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Radiobiology Review

Total questions: 144

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is efficacy?

a)

Degree to which a study reveals absence or presence of disease

b)

Degree to which radiation safety is implement during a study

c)

Degree to which a diagnosis is accurately made

d)

Degree to which hand hygiene is followed

2.

BERT stands for:

a)

Background Equivalent Radiation Time

b)

Background Equal Radiation Theory

c)

Background Equivalent Risk Theory

d)

Sesame Street Character

3.

It is important to modify technical factors for exams on children. Risk is approx. ___ higher for children than adults.

a)

5X

b)

2x

c)

10x

d)

3x

4.

What are the 3 cardinal rules of radiation protection?

a)

Time

b)

Technical Factors

c)

Distance

d)

Shielding

5.

Which type of radiation has a lower frequency?

a)

Non-ionizing radiation

b)

Ionizing radiation

6.

Alpha Particles are most dangerous:

a)

Internally

b)

Externally

7.

Essentially all effects of low-LET radiation impacts a living cell result from:

a)

Direct action

b)

Indirect action

c)

Alpha and Beta Rays

d)

Microwaves

8.

What is the largest contributor to background radiation?

a)

Radon

b)

Gadolinium

c)

Granite

d)

Stars

9.

What is the largest source of exposure to man-made ionizing radiation?

a)

Airport security scanners

b)

Medical radiation

c)

Nuclear power plants

d)

Suntan Beds

10.

Select all that are true for an ION

a)

Positive charge

b)

Negative charge

c)

Has gained or lost electrons

d)

No charge

11.

Which is NOT true of a Radical?

a)

Often will not cause significant damage

b)

Breaks chemical bonds

c)

Highly reactive

d)

Has an unpaired electron

12.

Cancer and genetic effects are examples of ______ effects.

a)

Stochastic

b)

Non-stochastic

c)

Deterministic

d)

Probabilistic

13.

"Linear non-threshold curve" implies that the biologic response to ionizing radiation is ____the dose.

a)

Inversely proportional to

b)

Directly proportional to

c)

Inversely proportional to the square of

d)

Directly proportional to the square of

14.

Which of the following tissues contain cells that do not divide?

a)

Adult Epithelial

b)

Adult Muscle tissue

c)

Adult Nervous tissue

d)

Adult Lymphocytes

15.

Which of the following devices contains an aluminum oxide detector?

a)

Film badge

b)

OSL dosimeter

c)

Pocket dosimeter

d)

TLD

16.

Some consequences of ionization in human cells include:

a)

Creation of unstable atoms

b)

Production of free electrons

c)

Creation of reactive free radicals capable of producing substances poisonous to the cell

17.

For a lead apron, ____lead equivalent is the most widely used and recommended in diagnostic imaging.

a)

0.25mm

b)

0.5mm

c)

1.0mm

d)

1.5mm

18.

For a thyroid shield, ____lead equivalent is recommended in diagnostic imaging.

a)

0.25mm

b)

0.5mm

c)

1.0mm

d)

0.35mm

19.

Protective gloves must be ______ lead equivalent.

a)

0.25mm

b)

0.35mm

c)

0.5mm

d)

1.0mm

20.

Three different filters are incorporated into the detector packet of the OSL dosimeter. These filters are made of:

a)

Aluminum

b)

Copper

c)

Tungsten

d)

Tin

21.

Protective eyeglasses with optically clear lenses should contain a minimal lead equivalent protection of:

a)

0.15mm

b)

0.25mm

c)

0.35mm

d)

0.50mm

22.

Select all that minimize dose:

a)

Pulsed Fluoroscopy

b)

Short patient to image intensifier distance

c)

Short technologist to source distance

d)

Magnification mode

e)

Increasing kVp only

23.

To minimize dose to a pregnant patient, what is the first step:

a)

Collimation

b)

Shielding

c)

Increasing technical factors

d)

Ensuring the bucky is alined with the tube

24.

