WorksheetsMOCK Exam OMMC 2021
Total questions: 115
Worksheet time: 2hrs 55mins
Which of the following structures normally passes through the inguinal canal in the adult female?
Round ligament and ilioinguinal nerve
Gartner’s duct cyst
Cooper’s ligament
Pyraidalis muscle
The posterior rectus fascia (sheath) ends at the which part of the abdominal wall?
Insertion of the rectus muscles
Area approximately 3-4 cm below the umbilicus
Arcuate line (semicircular line, linea semicircularis, line of Douglas)
Area approximately 2-3 cm above the pubic symphysis
The pelvis includes which of the following bones?
Trochanter, hip socket, ischium, sacrum and pubis
Ilium, ischium, pubis, sacrum and coccyx
Ilium, ischium, pubis
Sacrum, ischium, ilium and pubis
The plane from the sacral promontory to the inner posterior surface of the superior symphysis is referred to as which of the following?
True conjugate
Obstetric conjugate
Diagonal conjugate
Bi-ischial diameter
Most female pelves in the adult human have an inlet that would be classified as which of the following in the Caldwell-Moloy definitions?
Android
Platypelloid
Gynecoid
Anthropoid
The joint between the two pubic bones is called which of the following?
Sacroiliac joint
Pubic symphysis
Piriformis
Sacrococcygeal joint
Which of the following foramen or canal where the piriformis muscle, gluteal vessels and posterior femoral cutaneous nerves pass through?
Obturator foramen
Pudendal canal
Greater sciatic foramen
Lesser sciatic foramen
Ligaments that are attached to the uterus include all of the following, EXCEPT:
Uterosacral
Broad
Cardinal
Cooper’s
Nabothian cysts results from which of the following?
Wolffian duct remnants
Blockage of the crypts in the uterine cervix that are lined with squamous epithelium
Blockage of the crypts in the uterine cervix that are lined with columnar epithelium
Paramesonephric remnants
Which of the following describes the urogenital diaphragm in the female?
Encloses the ischiorectal fossa
Envelops the prostate gland
Includes the fascial covering of the deep transverse perineal muscle
Located in the anal triangle
Which of the following statements regarding the vessels of the vagina is FALSE?
The arterial supply of the vagina comes from the cervicovaginal branch of the uterine artery, inferior vesical, middle hemorrhoidal, and internal pudendal arteries
Venous drainage ofbthe vagina is accomplished through an extensive plexus rather than through well-defined channels
Being a relatively avascular organ, the vagina is predisposed to atrophic changes in older patients
The lymphatic drainage is such that the superior portion of the vagina (along with the cervix) drains into the external iliac nodes, the middle portion into the internal iliac nodes and th elower third mainly into the superficial inhuinal nodes and internal iliac nodes.
Which of the following is the main blood supply of the vulva?
Pudendal artery
Inferior hypogastric artery
Inferior hemorrhoidal artery
Ilioinguinal artery
Which of the following correctly describes the chorion lavae?
The site of chorionic implantation
The congregation of chorionic villi next to the decidua basalis
The chorion, denuded villi
Maternal decidual formation
The femoral sheath (canal) contains all of the following structures, EXCEPT:
Femoral artery
Femoral Vein
Femoral Nerve
Lymphatic vessels including Cloquet’s nodes
The deep perineal space in women contains which of the following?
Deep transverse perineal muscle
Levator ani muscle
Bulbocavernosus muscle
Ischiocavernous muscle
Which of the following is NOT a presumptive sign/symptom of pregnancy?
Cessation of menses
Quickening
Nausea and Vomiting
Darkening of the skin on the palms of the hands
Probable signs of pregnancy include
Detection of fetal movements by the physician
Enlargement of the abdomen
An X-ray demonstrating the fetus
Nausea in the morning
Which of the followinf describes the changes of the vagina that occur during pregnancy?
Decreased secretions
Decrease vascularity
Hypertrophy of the smooth muscle
Decrease in the thickness of the vaginal mucosa
The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in the gestation is called which of the following?
Hegar’s sign
Chadwick’s sign
Cullen’s sign
Von Fernwald’s sign
During early pregnancy a pelvic examination may reveal that one adnexa is slightly enlarged. This is most likely due to which of the following?
Paraovarian cyst
Fallopian tube hypertrophy
Corpus luteum cyst
Follicular cyst
This refers to the symptoms of excessive salivation that may occur during pregnancy?
