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E2 Neurology

Total questions: 91

Worksheet time: 2hrs 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(Select multiple) NON-modifiable stroke risk factors

a)

Smoking

b)

Age

c)

Low birth weight

d)

Ethnicity

2.

What effect of low birth weight is a notable contributor to stroke risk?

a)

Delayed Nephrogenesis

b)

Necrotizing Enterocolitis (NEC)

c)

Sleep apnea of the premature

d)

Large birth weight

3.

(True/False) Transient Ischemic Attacks can often predict future strokes.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Best definition for a penumbra regarding stroke?

a)

The area surrounding the darkest point of a shadow

b)

An area of potentially savable tissue if revascularized

c)

The unsavable tissue in an ischemic infarction

d)

The area directly targeted by alteplase (tPA)

5.

You're asked to treat a SAH. What do you use?

a)

Nicardipine

b)

Nifedipine

c)

Nimodipine

d)

Ticlodipine

6.

Select the 3 major manifestations of hemorrhagic stroke.

a)

Major darkened areas on MRI/CT

b)

Headache w/o loss of consciousness

c)

Headache w loss of consciousness

d)

Sudden lapse of consciousness

7.

(Select both) What are the primary glial cells of the CNS?

a)

astrocytes

b)

Schwann cells

c)

oligodendrocytes

d)

Bands

8.

What is the primary glial cell of the PNS?

a)

Schwann cells

b)

oligodendrocytes

c)

astrocytes

d)

CD52 expressing cells

9.

(Select both) Choose the best mechanisms of interneurons

a)

CNS - excitatory - glutamate and acetylcholine

b)

CNS - excitatory - carbidopa and levidopa

c)

PNS - inhibitory - GABA and glycine

d)

PNS - excitatory - GABA and glycine

10.

Choose the correct definition of seizure propagation

a)

The breakdown of normal function in multiple areas and hyper-synchronization causing excessive excitation

b)

A single seizure lasting >5 min

c)

Two seizures within 5 min w/o a return to normal

d)

1-2 min of tonic-clonic movements

11.

(Select both) What is the definition of Status Epilepticus (StEp)

a)

The breakdown of normal function in multiple areas and hyper-synchronization causing excessive excitation

b)

A single seizure lasting >5 min

c)

Two seizures w/in 5 min w/o a return to normal

d)

1-2 min of tonic-clonic movements

12.

(Select 3) Choose the best order of treating Status Epilepticus (StEp)

a)

Immediate termination with an AED

b)

Immediate termination with parenteral benzo

c)

Prevention/Loading with Keppra, Fosphenytoin, or VPA

d)

Control if necessary with an AED

13.

What drugs are useable for Absence Seizures?

a)

VPA, Phenytoin, Keppra

b)

Ethosuximide, Phenytoin, Keppra

c)

VPA, Ethosuximide, Lamotrigine

d)

Lamotrigine, Carbamazepine, Oxcarbazepine

14.

What is the only type of seizures Carbamazepine can't be used for?

a)

Absence

b)

Tonic-clonic

c)

Generalized

d)

Focal

15.

(Select 2) What drugs inhibit T-type Ca channels?

a)

Ethosuximide

b)

Depakene

c)

Tegretol

d)

Oxcarbazepine

16.

What drugs slow the rate of voltage gated Na channels?

a)

Depacon, Topamax, Zonisamide

b)

Ativan, Versed, Gabapentin

c)

Abbath, Demonaz, Iscariah

d)

Felbamate, Shingrix, Lyrica

17.

What is the dosing for IV Ativan for seizure cessation?

a)

0.1 mg/kg to a max of 4 mg

b)

0.2 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg

c)

20 mg PE/kg to a max of 150 mg PE/min

d)

20-40 mg/kg @ 3-6 mg/kg/min

18.

What is the dosing of IM Versed for seizure cessation?

a)

0.1 mg/kg to a max of 4 mg

b)

0.2 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg

c)

20 mg PE/kg to a max of 150 mg PE/min

d)

20-40 mg/kg @ 3-6 mg/kg/min

19.

What is the dosing of fosphenytoin for seizure cessation?

a)

0.2 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg

b)

20 mg PE/kg to a max of 150 mg PE/min

c)

20-40 mg/kg @ 3-6 mg/kg/min

d)

20-40 mg/kg @ 1.5-3 mg/kg/min

20.

What is the dosing of Depacon for Pediatric seizure cessation

a)

0.1 mg/kg to a max of 4 mg

b)

0.2 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg

c)

20-40 mg/kg @ 1.5-3 mg/kg/min

d)

20-40 mg/kg @ 3-6 mg/kg/min

21.

What is the dosing of Depacon for Adult seizure cessation

a)

0.1 mg/kg to a max of 4 mg

b)

0.2 mg/kg to a max of 10 mg

c)

20-40 mg/kg @ 1.5-3 mg/kg/min

d)

20-40 mg/kg @ 3-6 mg/kg/min

22.

After loading someone with Keppra, how will they appear?

a)

Sleepy and confused

b)

Angry and combative

c)

Unbalanced

d)

Ready for Med History to come ask questions

23.