Reduction in dose can be achieved by:

a)

Use of LIH

b)

Technologist standing on Image Intensifier side

c)

Use of Image Intensifier

d)

Placing Tube above patient for fluoro procedures

25.

Factors that influence extend of injury form ionizing radiation are:

a)

Amount of body area exposed

b)

Cell sensitivity to radiation

c)

Age and sex

d)

Presence of oxygen

26.

Target Theory is essentially the idea that the cell dies if inactivation of the master molecule occurs as a result of exposure to ionizing radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Examples of late biologic damage are:

a)

Cataracts

b)

Leukemia

c)

Nausea/vomiting

d)

Cerebrovascular Syndrome

28.

As radiation dose increases, severity of early effects:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Remains constant

29.

Which of the following are classified as early somatic effects of ionizing radiation?

a)

Erythema, cataract formation, cancer

b)

Nausea, epilation, intestinal disorders

c)

Male and female sterility, embryologic defects, cancer

d)

Blood disorders, fever, genetic effects

30.

If a threshold relationship exists between a radiation dose and a biologic response, even the smallest dose of ionizing radiation will have some biologic effect on a living organism.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Which of the following takes into account the potential variation in biological harm that is produced by different kinds of radiation?

a)

Absorbed Dose

b)

Exposure

c)

Equivalent Dose

d)

Effective Dose

32.

Radiation-induced cataracts do not possess a threshold dose

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Which of the following radiation quantities accounts for some biologic tissues being more sensitive to radiation than other tissues?

a)

Absorbed Dose

b)

Exposure

c)

Equivalent Dose

d)

Effective Dose

34.

Cancer and genetic effects are examples of stochastic effects that have a threshold

a)

True

b)

False

35.

According to the law of B and T, the most pronounced radiation effects occur in cells having the:

a)

Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity

b)

Greatest reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and most maturity

c)

Greatest reproductive activity, longest mitotic phases, and least maturity

d)

Least reproductive activity, shortest mitotic phases, and least maturity

36.

Radiation from the primary beam poses the greatest occupational hazard in diagnostic radiology.

a)

False

b)

True

37.

According to SC35 the effective dose limit of occupational exposure during the remainder of a pregnancy is:

a)

4mSv

b)

20mSv

c)

10mSv

d)

5mSv

38.

For pediatric patients, a 25% decrease in peak kilovoltage is required, depending on part thickness.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Scheduling radiographers to assigned areas in a rotational pattern uses time as a means of radiation protection.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Which of the following radiation sources is the control booth barrier NOT intended to intercept?

a)

Leakage Radiation

b)

Secondary Radiation

c)

Primary Radiation

d)

Scatter Radiation

41.

Gonadal shielding should be used to protect the reproductive organs from exposure to the useful beam:

a)

When the reproductive organs are in or within approximately 5 cm of a properly collimated x-ray beam

b)

Unless shielding will compromise the diagnostic value of the exam

c)

When the radiographer chooses to substitute gonadal shielding for adequate collimation of the x-ray beam

42.

Pediatric patients require special consideration and appropriate radiation protection procedures because they are more vulnerable to:

a)

Late somatic and genetic effects

b)

Early somatic effects and genetic effects

c)

Genetic effects

d)

Early somatic effects

43.

A technologist should provide a personal opinion regarding medical treatment or diagnosis to a patient

a)

True

b)

False

44.

What is the greatest contributor to background radiation dose?

4 lines
45.

There are firm dose limits for the amount of radiation patients may receive for each imaging procedure

a)

True

b)

False

46.

How is the risk of damaging healthy biologic tissue during an x-ray exam minimized?

a)

Use protective devices when possible

b)

Follow established safety procedures

c)

Use a kVp above 60 only

d)

Education on safe operation of equipment

47.

What stage of acute radiation syndrome occurs when outward symptoms disappear?

a)

Latent stage

b)

Prodromal stage

c)

Manifest illness

d)

All of these stages have symptoms

48.

