wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Complex Cardiac Review

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 4hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A client is treated in the intensive care unit (ICU) following an acute myocardial infarction (MI). During the nursing assessment, the client reports shortness of breath and chest pain. In addition, the client's blood pressure (BP) is 100/60 mmHg with a heart rate (HR) of 53 bpm, and the electrocardiogram (ECG) tracing shows more P waves than QRS complexes. Which action should the nurse take first?

a)

Initiate transcutaneous pacing

b)

Prepare for defibrillation

c)

Administer 1 mg of IV atropine

d)

Obtain a 12-lead ECG

2.

A nurse is caring for a client who is on a continuous cardiac monitor. When evaluating the client's rhythm strip, the nurse notes that the QRS interval has increased from 0.08 second to 0.14 second. Based on this finding, the nurse should withhold continued administration of which drug?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Procainamide

c)

Propafenone

d)

Verapamil

3.

The nurse and the student nurse are observing a cardioversion procedure completed by a physician. At which time is the nurse most correct to identify to the student when the electrical current will be initiated?

a)

During stimulation of the SA node

b)

During repolarization of the heart

c)

During ventricular depolarization

d)

During the QRS complex

4.

The nurse understands that asystole can be caused by several conditions. Select all that apply

a)

Hypoxia

b)

Alkalosis

c)

Hypovolemia

d)

Hypothermia

e)

Acidosis

5.

An ECG has been ordered for a newly admitted client. What should the nurse do prior to electrode placement?

a)

Clean the skin with providone-iodine solution

b)

Ensure that the area for electrode placement is dry

c)

Apply tincture of benzoin to the electrode sites and wait for it to become "tacky"

d)

Gently abrade the skin by rubbing the electrode sites with dry gauze or cloth

6.

The nurse checks the synchronizer switch before using a defibrillator to terminate ventricular fibrillation for what important reason?

a)

The delivered shock must be synchronized with the client's QRS complex

b)

The defibrillator won't deliver a shock if the synchronizer switch is turned on

c)

The defibrillator won't deliver a shock if the synchronizer switch is turned off

d)

The shock must be synchronized with the client's T wave

7.

What is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation?

a)

Immediate bystander CPR

b)

Pacemaker

c)

Implanted defibrillator

d)

Atropine

8.

The nurse is caring for a geriatric client. The client is ordered Lanoxin (digoxin) tablets 0.125 mg daily for cardiac dysrhythmias. Which of the following assessment considerations is essential when caring for this age-group?

a)

Digoxin level

b)

Cardiac Output

c)

Activity level

d)

Dyspnea

9.

The nurse suspects a client has developed pericarditis after a week of cold-like symptoms. Which of the client's signs and symptoms indicate pericarditis?

a)

Fever, chest discomfort, and elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

b)

Low urine output secondary to left ventricular dysfunction

c)

Lethargy, anorexia, and heart failure

d)

pitting edema, chest discomfort, and nonspecific ST-segment elevation

10.

The nurse is administering an Amiodarone drip for a client that develops a ventricular dysrhythmia after having a myocardial infarction (MI). What is the best indication that the medication is having the desired effect?

a)

electrocardiogram (ECG)

b)

urine output

c)

creatine kinase (CK) and troponin levels

d)

blood pressure and heart rate

11.

Which symptom occurs in the client diagnosed with mitral regurgitation when pulmonary congestion occurs?

a)

A loud, blowing murmur

b)

Hypertension

c)

Shortness of breath

d)

Tachycardia

12.

Which nursing intervention should a nurse perform to reduce cardiac workload in a client diagnosed with myocarditis?

a)

Maintain the client on bedrest

b)

Administer a prescribed antipyretic

c)

Elevate the client's head

d)

Administer supplemental oxygen

13.

Which of the following are indications of a rupturing aortic aneurysm? Select all that apply

a)

Constant, intense back pain

b)

Decreasing blood pressure

c)

Decreasing hematocrit

d)

Increasing blood pressure

e)

Increasing hematocrit

14.