Deglutition
Pruritus
Ptyalism
Emesis
Which of the following gatrointestinal changes occur during pregnancy
Compression and downward displacement of the appendix by the uterus
Increased intestinal tone and mobility
Physical elevation of the stomach
More rapid gastric emptying time.
Which of the following statement describes the changes in the urinary tract during pregnancy?
Increase in glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Decrease in renal plasma flow
Increase in BUN and creatinine
Increase in the amount of dead space in the urinary tract
If an intravenous pyelogram were performed in the third trimester of normal pregnancy, you would be likely to find which of the following findings?
The kidneys appearing smaller than normal because of diaphragmatic compression.
Obstruction of the right ureter secondary to the dextrorotation of the uterus
Ureteral dilation, probably secondary to progesterone effect and compression of the lower urinary tract by the uterus
Vesicoureteral reflux secondary to stretching of the trigone by the enlarging uterus.
A lowered hemoglobin during normal pregnancy is a physiologic finding. This is mainly due to which of the following statements?
Low iron stores in all women
Blood lost to the placenta and fetus
Increase plasma volume
Decrease reticulocytosis
During pregnancy and labor, which of the following is FALSE regading the maternal leukocytes?
The leukocyte count generally remains in the normal range during pregnancy until labor begins
The leukocyte count may be physiologically markedly elevated during labor
Leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is increase
Lymphocytosis occurs physiologically during pregnancy
The supine position is important during late pregnancy because it may cause all of the following, EXCEPT
Complete occlusion of the inferior vena cava
A significant reduction in the maternal ventilatory capacity
A significant reduction in renal blood flow and glomerular filtration.
augmentation of the cardiovascular effects due to high conduction.
The average woman can expect to retain as much as 7 L of water during normal gestation. Which of the following statements plays a role in the retention?
Increased capilliary permiability
Decrease venous pressure in the lower fourth of the body
Increase plasma oncotic pressure
Marked increase in the maternal exchangeable sodium
Which of the following is probably responsible for the physiologic hyperventilation during pregnancy?
Large fluctations in plasma bicarbonate
Increased estrogen production
Increased progesterone production
Decrease plasma P02
Women often complain of shortness of breath during normal pregnancy. Which of the following statement physiologically describes this condition?
Pulmonary resistance increases during pregnancy
Vital capacity is irregularly altered by pregnancy
Maximal breathing capacity is not altered by pregnancy
Small amniotic fluid emboli are shed throughout pregnancy
Which of the following cardiorespiratory changes is abnormal during pregnancy?
Systolic murmur
Hyperpnea
Decreased vital capacity
Increased pulmonary vascular markings
Which of the following physiologic changes does NOT accompany pregnancy?
An increase in cardiac output
An increase in blood volume
An increase in functional residual volume
An increase in renal perfusion
Which of the following statements regarding immunity in pregnancy is TRUE?
Humoral immunity against measles, herpes simplex and influenza A decreases in pregnancy
Alpha-interferon is nearly absent in maternal tissues
The leukocytosis of pregnancy is one manifestation of the maternal hyperimmune state.
Polymorphonuclear leukocyte chemotaxis and adherence increases from the second trimester onward in a normal pregnancy.
Pregnancy induces which of the following changes in adrenal hormones?
Increases bound and free cortisol
Increases only bound cortisol
Increases only free cortisol
Increases aldosterone
Women who become hypertensive during late pregnancy have a decreased resistance to which of the following in early pregnancy?
Epinephrine
Angiotensin 1
Angiotensin II
Prostaglandin E2
Prior to labor, uterine contractions results to which of the following?
No change in placental blood flow
Decrease placental blood flow
Increased placental blood flow
Counter-current placental blood flow
Three of the following are transferred by the placenta to the fetal circulation in concentrations higher than those found in the maternal blood, EXCEPT:
Vitamins
Phosphate
Amino acids
Oxygen
Which of the following statements regarding the placenta is TRUE?
In the placenta, maternal and fetal blood are kept completely separate
The placenta has high levels of alkaline phosphatase
The placenta produces steroids hormones from acetate
Frequently, tumor cells cross the placenta from the mother to fetus but seldom affect the fetus
A diabetic patient with an amniotic fluid lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio of 2:1 delivered a small infant who developed infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS). which of the following statement most likely the reason?
a lack of phosphotidylglycerol
the L/S test was done on fetal urine
diabetic patients do not produce lecithin
maternal blood was present in the specimen
The smallest circumference of the normal fetal head corresponds to the plane of which diameter?