(Select multiple) Select the correct options for Pediatric Focal seizures

a)

A - Oxcarbazepine

b)

B - Ethosuximide

c)

C - Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, VPA, phenobarbital

d)

D - Zonisamide and Lamotrigine

24.

What are the preferred loading AEDs for pregnant people?

a)

Valproate

b)

Lamotrigine or Keppra

c)

Phenytoin and Phenobarbital

d)

Spironolactone

25.

What is a major ADE for phenytoin/fosphenytoin?

a)

Intracranial hemorrhage

b)

MAO overactivity concurrent with cocaine use

c)

Cytokine storm

d)

Cerebrum and Vestibular toxicity

26.

What are the preferred (A) AEDs for Adult Focal?

a)

Gabapentin and Lamotrigine

b)

Carbamazepine, Keppra, Phenytoin, Zonisamide

c)

Clonazepam and Primidone

d)

Ethosuximide and VPA

27.

(Select multiple) What are some alternatives for Adult Focal seizures?

a)

B - Valproate

b)

C - Carbamazepine

c)

C - GABA, phenobarbital, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine

d)

D - Topamax, Valproate

28.

(Select multiple) What are the top two categories for Elderly Focal seizures?

a)

A - Gabapentin and lamotrigine

b)

C - Carbamazepine

c)

C - Gabapentin and Carbamazepine

d)

D - Zonisamide

29.

(Select multiple) What are some good options for generalized seizures?

a)

carbamazepine

b)

VPA and phenobarbital

c)

ethosuximide and vigatraban

d)

Topamax

30.

What are the three primary ADEs for Carbamazepine?

a)

SJS, severe hyponatremia, CBZE toxicity

b)

Cerebrum or vestibular toxicity

c)

Renal calculus

d)

Urge to attend pharmacy school

31.

If using VPA, (select two)

a)

Half phenobarbital doses

b)

Half phenytoin doses

c)

Do not use VPA

d)

Prefer Oxcarbazepine over carbamazepine

32.

Aside from SJS and insomnia, what is ethosuximide's main ADE?

a)

Blood dyscrasia (e.g. anemia)

b)

Hyponatremia

c)

SIADH

d)

metabolic acidosis

33.

Select Valproate's major considerations

a)

Hepatotoxicity

b)

Severe birth defects

c)

Thrombocytopenia

d)

Malignancy

34.

Best drug for neonatal seizures?

a)

Phenobarbital

b)

Valproic acid

c)

Keppra

d)

Brivaracetam

35.

Select the preferred indications for anticoagulants

a)

Warfarin - valve replacement

b)

Warfarin - primary stroke prevention without AFib

c)

Xarelto - can't keep up with more than one pill per day

36.

(Select Multiple) When is a higher INR goal used for replaced valves and TE risk reduction?

a)

Higher risk valve type (Mechanical)

b)

Higher risk valve placement (Mitral)

c)

Thrombocytopenic patients

d)

Younger patients

37.

What anticoag regimen is used for valve replacements?

a)

Aspirin with or without warfarin only

b)

Aspirin and Plavix

c)

Any DOAC

d)

Idarucizumab

38.

When can a thrombolytic be used?

a)

Intracranial hemorrhage is confirmed

b)

Patient is presenting 6 hrs after symptom onset

c)

bp >185/110

d)

Intracranial hemorrhage is ruled out

39.

For which of the following can tPA be used?

a)

Transient Ischemic Attack

b)

Stroke with hypertensive crisis

c)

Blocked un-bursted vessels in the brain

d)

Stroke following a previous stroke a month ago

40.

(Select multiple) What are some more contraindications for alteplase?

a)

Thrombocytopenia or active major bleeding

b)

Significant injury to head or malformation

c)

NIH stroke scale @ 26

d)

Severe hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia

41.

What is the initial dosing for alteplase?

a)

0.9 mg/kg up to 90 mg (100 kg)

b)

2 mg/kg to a max of 4 mg

c)

500 mg PR

d)

6

42.

(Select multiple) Choose some of the following recommendations after tPA is used

a)

Delay Aspirin for 24 hrs

b)

Neuro exams every 15 minutes until 2 hrs post-infusion

c)

CT/MRI after 24 hrs and before giving anticoag

d)

Immediate heparin

43.

(Select multiple) Choose the correct times to use a bp med before tPA can be used.

a)

Heart failure - Clevidipine

b)

COPD - Cardene or Clevidipine

c)

High Triglycerides - Clevidipine

d)

CCB hypersensitivity - Normodyne

44.

(Select multiple) What are some acceptable secondary prevention drugs when indicated?

a)

Ticlodipine or Ticagrelor

b)

Statins

c)

Aspirin, Aggrenox, or Plavix

d)

ACE, ARB, Thiazide diuretics

45.

Post-stroke, is primary or secondary prevention used?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Both?

d)

None

46.

Which cardioembolism anticoag isn't adjusted for renal function directly but is complicated by an SCr >= 1.5?

a)

Edoxaban (Savaysa)

b)

Brilinta

c)

Plavix

d)

Eliquis

47.