The nurse has just admitted a 66-year old patient for cardiac surgery. The patient tells the nurse that she is afraid of dying while undergoing the surgery. The nurse should be aware that:

a)

A further assessment of anxiety is required

b)

A more complete physical examination is required

c)

Preoperative fears are normal and will be alleviated with time

d)

Teaching should be initiated immediately to alleviate the fears

15.

A critical care nurse is caring for a client with a pulmonary artery catheter in place. What does this catheter measure that is particularly important in critically ill clients?

a)

Pulmonary artery systolic pressure

b)

Right ventricular afterload

c)

Pulmonary artery pressure

d)

Left ventricular preload

16.

When hemodynamic monitoring is ordered for a client, a catheter is inserted into the appropriate blood vessel or heart chamber. When assessing a client who has such a device in place, the nurse should check which of the following components? Select all that apply

a)

A transducer

b)

A flush system

c)

A leveler

d)

A pressure bag

e)

An oscillator

17.

What is the major clinical use of dobutamine?

a)

Increased cardiac output

b)

prevent sinus bradycardia

c)

treat hypotension

d)

Treat hypertension

18.

A nurse is caring for a client in cardiogenic shock. Which vasopressor agents may be used in the treatment on the client? Select all that apply

a)

Norepinephrine

b)

Milrinone

c)

Epinephrine

d)

Vasopressin

e)

Phenylephrine

19.

A client is unstable and receiving dopamine to increase blood pressure. Which of the following are interventions that the nurse administering dopamine would employ? Select all that apply

a)

Administer through an intact peripheral line

b)

Assess vital signs every hour

c)

Use an intravenous controller or pump

d)

Verify dosage and pump settings with another RN

e)

Measure urine output every hour

20.

The nurse assesses a patient in compensatory shock whose lungs have decompensated. What clinical manifestations would the nurse expect to find? Select all that apply

a)

A heart rate >100 bpm

b)

Crackles

c)

Lethargy and mental confusion

d)

Respirations <15 breaths/min

e)

Compensatory respiratory acidosis

21.

A client is lethargic with a systolic blood pressure of 74, heart rate of 162 bpm, and rapid, shallow respirations. Crackles are audible in the lungs. The nurse assesses frequently for which of the following? Select all that apply

a)

Increased paCO2 levels

b)

Reports of chest pain

c)

Loss in consciousness

d)

Ecchymoses and petechiae

e)

Decrease in liver enzymes

22.

A nurse is evaluating a client's drop in mean arterial pressure to 50 mmHg during progressive shock. What client assessment would follow with the drop in pressure?

a)

Rapid respirations

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Low urine output

d)

Constipation

23.

A team of nurses are reviewing the similarities and differences between the different classifications of shock. Which sub-classifications of distributive shock should the nurses identify?

a)

Anaphylactic

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Septic

e)

Neurogenic

24.

The seasoned nurse is instructing the new graduate on information obtained from central venous pressure and pulmonary artery pressure. Which statement, made by the seasoned nurse, reflects the most pertinent information regarding circulation?

a)

"Central venous pressure reflects the pressure in the right atrium or venae cavae"

b)

"A pulmonary artery pressure provides information about pressure on the left side of the heart"

c)

"The trend in central venous pressure is more helpful than isolated readings"

d)

"Pulmonary artery pressure and pulmonary capillary pressure is assessed by an inserted catheter"

25.

A client at the scene of an MVA seems somewhat anxious and has clammy skin. The client's BP has dropped to 90 mm Hg. What stage of shock is the client most likely experiencing?

a)

Progressive stage

b)

Compensatory stage

c)

Irreversible stage

d)

Initial stage

26.

A critical care nurse is aware of similarities and differences between the treatments for different types of shock. What intervention is used in all types of shock?

a)

Aggressive hypoglycemic control

b)

Administration of hypertonic IV fluids

c)

Early provision of nutritional support

d)

Aggressive antibiotic therapy

27.