Suboccipitobregmatic
Occipitofrontal
Bitemporal
Biparietal
The oxygen dissociation curve of fetal blood lies to the right of the curve of maternal blood. This implies to which statement below?
At a given 02 tension and pH, fetal hemoglobin (Hb F) binds less 02 than adult hemoglobin (Hb A)
The fetus needs a greater 02 tension than the mother
There is more Hb F than Hb A
O2 should transfer easily to the fetus
In what blood vessel from the umbilical vein enters the fetal circulation?
Portal sinus and ductus venosus
The inferior vena cava
The lesser hepatic veins
Ductus arteriosus
At what blood vessel in the fetal circulation has the highest oxygen content?
Superior vena cava
Aorta
Ductus venosus
Ductus arteriosus
At what age of gestation does local stimuli evoke squinting, opening of mouth and flexion?
10 weeks
14 to 16 weeks
24 to 26 weeks
28 weeks
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding fetal organ system?
The adrenal is relatively larger than it is in adults
Inadequate fetal thyroid hormone is compesated for by maternal thyroid hormone
The testes are incapable of secreting androgens at birth
A fetus does not produce growth hormone
The last menstrual period was June 30. The expected date of confinement (EDC) is approximately
March 23
April 7
March 28
March 7
Occassionally, while taking history, one discovers that the pregnant patient has a craving for and eats great deal of certain undesirable and inedible substances. Such habit is called?
Ptyalism
Pica
Eccyesis
Pseudocyesis
A woman in early pregnancy is worried because of several small raised nodules on the areola of both breasts. There are no other findings. Your immediate management should be
Reassurance after a thorough examination
Needle aspiration of the nodules
Surgical removal of the areola
Mammography
A pregnant woman at 4 weeks gestation had an upper GI series and is worried about possible fetal effects from radiation. You inform her that the risk for mental retardation to the fetus is greatest during what age of gestation?
Implantation stage from 0 to 7 days
1st to 8th week gestation
8th through 15 week of gestation
15th through 25th week of gestation
Which of the following statements is TRUE about the risk of chromosomal defects in the fetus?
There is little worry regarding Down syndrome before the age 35yo.
Paternal age is very important in the etiology of Down syndrome
Efficacy of screening for Down syndrome is improved by adding estriol and hCG concentration to the maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein
Screening for Down syndrome can be improved by checking amniotic fluid and acetylcholinesterase level.
Which of the following factors is NOT measured as part of a biophysicalbprofile (BPP)?
Amnitic fluid volume
CST
NST
Fetal movement
Which of the following statements about CST and NSTs is/are TRUE
NST is contraindicated in situations where labor is contraindicated
A positive nonreactive CST contraindicates labor
A CST is falsely negative less frequently than an NST is falsely reactive
A positive CST is an excellent predictor of fetal well-being
An Rh-negative pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation was found to have a titer of 1:32 anti Lewis antibodies and no other evidence of sensitization to red cell antigens. You should
Perform a repeat blood test at 4 weeks to see if the titer increases
Plan to give D-immunoglobulin at 28 weeks gestation
Plan serial amniocentesis, starting 24 to 26 weeks gestation
Advise termination of pregnancy
The side effects of oral iron that often cause patients to complain seem related most to which factor?
Amount of iron ingested
Amount of iron needed
Amount of iron absorbed
Degree of anemia
Sounds heard by Doppler examination of the fundus may include all of the following, EXCEPT
Funic souffle
Fetal heart tone
Fetal abdominal souffle
Uterine bruit
An 18 year old single, obese G1 is first seen in the clinic for prenatal check up at 16 weeks aog. Her history is unremarkable and she claims to be in good health. Her physical examination is within normal limits except that she is somewhat pale. Suggested nutritional counseling should include
A strict diet for reducing weight
22 to 25 g of protein in the diet everyday
1200 calories of intake a day
Folic acid supplementation
Multiple gestation is frequently associated with all of the following, EXCEPT
Hypertension
Hydramnios
Fertility drugs
Postmaturity
Repeated second trimester abortions especially when associated with a lack of paiful uterine contractions suggest most strongly of which of the following?