True or False: Gonadal shielding is the primary method of shielding your patient from unnecessary dose

a)

True

b)

False

49.

A req for an abdomen has been requested by the emergency doctor on a 5-year-old child. The technologist goes onto PACS and notices that a abdomen x-ray for the same reasoning was done 1 hour prior in a different town, what should the technologist do?

a)

Go on break so that technologist doesn't need to deal with it

b)

Call the doctor and ask for clarification

c)

Refuse to do the x-ray

d)

Do the x-ray

50.

At what minimal distance sould the radiographer stand to get the least amount of exposure during mobile radiography?

a)

10 meters

b)

2 meters

c)

1 meter

d)

3 meters

51.

What is the estimated lethal dose for humans?

a)

1-2 Gy

b)

3-4 Gy

c)

2-3 Gy

d)

0.5-1 Gy

52.

An x-ray exposure of 200 mR is recorded at a distance of 36 inches. If the technical factors remain the same and a distance of 72 inches is used, what will the new exposure be? Use inverse square law formula: I1/I2 = (D2)2/(D1)2

a)

400 mR

b)

100 mR

c)

50 mR

d)

800 mR

53.

All of the following are methods that can be used to reduce repeat x-rays EXCEPT:

a)

Selection of appropriate technical factors

b)

Correct patient positioning

c)

Not addressing patient artifacts

d)

Use of immobilization devices

54.

True or False: Oxygenated cells receive less damage from low LET radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

All of the following are syndromes of acute radiation syndrome EXCEPT:

a)

Hematopoietic syndrome

b)

Cerebrovascular syndrome

c)

Gastrointestinal syndrome

d)

Osseous syndrome

56.

True or False: If restraint by a person is necessary for an examination, the radiographer should hold the patient

a)

True

b)

False

57.

If a technologist initially set a technique of 80 kVp and 20 mAs but wanted to decrease the patient exposure, while maintaining image density, what would be the new kVp and mAs?

a)

90 kVp and 15 mAs

b)

80 kVp and 10 mAs

c)

92 kVp and 10 mAs

d)

92 kVp and 20 mAs

58.

Which of the following are effects upon the body that was irradiated?

a)

Genetic effects

b)

Lethal dose

c)

Systemic effects

d)

Somatic effects

59.

What is the major type of late somatic effects?

a)

Carcinogenesis

b)

Embryologic effects

c)

Cataractogenesis

d)

All of the above

60.

A patient presents with minor complaints and insists something must be done. The physician orders an x-ray as a placebo. The problem with this is:

a)

The exam is without specific efficacy

b)

The images will not be diagnostic

c)

The technologist should have refused performing the exam

61.

Radiation can come in 2 forms: subatomic particles and electromagnetic waves

a)

True

b)

False

62.

How is non-ionizing radiation different from ionizing radiation?

a)

Has greater kinetic energy, disrupting more electrons

b)

Lacks the kinetic energy to eject electrons from an atom

c)

One is particulate and one is electromagnetic radiation

d)

Non-ionizing causes more biologic damage

63.

What are the 3 categories of natural radiation?

4 lines
64.

What is the purpose of B.E.R.T?

4 lines
65.

Absorption of radiation causes more damage to an organic molecule in the absence of oxygen

a)

True

b)

False

66.

When ___ cells are irradiated, the damage appears in the irradiated individual.

a)

Somatic

b)

Reproductive

c)

Germ

d)

Epithelial

67.

_____ action is more likely to occur after exposure to high-LET radiation.

a)

Direct

b)

Indirect

c)

Multidirectional

d)

No

68.

Alpha particles are an example of ___ radiation.

a)

High-LET

b)

Low-LET

c)

Non-ionizing

d)

Electromagnetic

69.

____ radiation causes few ionizations over a long distance.

a)

Low-LET

b)

High-LET

70.

What are the primary 2 substances that produce biologic damage directly after  radiation interacts with water?

a)

Hydrogen radical

b)

Bleach

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Hydroperoxyl radical

71.