A nurse is providing care to all of the following clients. Which client would be most at risk for septic shock?

a)

The client with pneumonia in the lower left lobe of the lung

b)

The client with a BMI of 25 who has lost 3 lbs as a result of vomiting

c)

The 45-year old client with a sudden onset of premature ventricular contractions (PVCs)

d)

The client with testicular cancer who is receiving IV chemotherapy

28.

A nurse is caring for a client in a critical care unit. With what type of shock does a client experience a pooling of blood flow to the peripheral blood vessels?

a)

Distributive

b)

Hypovolemic

c)

Cardiogenic

d)

Organ failure

29.

Organ failure that is associated with multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) usually begins in the

a)

brain

b)

lungs

c)

liver

d)

kidneys

30.

Which drug is a vasodilator used in the treatment of shock?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Nitroglycerin

c)

Norepinephrine

d)

Dobutamine

31.

A client presents to the ED in shock. At what point in shock does the nurse know that metabolic acidosis is going to occur?

a)

Compensatory

b)

Irreversible

c)

Initial

d)

Progressive

32.

The ICU nurse is caring for a client with sepsis whose tissue perfusion is declining. What signs would indicate to the nurse that end-organ damage may be occurring?

a)

Urine output increases

b)

Skin becomes warm and dry

c)

Adventitious lung sounds occur in the upper airway

d)

Heart and respiratory rates are elevated

33.

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving large volumes of crystalloid fluid to treat hypovolemic shock. In light of this intervention, for what sign or symptom should the nurse monitor?

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Bradycardia

c)

Coffee ground emesis

d)

Pain

34.

The nurse is caring for a client in cardiogenic shock. The client weighs 90 kg. A dobutamine drip of 1 mcg/kg/min is ordered. The dobutamine is supplied in a concentration of 500 mg in 250 mL of D5W. IV infusion should be started at how many ml per hour?

a)

2.7 mL/hr

b)

5.5 mL/hr

c)

8.0 mL/hr

d)

11 mL/hr

35.

The nurse obtains a blood pressure of 120/78 mmHg from a patient in hypovolemic shock. Since the blood pressure is within normal range for this patient, what stage of shock does the nurse realize this patient is experiencing?

a)

Initial stage

b)

Compensatory stage

c)

Progressive stage

d)

Irreversible stage

36.

The nurse is caring for a client with a stage IV leg ulcer. The nurse is closely monitoring the client for sepsis. What would indicate that sepsis has occurred and that the nurse should notify the physician immediately?

a)

The client feels restless and hungry

b)

The client exhibits an increased urinary output

c)

The client's heart rate is greater than 100 bpm

d)

The client's respiratory rate is less than 20

37.

When caring for a client in shock, one of the major nursing goals is to reduce the risk that the client will develop complications of shock. How can the nurse best achieve this goal?

a)

Provide a detailed diagnosis and plan of care in order to promote the client's and family's coping

b)

Keep the physician updated with the most accurate information because in cases of shock the nurse often cannot provide relevant interventions

c)

Monitor for significant changes and evaluate client outcomes on a scheduled basis focusing on blood pressure and skin temperature

d)

Understand the underlying mechanisms of shock, recognize the subtle and more obvious signs, and then provide rapid assessments

38.

A positive inotrope:

a)

Increases conduction

b)

increases rate

c)

increases positive ions

d)

increases contractility

39.

A negative chronotrope:

a)

decreases contractility

b)

decreases conduction

c)

decreases excitablility

d)

decreases heart rate

40.

A positive dromotrope:

a)

increases excitability

b)

increases contractility

c)

increases heart rate

d)

increases conduction

41.

Which of the following medications is a potassium channel blocker?

a)

Metoprolol

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Lidocaine

d)

Amiodarone

42.

What is the therapeutic level of digoxin?

a)

Greater than 1 ng/mL

b)

Greater than 1 mg/mL

c)

0.5-2.0 ng/mL

d)

0.5-2.0 mg/mL

43.

What are the signs of an overdose on a cholinergic blocker? Select all that apply

a)

hypotension

b)

decreased bowel sounds

c)

decreased urine output

d)

dry mouth

e)

tachycardia

44.