Defective germ plasm
Uterine myoma
Incompetent cervix
Folic acid deficiency
This medication when taken during pregnancy can cause aplastic anemia
Tetracycline
Chloramphenicol
Sulfas
Nitrofurantoin
An unconcious obstetric patient was admitted to the ER in the 8th month of pregnancy with BP of 60/20 and a pulse of 120 without vaginal bleeding would be LEAST likely to have which of the following?
Abruptio placentae
Placenta previa
Eclampsia
Amniotic fluid embolism
Which of the following maternal complications associated with hydramnios?
High blood pressure
Urinary tract anomalies
Diabetes
Postmature pregnancy
A 28 year old woman presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain since the past days. She reports that her LMP was 4 weeks ago but was lighter than normal. On PE, she had a stable vital signs. She has a direct tenderness at the suprapubic area, no rebound tenderness or guarding. On IE cervix closed without blood on examining finger. Pregnancy test, POSITIVE. What is the test you should order first?
Pelvic ultrasound
CBCPC
Quantitative B-hCG
Urine gonorrhea and Chlamydia testing
A 38 year old G3P0 0020 woman on her 9 weeks AOG presents in the hospital with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain. She appears pale and states that she feels light-headed when sitting or standing. On PE, temp 37C, BP 90/60, pulse rate 98 bpm and respiratory rate 18 breaths per min. On PE, abdomen reveals rigid with rebound tenderness on palpation. Pelvic examination reveals a small amount of vaginal bleeding, 6 weeks size uterus and fullness at the right adnexa. Urine beta hCG confirms +pregnancy. What is you first step?
Proceed immediately to the operating room for emergency laparotomy
Perform an emergency dilation and suction curettage in the emergency department
Obtain pelvic ultrasound
Give the patient IM methotrexate
A 25 year old G1P0 presents in the clinic for annual examination. Her LMP was 5 weeks prior. Her menses has been irregular since menarche and she is sexually ative. On PE, uterus is slightly enlarge, anteverted nontender uterus with normal bilateral adnexa. The patient consented for pregnancy test which reveals positive. You perform a transvaginal ultrasound revealing neither ectopic or intrauterine. What will be your next step?
Obtain a serum quantitative beta hCG
Explain that the patient likely has a chemical pregnancy that will not develop into a viable pregnancy.
Explain to the patient that she likely had miscarriage
Offer the patient IM methotrexate for presumed ectopic pregnancy
A 35 year old G3P0 0020 woman on her 8 weeks AOG presents to your clinic for prenatal check up. On PE she is afebrile, normotensive with normal pulse. Pelvic examination reveals a 7 to 8 week sized uterus with normal adnexa. Cervix is closed with no active bleeding. A TVS done revealing an intrauterine pregnancy with a CRL consistent with 7 weeks and 2 days. No FHT appreciated. What is your diagnosis?
Incomplete abortion
Threatened abortion
Ectopic pregnancy
Missed abortion
A 25 year obese woman G1P0 at 16 weeks AOG came for PNCU. This is her first prenatal check up. She undergoes the quad screen and has an elevated levels of maternal serum alpha fetoprotein (MSAFP). Given the elevated MSAFP, her pregnancy is at increased risk for which of the following?
Gestational diabetes
Gastroschisis
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Which of the following is TRUE about first trimester screening?
First trimester serum screening has an 80% sensitivity for Down syndrome
Nuchal Thickness (NT) screening has a 70% sensitivity for Down syndrome
Combined first trimester screening has a 90% sensitivity for Down syndrome
First trimester screening has a sensitivity for Down syndrome that is greater than the sequential screen.
Which of the following statements correctly describes the first stage of labor?
Includes an active and latent phase
Begins when the cervix has completely dilated
Is considered prolonged if its duration is longer than 2 hrs in a nulliparous woman
Is commony associated with repetitive early and variable decelerations
On examination, you attempt to determine the presentation of the fetus. Which of the following presentation and positions would be most favorable to achieve vaginal delivery?
Breech
Transverse
Vertex with occiput posterior
Vertex with occiput anterior
Which of the following statements describe the secod degree laceration?
Involves the anal mucosa
Is commonly associated with buttonhole laceration
Involves the mucosa of the skin only
Extends in the perineal body, but does not involve anal sphincter
Which of the following cervical examinations is the most favorable for induction of labor?
Cervix closed, posterior, firm with 0% effacement
Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced with st-2
Cervix soft, anterior, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced with st-1
Cervix soft, midposition, 3 cm dilated, 80% effaced st-3
For women undergoing induction of labor with Bishop score of 5 or less, which of the following is commonly used first step?
