

Endocervical polyp

d)

Endometrial polyp

89.

This type of tumor surface appears solid, yellowish white, andlobulated with absence of significant hemorrhage and necrosis

a)

Immature cystic terratoma

b)

Dysgerminoma

c)

Endodermal sinus tumor

d)

Granulosa cell tumor

90.

The classic finding of granular debris in background, degenerating parabasal cells, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes As well as Blue blobs and andpseudoparakeratosisare seen in

a)

Arias Stella reaction

b)

Atrophic vaginitis

c)

Reparative cellular changes

d)

Squamous metaplasia

91.

Hysterectomy was done on the previous patient. Gross specimen revealed the following. What FIGO grade is with mark X ?

a)

FIGO grade 5

b)

FIGO grade 6

c)

FIGO grade 7

d)

FIGO grade 8

92.

45 y.o G3P3 (3003) consulted for routine Pap Smear. She is a known hypertensive and diabetic for 8 years. Pap smear result showed below. What is your management?

a)

Miconazole 200mg vaginal suppository OD x 3 days

b)

Metronidazole 500mg tablet BID x 7 days

c)

Mebendazole 300mg BID x 3 days

d)

Azithromycin 500mg OD x 3 days

93.

23y.o G1P0 22 weeks AOG, came in due to vulvar pruritus with no associated vaginal discharge. On physical examination revealed small, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like lesion near the urethra. What is your diagnosis?

a)

Condyloma acuminata

b)

Condyloma lata

c)

Vulvar CA

d)

Urethral diverticulum

94.

31y.o G6P6 (6006) came in due to post coital bleeding. Pap smear was done which revealed the following result. What is the diagnosis?

a)

LSIL

b)

Normal cervix with Nabothian cyst

c)

Cervical Cancer

d)

HSIL

95.

What phenomenon is depicted in the photo on the left?

a)

Tubal metaplasia

b)

Pregnancy related changes

c)

Squamous metaplasia

d)

Reactive changes associated with radiation

96.

A 40 year old G3P3underwent an adnexal surgery. Specimen shown on the left. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Endometrioid adenocarcinoma

b)

Serous Cystadenoma

c)

Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma

d)

Serous Cysadenocarcinoma

97.

A 30-year-old woman complains of vaginal discharge. Wet mount preparation revealed the following. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Turolopsis

b)

Bacterial vaginosis

c)

Trichomoniasis

d)

Moniliasis

98.

This tumor was removed from the left ovary of a 10 year old. What is the diagnosis?

a)

Dysgerminoma

b)

Granulosa cell tumor

c)

Mucinous cystadenoma

d)

Mature teratoma

99.

22y.o Nulligravid came in due to vaginal pruritus with white grey copious discharge. On wet smear revealed the following. What medication will you give this patient?

a)

Miconazole 200mg vaginal suppository OD x 3 days

b)

Azithromycin 500mg OD x 3 days

c)

Mebendazole 300mg BID x 3 days

d)

Metronidazole 500mg tablet BID x 7 days

100.

37 years old, multigravid, came in due to heavy menstrual bleeding for 4 months. Endometrial curettage was done which showed below. The following structures can be seen histologically EXCEPT:

a)

Pigment laiden macrophages

b)

Fibrovascular core

c)

Endometrial gland

d)

Fibrous endometrial stroma

101.

Which of the following methods of contraception has the least efficacy?

a)

Ortho Evra patch

b)

COC pills

c)

Levonorgestrel IUD

d)

Coitus interuptus

102.

The following contraceptive method are considered “long term”, EXCEPT:

a)

Tubal ligation/occlusion

b)

1.5 mg LNG pill

c)

Copper IUD

d)

Etonogestrel rod

103.

What test might you perform to determine wether this patient is ovulatory in any given month?

a)

Urinary ovulation predictor kits

b)

Day 3 progesterone

c)

Day 28 progesterone

d)

Luteal phase endometrial biopsy

104.