The nurse is assessing the client for possible evidence of digitalis toxicity. The nurse acknowledges that which is included in the signs/symptoms for digitalis toxicity?

a)

Pulse below 60 bpm and an irregular rate

b)

Pulse rate of 100 bpm

c)

Pulse greater than 60 bpm and an irregular rate

d)

Pulse of 72 and an irregular rate

45.

The health care provider has prescribed IV norepinephrine for a patient in the ED. The nurse determines that the drug is having the desired effect when what is observed in patient assessment?

a)

Respiratory rate of 24

b)

Temperature of 96.8 degrees F (36 degrees C)

c)

Heart rate of 68 bpm

d)

Blood pressure of 106/82 mmHg

46.

A client who is three days status post coronary artery bypass graft surgery (CABG) has gone into an atrial fibrillation (afib) rhythm. The client is started on a digoxin load to treat the afib. Which of the following nursing assessments would indicate a possible problem with the medication administration?

a)

The client has a digoxin level of 1.5

b)

The client has an apical heart rate of 80 beats per minute

c)

The client has an apical heart rate of 55 beats per minute

d)

The client has a potassium level of 4.0

47.

A nurse is caring for a client who is three days post-operative from coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery. Today the client’s temporary epicardial wires will be pulled out. The nurse knows that close monitoring needs to occur in order to assess the client for signs and symptoms of cardiac tamponade. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to see in cardiac tamponade?

a)

Bradycardia, widened pulse pressure, and dyspnea

b)

Fatigue, ascites, and peripheral edema

c)

Chest pain, a pericardial friction rub, and fever

d)

Tachycardia, distended neck veins, and tachypnea

48.

The nurse is administering nitroglycerin intravenously to a client experiencing chest pain of an 8 on a 1 to 10 scale. What assess-ment changes would cause the nurse to decrease the infusion rate?

a)

Heart rate increases from 110 to 115 beats per minute

b)

Client verbalizes his head is pounding

c)

Blood pressure drops from 110/65 (80) to 89/44 (59) mmHg

d)

Pain drops from an 8 to a 4

49.

During the night, a client with a diagnosis of acute coronary syndrome is found to be restless and diaphoretic. What is the best nursing action?

a)

Check the monitor to determine his cardiac rhythm and evaluate vital signs

b)

Turn the alarms low and promote sleep by decreasing the number of interruptions

c)

Check his temperature and determine his serum blood glucose level

d)

Call the physician to obtain an order for sedation

50.

A surgical repair is planned for a patient who has a 5.5-cm abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). On physical assessment of the patient, what should the nurse expect to find?

a)

Presence of a bruit in the periumbilical area

b)

Weakness in the lower extremities progressing to paraplegia

c)

Hoarseness and dysphagia

d)

Severe back pain with flank ecchymosis

51.

During preoperative preparation of the patient scheduled for an AAA, why should the nurse establish baseline data for the patient?

a)

Surgery will be canceled if any physiologic function is not normal

b)

All physiologic processes will be altered postoperatively

c)

BP and HR will be maintained well below baseline levels during the postoperative period

d)

The cause of the aneurysm is a systemic vascular disease

52.

A thoracic aortic aneurysm is found when a patient has a routine chest x-ray. The nurse anticipates that additional diagnostic testing to determine the size and structure of the aneurysm will include which test?

a)

Angiography

b)

Echocardiogram

c)

Computed Tomography (CT) scan

d)

Ultrasonography

53.

A patient with a small AAA is not a good surgical candidate. What should the nurse teach the patient that is one of the best ways to prevent expansion of the lesion?

a)

Comply with prescribed anticoagulant therapy

b)

Avoid strenuous physical exertion

c)

Maintain a low-calcium diet to prevent calcification of the vessel

d)

Control hypertension with prescribed therapy

54.

Which of the following shows the correct sequence of nursing interventions for a patient with new diagnosis of dissecting aortic aneurysm?