Nonstress test
Oxytocin drip
Attempts at induction should be avoided at a Bishop score less than 5
Cervical application of prostaglandin E2
An uncomplicated vaginal delivery typically includes which maneuver?
Perineal support to decrease perineal trauma
An episiotomy to hasten delivery
Vacuum extraction if the fetal station is low
McRoberts maneuver
Stage 3 begins following the delivery of the infant and typically involves which of the following?
Placental separation
Stopping oxytocin drips if they were used during stage 2
An abrupt increase in the size of the intrauterine cavity
A delay of 60 minutes before the placenta is delivered
Which of the following is a contraindication of trial of labor after cesarean(TOLAC)?
Prior classical hysterotomy
Prior Kerr hysterotomy
Small for gestational age fetus
Oligohydramnios
Which of the following is the most common complication of vacuum extraction?
Fetal facial nerve palsy
Maternal perineal laceration
Cephalohematoma
Fetal skull fracture
A 33 year old woman presents her anatomy ultrasound at 18 weeks by IVF dating. On ultrasound, the fetus is noted to have an anterior placenta with a posterior succenturiate lobe. She has no cerns. Her pregnancy is otherwise uncomplicated at this time. What does the finding an anterior placenta with posterior succenturiate lobe on ultrasound put this patient at risk for?
Placenta previa
Placental abruption
Vasa previa
Preterm labor
What does the sinusoidal pattern on the fetal monitoring strip suggest?
Fetal anemia
Uteroplacental insufficiency
Cord compression
Head compression
A 24 year old G2P1 1001 woman at 38 weeks AOG by LMP came in due to labor pains occuring every 4 to 5 mins. She had a previous one low transverse cesarean section for breech at 39 weeks gestation. On IE, cervix is 2 cm open, 50% dilted st -3. The patient strongly desires to have a vaginal delivery if at all possible. What is the BEST initial management for this case?
Close observation in triage with continuous fetal monitoring and repeat internal exam in 2 to 4 hrs.
Discharge home and follow up in 1 week at clinic
Admission to labor and delivery unit and do repeat cesarean delivery without trial of labor
Admission to labor and delivery unit, continous fetal monitoring and start oxytocin augmentation.
A 24 year old G1P0 on her 36 weeks AOG with limited prenatal care presents via ambulance to labor and delivery unit complaining of severe abdominal pain and profuse vaginal bleeding. The patient is unstable and unable to communicate coherently. The emergency medical technician (EMT) reports that initially her BP was 180/100 mmHg and pulse rate was 110 BPM, but she has lost at least 500 ml of blood in route. On examination, her BP is 90/50 mmHg, pulse rate is 120 BPM, she appears to vbe in significant pain to answewr questions and her abdomen is rigid. What is the BEST next step?
Sterile speculum examination followed by sterile vaginal examination
Abdominal ultrasound
Emergent cesarean section
Stabilize the patient, obtain 2 large bore IV catheters, start IV bolus while checking fetal heart tones
What is the most important laboratory test to order for patient diagnosed with placental abruption emergently?
Type and cross
CBC
PT, PTT, international normalized ratio (INR)
Urine test for proteinuria
Which of the following is the mechanism of action of MgS04 on cellular calcium?
Increases conversion of ATP to cAMP, which results in decreased levels of free calcium ions through sequestration in the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Antagonizes calcium and stabilizes cell membranes
Decrease influx of calcium into cells
Blocks cycooxygenase and decreases levels of prostaglandins
A 27-year-old primigravid woman presents for her first prenatal care visit. Her last menstrual period was three months ago. She reports having regular periods that come every 28 days and lasts for about five days. Her prenatal blood work reveals an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, and Western blot is positive for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). The CD4+ count is 800 cells/mm3, HIV viral load is 60,000 copies/mL, and hemoglobin is 10 g/dL. Which of the following is true about highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)?
The patient’s CD4+ count is high enough that HAART is not indicated
The patient’s hemoglobin is too low to start HAART
The patient should start HAART
HAART has a significant risk of teratogenicity
A 30-year-old primigravida woman presents to the clinic at 20 weeks of gestation for a prenatal visit. She currently has no complaints. Her vitals are pulse 70/min, blood pressure of 150/100 mm Hg, the temperature of 98 F, and respiratory rate of 18/min. Ultrasound of the uterus done during the visit shows diverging horns of the uterus. Which of the following is very important to assess during her visit to determine the cause for the high blood pressure of this patient?