Select all that are true about nucleic acids.

a)

Comprise 1% of the cell

b)

Consist of 2 types: DNA & RNA

c)

Comprise 10% of the cell

d)

Consists of 3 types: Lipids, proteins, carbohydrates

72.

What type of chromosome damage appears in the image?

a)

Broken end re-arrangement without visible damage

b)

Deletion

c)

Restitution

d)

Mutation

73.

Following irradiating, the following occurs. Which type of DNA damage is present in the image?

a)

Mutation

b)

Covalent Cross-link

c)

Single strand break

d)

Deletion

74.

Describe the Target Theory.

4 lines
75.

Normally, humans have ___pairs of chromosomes in each somatic cell.

a)

46

b)

23

c)

33

d)

21

76.

What are considered the 'basic units of heredity'?

a)

Centromere

b)

Chromosomes

c)

Atoms

d)

Genes

77.

DNA stands for:

a)

Deoxyribbon antibodies

b)

Duplicated ribonucleic acid

c)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

d)

Detection neutral anaylysis

78.

Select purine nitrogenous bases.

a)

Adenine

b)

Guanine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Thymine

79.

Students follow the same dose limits as which group?

a)

Members of public

b)

Radiation workers

c)

No dose limit

d)

Pregnant radiation workers

80.

The annual whole body dose limit for radiation workers is:

a)

20mSv

b)

40mSv

c)

10mSv

d)

4mSv

81.

Radiation workers who are likely to risk receiving ___% or more of the annual occupational EfD limit of 20mSv in any single year are required to be issued a dosimeter

a)

25%

b)

10%

c)

1%

d)

5%

82.

Biologic tissue is less sensitive to radiation when it is exposed under oxygenated conditions

a)

True

b)

False

83.

RBE stands for:

a)

Real Biological Effect

b)

Relative Biological Effectiveness

c)

Random Biologic Effect

d)

Relative Beam Energy

84.

This type of dosimeter uses lithium fluoride crystals as the detecting material

a)

TLD

b)

OSLD

c)

Pocket Ionization Chamber

d)

Cutie Pie

85.

This type of personnel dosimeter is read by a laser light and can undergo re-analysis to confirm radiation exposure received

a)

TLD

b)

OSLD

c)

Pocket Ionization Chamber

d)

GM Survey Meter

86.

What does the shoulder portion of the cell survival curve for low-LET radiation exposure indicate?

4 lines
87.

When ___ cells are irradiated, the damage appears in the irradiated individual.

a)

Somatic

b)

Reproductive

c)

Germ

d)

Epithelial

88.

Hematopoietic Syndrome occurs when dose to ionizing radiation falls between what range?

a)

Whole body dose of 1-10Gy

b)

Whole body dose of 5-10 Gy

c)

Whole body dose of 2-6Gy

d)

Whole body dose of 10+ Gy

89.

Which is the most sensitive vital organ system?

a)

Cerebrovascular

b)

Gastrointestinal

c)

Hematopoietic

d)

Musculoskeletal

90.

A high pitch, such as a pitch of >1, results in higher patient dose.

a)

True

b)

False

91.

Select all that are symptoms of early tissue reactions

a)

Nausea

b)

Epilation

c)

Erythema

d)

Cataracts

92.

Early tissue reactions occur within ____of exposure.

a)

Minutes, hours, days, or weeks

b)

Weeks, months or years

c)

Months or years

d)

Minutes or hours

93.

As dose increases, severity of early somatic effects _____.

a)

Decreases

b)

Has no effect

c)

Increases

94.

A dose of 0.5-1Gy will have which effect on lymphocytes?

a)

Cell count will drop to 0 within a few days

b)

No effect, lymphocytes are radioinsensitive

c)

Cell count will increase initially, then drastically decrease

d)

Cell count will decline by 50%

95.