Which protein is deficient in a patient with classic “salt wasting’ congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

a)

21 hydroxylase

b)

11B Hydroxylase

c)

3B Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

d)

Aromatase

105.

A 22year old woman presents to your colposcopy clinic after HSIL, moderate dysplasia was reported on her Pap test at her family medical clinic. She is a heavy smoker with four lifetime sexual partners. She had negative STD testing at her annual examination, and she has no other complaints. What is the recommended management for this case?

a)

Repeat Pap with HPV testing have her return to the office at age 21 to repeat pap test.

b)

Colposcopy with biopsy

c)

HPV testing in 1 year

d)

Immediate LEEP

106.

A 30 yo G0 comes in for her annual examination and tells you that she plans to become pregnant sometime in the next year. She had LEEP procedure 7 years ago for moderate dysplasia, CIN II. She states her Pap testing has been negative since LEEP and her last pap was 3 years ago, but you do not have any records documeting these results. What is the recommended cervbical cancer screening for this patient, assuming she has given an accurate history?

a)

Pap testing and high risk HPV testing every 5 years

b)

Pap testing and colposcopy every 6 months

c)

Colposcopy

d)

Pap testing and colposcopy every 6 mos.

107.

You did a colposcopic evaluation in a patient with an abnormal pap result. Her colposcopy showed minimal abnormalities and the SCJ is seen its entirety. The biopsy is negative for CIN. What is the next step?

a)

No folow up is needed

b)

Pap test and HPV screen in 1 year

c)

Refer to GYn oncologist

d)

Pap testing with colposcopy every 6 mos for 2 years

108.

A 56 years old G3 P3 consulted because of urinary urgency and frequency that requires her to wear sanitary napkins. Which of the following urodynamic test should you perform to confirm the diagnosis?

a)

Bonny’s test

b)

Filling Cytometry

c)

Stress test

d)

Residual volume

109.

A 65 years old G4P4 was brought to the emergency room because of hesitancy, frequency and decrease urine output for 4 days. Last voiding was just 30 minutes ago. Patient is coherent, ambulatory and on physical examination, there was a soft, nontender palpable mass over the hypogastric area. Which of the following must be done initially to provide information on the possible diagnosis?

a)

Blood sugar

b)

Transvaginal ultrasound

c)

Urethral catheterization

d)

Urinalysis

110.

You prescribed to a 51 years old post-menopausal woman for one year cyclic low dose MHT (Estrogen-Progestin). Which of the following progesterone preparation is a safer alternative?

a)

Norethisterone acetate

b)

Medroxyprogesterone acetate

c)

Dydrogesterone

d)

Micronized progesterone

111.

A 54 years old G2P2, menopause for two years consulted because of hot flushes and sleep disturbances. She was recently diagnosed to have hypeternsion and elevated triglycerides and LDL levels. BMI is 28 and she had a previous history of fracture of the wrist. Which of the following MHT is best considered for her?

a)

Tibolone

b)

Vaginal estrogens

c)

LOw dose oral E-P

d)

Transdermal estrogen with oral progesterone

112.

Breast bud development is the beginning of what stage of puberty?

a)

Thelarche

b)

Adrenarche

c)

Pubarche

d)

Menarche

113.

What is the acceptable indication for MHT use?

a)

Osteoporosis treatment

b)

Hot flashes and night sweats interfering with quality of life

c)

Cardiovascular disease prevention

d)

Dementia prevention

114.

The patient still has her uterus. If the patient is started on estrogen therapy (ET), what other hormone also need to be prescribed?

a)

A progestin

b)

FSH

c)

hCG

d)

Testosterone

115.

Cervical conization is indicated in which of the following patients?

a)

36 yo G3P2 woman diagnosed with cervical biopsy report of CIN2/HGSIL

b)

45yo G3P2 woman complaining of vaginal spotting with cervical CA stage 1B

c)

33yo G2P2 woman with Pap smear result of HSIL

d)

44yo. G5P5 woman with Pap smear result of “reactive cellular change” severe inflammation