Adrenal gland
Gastrointestinal tract
Kidneys and urinary tract
Aorta
A 17-year-old female gravida 2 para 1 presents to the office at 28 weeks gestation with complaints of left-sided vulvar pain. The patient reports having difficulties sitting and pain in the vaginal region. On examination of the patient, there appears to be an enlarged left vulvar mass with signs of erythema, swelling, and tenderness to palpation. The patient denies any fever and any history of sexually transmitted diseases. The patient is diagnosed with a Bartholin abscess. What is the most likely pathogen
Escherichia Coli
Staphylococcus Aureus
Group B Streptococci
Enterococcus species
A 29-year-old patient presents with complaints of vaginal discharge for a few days. The patient reports no itching or pain and describes the discharge as foul-smelling. She is sexually active with one male partner and uses condoms inconsistently. Her exam is remarkable for a grey discharge present in the vaginal vault that is confirmed to be bacterial vaginosis, and the clinician prescribes appropriate treatment. Her pap smear comes back significant for atypical squamous cells, and can not exclude high-grade intraepithelial lesion. Which of the following is the best next best step in her management?
Repeat the cytological testing in 6 months
Test for human papillomavirus (HPV) subtypes
Loop electrosurgical excisional procedure
Colposcopy
33y.o G1P1 (1001) underwent right salpingo-oophorectomy due to an ovarian new growth. Histopath result showed below. What is the structure pointed?
Call-Exner body
Endometrial gland
Corpus luteum cyst
Schiller-Duval body
A 47 year old G4P4 consulted due to intermenstrual and coital bleeding. A mass is noted protruding from her cervix. What is the diagnosis?
Prolapsed submucous myoma
Cervical cancer
Endocervical polyp
Endometrial polyp
This type of tumor surface appears solid, yellowish white, andlobulated with absence of significant hemorrhage and necrosis
Immature cystic terratoma
Dysgerminoma
Endodermal sinus tumor
Granulosa cell tumor
The classic finding of granular debris in background, degenerating parabasal cells, and polymorphonuclear leukocytes As well as Blue blobs and andpseudoparakeratosisare seen in
Arias Stella reaction
Atrophic vaginitis
Reparative cellular changes
Squamous metaplasia
Hysterectomy was done on the previous patient. Gross specimen revealed the following. What FIGO grade is with mark X ?
FIGO grade 5
FIGO grade 6
FIGO grade 7
FIGO grade 8
45 y.o G3P3 (3003) consulted for routine Pap Smear. She is a known hypertensive and diabetic for 8 years. Pap smear result showed below. What is your management?
Miconazole 200mg vaginal suppository OD x 3 days
Metronidazole 500mg tablet BID x 7 days
Mebendazole 300mg BID x 3 days
Azithromycin 500mg OD x 3 days
23y.o G1P0 22 weeks AOG, came in due to vulvar pruritus with no associated vaginal discharge. On physical examination revealed small, flesh-colored, cauliflower-like lesion near the urethra. What is your diagnosis?
Condyloma acuminata
Condyloma lata
Vulvar CA
Urethral diverticulum
31y.o G6P6 (6006) came in due to post coital bleeding. Pap smear was done which revealed the following result. What is the diagnosis?
LSIL
Normal cervix with Nabothian cyst
Cervical Cancer
HSIL
What phenomenon is depicted in the photo on the left?
Tubal metaplasia
Pregnancy related changes
Squamous metaplasia
Reactive changes associated with radiation
A 40 year old G3P3underwent an adnexal surgery. Specimen shown on the left. What is the diagnosis?
Endometrioid adenocarcinoma
Serous Cystadenoma
Mucinous Cystadenocarcinoma
Serous Cysadenocarcinoma
A 30-year-old woman complains of vaginal discharge. Wet mount preparation revealed the following. What is the diagnosis?
Turolopsis
Bacterial vaginosis
Trichomoniasis
Moniliasis
This tumor was removed from the left ovary of a 10 year old. What is the diagnosis?
Dysgerminoma
Granulosa cell tumor
Mucinous cystadenoma
Mature teratoma
22y.o Nulligravid came in due to vaginal pruritus with white grey copious discharge. On wet smear revealed the following. What medication will you give this patient?