A. Administer a beta-blocker to slow heart rate.

B. Place two large bore IV catheters.

C. Transfer patient to OR.

D. Administer a large fluid bolus to prevent hypotension.

a)

B, D, C

b)

B, A, D, C

c)

B, D, A, C

d)

B, C

55.

A patient comes to the emergency department with abdominal pain. Work-up reveals the presence of a rapidly enlarging abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which of the following actions should the nurse expect?

a)

The patient will be admitted to the surgical unit and surgically repaired quickly

b)

The patient will be discharged home to follow-up with his cardiologist in 24 hours

c)

The patient will be admitted to the day surgery unit for sclerotherapy

d)

The patient will be admitted to the medicine unit for observation and medication

56.

The nurse evaluates that treatment for the patient with an uncomplicated aortic dissection is successful when what happens?

a)

BP is increased to normal range

b)

Pain is relieved

c)

Surgical repair is completed

d)

Renal output is maintained at 30 mL/hr

57.

Immediately following an ascending aortic aneurysm repair, what is an important finding that the nurse should report immediately to the HCP?

a)

Decreased drainage from the chest tubes

b)

A change in level of consciousness (LOC) and inability to speak

c)

Shallow respirations and poor coughing

d)

Lower extremity pulses that are decreased from the preoperative baseline

58.

A patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is experiencing oozing from several partially healed intravenous insertion sites. The nurse plans care for this patient based on the awareness that this finding results from which coagulation problem?

a)

Consumptive thrombocytopenia

b)

Altered tissue plasminogen activator

c)

Elevated thrombin levels

d)

Decreased plasmin function

59.

DIC is a disease characterized by (select all that apply):

a)

Bleeding

b)

Increased PT/PTT

c)

Increased fibrinogen

d)

Decreased platelets

e)

Clotting

60.

Which of the following may be an underlying condition that leads to DIC?

a)

Complication of pregnancy

b)

Cancer

c)

All of these conditions could lead to DIC

d)

Liver disease

e)

Trauma

61.

Put the options in the correct sequence for disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC):

A. Fibrinogen converted to fibrin

B. Activation of fibrinolytic system

C. Production of intravascular thrombin

D. Uncompensated hemorrhage

E. Widespread fibrin and platelet deposition in capillaries and arterioles

F. Inhibition of normal clotting

G. Release of fibrin split proteins

a)

C, A, E, B, G, F, D

b)

D, A, C, E, G, B, F

c)

A, C, E, B, G, F, D

d)

C, A, E, G, B, F, D

62.

Which patient manifestations confirm the development of MODS?

a)

Elevated serum bilirubin, serum creatinine of 3.8 mg/dL, and platelet count of 15,000/μL

b)

Upper GI bleeding, Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 7, and Hct of 25%

c)

Respiratory rate of 45, PaCO2 of 60 mm Hg, and chest x-ray with bilateral diffuse patchy infiltrates

d)

Urine output of 30 mL/hr, BUN of 45 mg/dL, and white blood cell (WBC) count of 1120/μL

63.

Which statement describing systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and/or multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS) is accurate?

a)

The GI system is often the first to show evidence of dysfunction in SIRS and MODS

b)

MODS may occur independently from SIRS

c)

A common initial mediator that causes endothelial damage leading to SIRS and MODS is endotoxin

d)

All patients with septic shock develop MODS.

64.

What mechanism that can trigger SIRS is related to myocardial infarction or pancreatitis?

a)

Abscess formation

b)

Ischemic or necrotic tissue

c)

Microbial invasion

d)

Global perfusion deficits

65.

What are the criteria for SIRS? Select all that apply.

a)

HR greater than 90

b)

WBC less than 4,000 or greater than 10,000

c)

Temp less than 36 or greater than 38

d)

Respirations greater than 20

e)

BP less than 90

66.

Which intervention may prevent GI bacterial and endotoxin translocation in a critically ill patient with SIRS?

a)

Early enteral feedings

b)

Strict aseptic technique in all procedures

c)

Aggressive multiple antibiotic therapy

d)

Surgical removal of necrotic tissue

67.