The window of maximum sensitivity of nerve cells in an embryo-fetus is:

a)

35-40 weeks

b)

8-15 weeks

c)

4-8 weeks

d)

15-20 weeks

96.

A dose of ___Gy may cause temporary sterility in males and females

a)

0.5Gy

b)

2Gy

c)

4Gy

d)

>1Gy

97.

Epithelial cells are considered radiosensitive....T or F

a)

True

b)

False

98.

What is the threshold for Gastrointestinal Syndrome?

a)

10Gy

b)

2Gy

c)

4Gy

d)

6Gy

99.

What dose is required in order for Cerebrovascular Syndrome to occur?

a)

60 Gy

b)

50Gy

c)

40Gy

d)

10Gy

100.

Death occurs within a few hours to 2-3 days after exposure with Gastrointestinal Syndrome (T or F)

a)

True

b)

False

101.

A period of calm where symptoms are not visible is known as the ____response stage of ARS

a)

Manifest Ilness

b)

Latent

c)

Prodromal

d)

Transitional

102.

What impact does filtration have on patient dose?

a)

Removes photons leaving the patient and decreases IR exposure

b)

Removes scatter radiation but increases dose

c)

Removes high energy photons that increase dose

d)

Removes low energy photons that increase dose

103.

Which syndrome of ARS do the following symptoms indicate? Shock, lethargy, seizure, ataxia, agitation, and cranial vault edema.

a)

Hematopoietic

b)

Respiratory

c)

Cerebrovascular

d)

Gastrointestinal

104.

Individuals usually die within 3-10 days after exposure in this particular syndrome.

a)

Gastrointestinal

b)

Cerebrovascular

c)

Hematopoietic

d)

Bone Marrow

105.

The threshold dose for hematopoietic syndrome is 2Gy

a)

True

b)

False

106.

LD 50/60 indicates lethal dose_____.

a)

of 50mGy for 60% of population

b)

for 50% of population within 6 months

c)

within 50 days for 60% of population

d)

for 50% of population within 60 days

107.

Oxygenated cells repair themselves more efficiently than hypoxic cells

a)

True

b)

False

108.

What types of effects are presumed to follow the non- threshold linear quadratic dose response curve?

a)

Leukemia

b)

Breast Cancer

c)

Cataracts

d)

Most types of cancer

109.

10% of radiation induced damage is irreparable

a)

True

b)

False

110.

What is the first step in the protection of reproductive organs?

a)

Increase SID

b)

Colimitation

c)

Technical factors

d)

Lead shielding

111.

Periodic blood counts are still used to monitor occupational dose received by radiation workers

a)

True

b)

False

112.

ARS is what type of effect?

a)

Early stochastic

b)

Early somatic

c)

Late non-stochastic

d)

Late stochastic

113.

Late effects are the greatest concern when regarding what type of radiation?

a)

Low-Level

b)

High-Level

c)

Non-ionizing

d)

All ionizing

114.

Select all that are types of late non-stochastic/tissue reactions

a)

Cancer

b)

Birth defects

c)

Cataracts

d)

Nausea, vomiting

115.

What types of effects are presumed to follow the non-linear threshold dose response curve?

a)

Hematologic depression

b)

Skin Erythema

c)

Cataracts

d)

Genetic damage

e)

Most types of cancer

116.

Stochastic means that biological effect increases in severity as the dose increases

a)

True

b)

False

117.

A common radiation related injury of radium watch-dial painters was:

a)

Cancers to face, neck & bone

b)

Breast cancer

c)

Leukemia

d)

Liver and spleen cancer

118.

How long after irradiation does it take for late effects to show?

a)

Months or years

b)

Years

c)

Weeks or months

d)

10-15 years

119.

What effect does an increase of kVp by 15% have on the exposure?

a)

Half

b)

Triple

c)

Double

d)

1.5x

120.

Which formula should be used to calculate the change in mAs required whenever SID needs to be changed, if you do not want an associated decrease in density?

a)

Inverse Square Law

b)

Exposure Maintenance Formula

c)

kVp Maintenance Formula

d)

ESE Formula

121.