Miconazole 200mg vaginal suppository OD x 3 days
Azithromycin 500mg OD x 3 days
Mebendazole 300mg BID x 3 days
Metronidazole 500mg tablet BID x 7 days
37 years old, multigravid, came in due to heavy menstrual bleeding for 4 months. Endometrial curettage was done which showed below. The following structures can be seen histologically EXCEPT:
Pigment laiden macrophages
Fibrovascular core
Endometrial gland
Fibrous endometrial stroma
Which of the following methods of contraception has the least efficacy?
Ortho Evra patch
COC pills
Levonorgestrel IUD
Coitus interuptus
The following contraceptive method are considered “long term”, EXCEPT:
Tubal ligation/occlusion
1.5 mg LNG pill
Copper IUD
Etonogestrel rod
What test might you perform to determine wether this patient is ovulatory in any given month?
Urinary ovulation predictor kits
Day 3 progesterone
Day 28 progesterone
Luteal phase endometrial biopsy
Which protein is deficient in a patient with classic “salt wasting’ congenital adrenal hyperplasia?
21 hydroxylase
11B Hydroxylase
3B Hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase
Aromatase
A 22year old woman presents to your colposcopy clinic after HSIL, moderate dysplasia was reported on her Pap test at her family medical clinic. She is a heavy smoker with four lifetime sexual partners. She had negative STD testing at her annual examination, and she has no other complaints. What is the recommended management for this case?
Repeat Pap with HPV testing have her return to the office at age 21 to repeat pap test.
Colposcopy with biopsy
HPV testing in 1 year
Immediate LEEP
A 30 yo G0 comes in for her annual examination and tells you that she plans to become pregnant sometime in the next year. She had LEEP procedure 7 years ago for moderate dysplasia, CIN II. She states her Pap testing has been negative since LEEP and her last pap was 3 years ago, but you do not have any records documeting these results. What is the recommended cervbical cancer screening for this patient, assuming she has given an accurate history?
Pap testing and high risk HPV testing every 5 years
Pap testing and colposcopy every 6 months
Colposcopy
Pap testing and colposcopy every 6 mos.
You did a colposcopic evaluation in a patient with an abnormal pap result. Her colposcopy showed minimal abnormalities and the SCJ is seen its entirety. The biopsy is negative for CIN. What is the next step?
No folow up is needed
Pap test and HPV screen in 1 year
Refer to GYn oncologist
Pap testing with colposcopy every 6 mos for 2 years
A 56 years old G3 P3 consulted because of urinary urgency and frequency that requires her to wear sanitary napkins. Which of the following urodynamic test should you perform to confirm the diagnosis?
Bonny’s test
Filling Cytometry
Stress test
Residual volume
A 65 years old G4P4 was brought to the emergency room because of hesitancy, frequency and decrease urine output for 4 days. Last voiding was just 30 minutes ago. Patient is coherent, ambulatory and on physical examination, there was a soft, nontender palpable mass over the hypogastric area. Which of the following must be done initially to provide information on the possible diagnosis?
Blood sugar
Transvaginal ultrasound
Urethral catheterization
Urinalysis
You prescribed to a 51 years old post-menopausal woman for one year cyclic low dose MHT (Estrogen-Progestin). Which of the following progesterone preparation is a safer alternative?
Norethisterone acetate
Medroxyprogesterone acetate
Dydrogesterone
Micronized progesterone
A 54 years old G2P2, menopause for two years consulted because of hot flushes and sleep disturbances. She was recently diagnosed to have hypeternsion and elevated triglycerides and LDL levels. BMI is 28 and she had a previous history of fracture of the wrist. Which of the following MHT is best considered for her?
Tibolone
Vaginal estrogens
LOw dose oral E-P
Transdermal estrogen with oral progesterone
Breast bud development is the beginning of what stage of puberty?
Thelarche
Adrenarche
Pubarche
Menarche
What is the acceptable indication for MHT use?
Osteoporosis treatment
Hot flashes and night sweats interfering with quality of life
Cardiovascular disease prevention
Dementia prevention
The patient still has her uterus. If the patient is started on estrogen therapy (ET), what other hormone also need to be prescribed?
A progestin
FSH
hCG
Testosterone
Cervical conization is indicated in which of the following patients?
36 yo G3P2 woman diagnosed with cervical biopsy report of CIN2/HGSIL
45yo G3P2 woman complaining of vaginal spotting with cervical CA stage 1B
33yo G2P2 woman with Pap smear result of HSIL
44yo. G5P5 woman with Pap smear result of “reactive cellular change” severe inflammation