The patient is admitted with an unusual infection and no other injuries. The nurse can rule out what types of mechanical tissue trauma that are also SIRS triggers? Select all that apply.

a)

Burns

b)

Fungi

c)

Surgical procedures

d)

Viruses

e)

Crush injuries

68.

A patient with septic shock has a urine output of 20 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. The pulse rate is 120 and the central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure are low. Which of these orders by the health care provider will the nurse question?

a)

Administer hydrocortisone (SoluCortef) 100 mg IV

b)

Increase normal saline infusion to 150 mL/hr

c)

Give furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV

d)

Titrate dopamine hydrochloride to keep systolic BP greater than 90.

69.

A patient with cardiogenic shock is cool and clammy and hemodynamic monitoring indicates a high systemic vascular resistance (SVR). Which action will the nurse anticipate taking?

a)

Decrease the rate for the prescribed 5% dextrose in water infusion

b)

Increase the rate for the prescribed dopamine infusion

c)

Decrease the rate for the prescribed nitroglycerin infusion

d)

Increase the rate for the prescribed sodium nitroprusside infusion

70.

What is the definition of shock?

a)

A syndrome of inappropriate elevation of carbon dioxide and acidosis

b)

A syndrome of decreased tissue perfusion and impaired cellular metabolism

c)

A state of anaerobic cellular metabolism and lactic acidosis

d)

A disease process where lactic acid is created and washed out of the system by hypermetabolism

71.

A patient with shock of unknown etiology whose hemodynamic monitoring indicates BP 92/54, pulse 64, and an elevated pulmonary artery wedge pressure has the following collaborative interventions prescribed. Which intervention will the nurse question?

a)

Administer dobutamine (Dobutrex) to keep systolic BP >90 mm Hg

b)

Infuse normal saline at 250mL/hr

c)

Give nitroprusside (Nipride) unless systolic BP <90 mm Hg

d)

Keep head of bed elevated to 30 degrees

72.

A client has been diagnosed with sepsis. The nurse will most likely find which of the following when assessing this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Rapid shallow respirations

b)

Elevated temperature

c)

Lactic acidosis

d)

Mental status changes

e)

Oliguria

73.

Nursing intervention for a patient with septic shock is most likely to result in all of the following outcomes except:

a)

The patient has a heart rate of 120 beats/min

b)

The patient has a white count of 5,000

c)

The patient has a systolic blood pressure greater than 90

d)

The patient has a urine output of 40mL/hr

74.

Which signs/symptoms occur during the compensatory stage of shock? Select all that apply.

a)

Third spacing

b)

Decreased urine output

c)

Increased HR

d)

A drop in BP

e)

Change in mentation

75.

Until the physician arrives to evaluate the status of a client in the ICU, the nurse is going to begin assessing a client for shock. Which of the following would be considered traditional methods to assess this client? Select all that apply.

a)

Obtain the equipment for tonometry

b)

Measure urine output

c)

Analyze the arterial blood gas

d)

Assess blood pressure

e)

Have a serum lactate drawn

76.

A client with post-myocardial infarction develops acute bacterial pericarditis. Which of the following medications would the physician most likely prescribe as the primary drug?

a)

Acetaminophen

b)

Ibruprofen

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Triloxsalen

77.

Because a client has mitral stenosis and is a prospective valve recipient, the nurse preoperatively assesses a client’s past compliance with medical regimens. Lack of compliance with which of the following regimens would pose the greatest health hazard to this client?

a)

Medication therapy

b)

Dental care

c)

Activity restrictions

d)

Diet modifications

78.

A client with acute infective endocarditis (staphylococcal organism) suddenly complains of shortness of breath and chest pain. Upon assessment, the nurse notes diminished breath sounds and hemoptysis. Based on this assessment data, the nurse suspects which of the following?

a)

Worsening endocarditis

b)

Congestive heart failure

c)

Embolization of vegetative lesions

d)

Acute myocardial infarction

79.

What valvular dysfunctions may be evident with an audible S3? Select all that apply.

a)

Tricuspid valve stenosis

b)

Pulmonary valve stenosis

c)

Mitral valve regurgitation

d)

Aortic valve regurgitation

80.