What effect does an increase in filtration have on patient dose?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

122.

True or False: Computer processing can produce acceptable images even when the image is infact significantly overexposed

a)

True

b)

False

123.

If the source-to-object distance increases, what effect will this have on patient dose?

a)

Increased dose

b)

Decreased dose

124.

Increasing kVp will have what effect on patient dose?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

Negligible

125.

Select all that are true about the Inverse Square Law is correct?

a)

I1I2=D22D12\frac{I_1}{I_2}=\frac{D_2^2}{D_1^2}  

b)

Intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the source

c)

Intensity of radiation is directly proportional to the square of the distance from the source

d)

I1I2=D12D22\frac{I_1}{I_2}=\frac{D_1^2}{D_2^2}  

126.

Where does leakage radiation emerge from?

a)

The patient

b)

Tube housing

c)

X-ray tube collimator

d)

The crust of the earth

127.

Where is a primary protective barrier located?

a)

Parallel to the line of travel of the x-ray beam

b)

Perpendicular to the deflected line of travel of the xray beam

c)

Perpendicular to the line of travel of the x-ray beam

128.

What are the walls that are not in the direct line of travel of the primary beam classified as?

a)

Secondary barriers

b)

Primary barriers

c)

Tertiary barriers

d)

Occupational barriers

129.

What thickness of lead is required for secondary barriers?

a)

1/16"

b)

1/32"

c)

1/4"

d)

1.5"

130.

X-rays should scatter a minimum of how many times before reaching the area behind the control panel?

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

131.

What is the first step that should be taken to protect a patient from unnecessary dose?

a)

Lead shielding

b)

Appropriate technical factors

c)

Correct collimation

d)

Reduce number of images

132.

1mm lead contact shield reduces male gonadal exposure by how much?

a)

50-60%

b)

90-95%

c)

50%

d)

70-75%

133.

What landmark should be used when placing a male contact shield?

a)

2.5" medial to ASIS

b)

Greater trochanter (for Pubic Symphysis)

c)

Lesser Tubercle (for Pubic Symphysis)

d)

1" medial to ASIS

134.

What is the proper lead equivalency for lead gloves?

a)

0.5mm

b)

0.45mm

c)

0.35mm

d)

0.25mm

135.

If death occurs following exposure to radiation, the cause is usually:

a)

Dehydration of cells

b)

Infection & internal hemorrhage

c)

Depletion of Leukocytes

d)

Anemia, electrolyte imbalance and shock

136.

What distance should the radiographer stand from the patient and x-ray tube during an exposure?

a)

1 meters

b)

2 meters

c)

3 meters

d)

6 meters

137.

It is permissible for the radiographer to stand in the useful beam only when restraining a patient.

a)

True

b)

False

138.

What type of radiation poses the greatest occupational hazard in radiology?

a)

Primary beam

b)

Scatter

c)

Absorbed

139.

Select the benefit of a repeat analysis program.

a)

Causes an increase in patient exposures

b)

Helps minimize patient exposure by improving performance

c)

Creates overly high standards

d)

Increases awareness of need for optimal images

140.

What is the ideal number of lead shields that should be assigned to a portable?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

None needed

141.

What is the lead equivalent required for the protective lead curtain on a fluoroscopic unit?

a)

1 mm

b)

.25mm

c)

.5mm

d)

.35mm

142.

What arrangement of a portable fluoro unit (C-arm) results in lowest dose to patient and personnel?

a)

Tube under table

b)

Tube over table

143.

What is the correct definition of pitch?

a)

Distance table travels in one 360 degree gantry rotation

b)

Amount of gantry rotation per inch of table movement

c)

Amount of dose used per gantry rotation

144.

On average, children require what change to technical factors during an x-ray exam?

a)

25% decrease mAs

b)

15% increase mAs

c)

25% decrease in kVP

d)

15% decrease in kVp