The nurse knows it is important for which of the following patients to discuss their history with their dentist? Select all that apply.

a)

A 50 year old male being discharged after CABG

b)

42 year old male with a history of chest pain

c)

48 year old male s/p mitral valve replacement

d)

28 year old male with a history of IV drug use

e)

24 year old female with rheumatic heart disease

81.

What diagnostic criteria are used for a diagnosis of endocarditis? Select all that apply.

a)

Positive blood cultures

b)

Diagnostic mass on echocardiogram

c)

New or changing murmur

d)

Chest pain relieved with sitting up

e)

Temperature greater than 100.4

82.

A 53-year-old is showing symptoms of dyspnea on exertion, angina, and exertional syncope. Which of the following do these manifestations indicate?

a)

Aortic valve regurgitation

b)

Mitral valve prolapse

c)

Aortic valve stenosis

d)

Mitral valve regurgitation

83.

A client is admitted for heart valve surgery. While on the step-down unit, the client complains of chills, malaise, fatigue, and abdominal pain. Upon assessment, the nurse finds the client to be febrile at 101.5 degrees Fahrenheit, pulse 88 and regular, respirations 26 and labored. The client also has splinter hemorrhages under the nails. Which of the following diagnoses is most likely?

a)

Infective endocarditis

b)

Rheumatic fever

c)

Pericarditis

d)

Pulmonary edema

84.

A patient with a history of coronary artery disease is being treated for a myocardial infarction (MI). During treatment, acute mitral valve regurgitation occurs. What is the most likely cause of the acute mitral valve dysfunction?

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

Infective endocarditis

c)

Rupture of the chordae tendinae

d)

Atherosclerosis

85.

A 50-year-old male with history of alcohol abuse presents with complaint of worsening dyspnea. Physical examination reveals bibasilar rales, elevated jugular venous pressure, an S3 and lower extremity edema. Chest x-ray reveals pulmonary congestion and cardiomegaly. Echocardiogram shows left ventricular dilatation and an ejection fraction of 30%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

a)

Dilated cardiomyopathy

b)

Infective cardiomyopathy

c)

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

d)

Restrictive cardiomyopathy

86.

A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy phones the doctor’s office to report that in the last 3 weeks, he has gained 30 pounds and is short of breath worse when lying down. What advice should the nurse give the patient?

a)

Restrict their diet to 3,000mg of sodium a day

b)

Go to the emergency room immediately

c)

Keep their follow up appointment tomorrow

d)

Double their dose of furosemide until they lose weight

87.

In which of the following types of cardiomyopathy does cardiac output remain normal?

a)

Hypertrophic

b)

Restrictive

c)

Obliterative

d)

Dilated

88.

Teaching for a patient newly diagnosed with restrictive cardiomyopathy should include what components?

a)

your heart will likely not be able to tolerate exercise because it does not squeeze well

b)

you should not exercise because it may kill you

c)

your heart will have trouble when you exercise because it cannot fill well

d)

you should gradually increase your exercise daily to improve cardiac function

89.

If medical treatments fail, which of the following invasive procedures is necessary for treating cardiomyopathy?

a)

Coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

b)

Heart transplantation

c)

Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)

d)

Cardiac catheterization

90.

If a patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days, the nurse should anticipate that further treatment of the patient will require:

a)

a transvenous implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

b)

immediate electrical cardioversion

c)

carotid massage

d)

treatment with anticoagulants before additional treatment

91.

Which of the following classes of drugs is most widely used in the treatment of cardiomyopathy?

a)

Calcium channel blockers

b)

Nitrates

c)

Antihypertensives

d)

Beta-adrenergic blockers

92.

The client is at risk for heart failure symptoms because their heart doesn’t pump well. Since these symptoms have developed slowly over time, the patient should keep their appointment the next day. The nurse should closely question the patient on which medication regimen?

a)

Annuloplasty

b)

Cardiac transplant

c)

Valvuloplasty

d)

Pericardiocentesis