Which major cardioembolism anticoag is dosed once a day?

a)

Xarelto

b)

Plavix

c)

Pradaxa

48.

How does pharmacy treat hemorrhagic stroke?

a)

Lots of Aspirin and Plavix

b)

Alteplase!

c)

Both of the above

d)

None, can't really do anything

49.

What is the general first line for Parkinson's?

a)

Rasagiline

b)

Pramipexole

c)

Carbidopa/Levodopa

d)

Botox

50.

What is the 1st action towards low response to Carbidopa/Levidopa?

a)

Decrease dosing frequency

b)

Add a MAO-B drug

c)

Increase dosing frequency

d)

Increase dosing strength

51.

What best describes MAO-B inhibitors used for Parkinson's?

a)

Pramipexole, Ropinirole, Rotigotine

b)

Not Rasagiline, Selegiline, or Safinamide

c)

Less efficacy and less dyskinesia compared to Carbidopa-Levidopa

d)

No risk of serotonin syndrome

52.

What are the primary ADE of dopamine agonists (e.g. pramipexole, ropinirole)?

a)

Orthostatic hypotension and intense nausea

b)

C. diff diarrhea

c)

Murderous rage

d)

Exacerbated motor symptoms

53.

What SQ pen is used for Parkinson's severe freezing episodes?

a)

Dulaglutide

b)

Novolog FlexPen

c)

Apomorphine

d)

Somapacitan-beco

54.

What is the primary purpose of Amantadine for Parkinson's?

a)

Reducing Carbidopa-Levidopa's dyskinesia

b)

Reducing need for istradefylline

c)

Making tolcapone a viable option

d)

Increasing orthostatic hypotension risks

55.

Select the incorrect match

a)

Rasagiline - MAO-B inhibitor

b)

Rotigotine - Dopamine Agonist

c)

Carbidopa-Levidopa - COMT inhibitor

d)

Istradefylline - Adenosine A2A blocker

56.

Which definition is incorrect?

a)

On Period - patient experiences good response to meds

b)

Off Period - symptoms emerge while on meds

c)

Motor fluctuations - a patient is wavering between on and off periods

d)

Dyskinesia - a seizure that begins in one part of the brain and spreads to another

57.

(Select multiple) Check the counseling points for carbidopa-levidopa

a)

You may be taking this more than three times a day

b)

Take on an empty stomach

c)

Don't stop without talking to your doctor

d)

Controlled release or ER forms are first line

58.

What are some problems of dopamine agonists like ropinirole?

a)

Melanoma risk and prolonged use necessary for benefits

b)

Highest risk of motor complications

c)

Brand choices can be cheap

d)

Not available at specialty pharmacies

59.

Why is tolcapone such a bad drug and not to be used?

a)

Frequent recalls

b)

Intense renal toxicity

c)

Fulminant hepatic failure

d)

Blepharitis

60.

What are the more severe side effects of amantadine?

a)

Fulminant hepatic failure

b)

Acute Kidney Injury

c)

Hallucinations and edema

d)

Superinfection

61.

When could amantadine, MAO-B inhibitors, and dopamine agonists be first line

a)

>65 years

b)

Severe motor symptoms

c)

<65 years, mild motor symptoms or only tremor

d)

Prone to C. diff diarrhea

62.

Select the correct meaning of SCME

a)

Sensory Creative Manipulative Executive

b)

Sensory Cognitive Motor Executive

c)

Schwann Cells Mediate Everything

63.

Which of the following is not helpful for MS patients?

a)

Basal corticosteroid prophylaxis

b)

Vitamin D supplements

c)

Nicotine cessation

d)

Early diagnosis

64.

General, basic treatment for MS flares

a)

Hydrocortisone cream

b)

Prophylactic antibiotics

c)

High dose short term corticosteroids

d)

Glatiramer po

65.

What best describes primary progressive MS (PPMS)?

a)

An episode lasting >24 hours detectable by MRI

b)

Distinguishable attacks and remissions; the most common diagnosis

c)

Continuously worsening neuro function

66.

What best describes relapsing-remitting MS (RRMS)?

a)

An episode lasting >24 hours detectable by MRI

b)

Distinguishable attacks and remissions; the most common diagnosis

c)

Continuously worsening neuro function

67.

What best describes Clinically Isolated Syndrome (CIS)?

a)

An episode lasting >24 hours detectable by MRI

b)

Distinguishable attacks and remissions; the most common diagnosis

c)

Continuously worsening neuro function

68.

Select all cells that play a role in MS

a)

Th1 and Th17

b)

CD52+ CD4+ T cells

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Oligodendrocytes

69.

A patient with a current MS attack isn't responding to high dose steroids. What do you recommend?

a)

Hydrocortisone cream

b)

Glatiramer STAT

c)

Corticotropin (ACTH)

d)

Mitxantrone

70.

Which of the following poses a threat to most MS therapies?

a)

John Cunningham Virus

b)

Hepatitis A

c)

Ebola

71.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding DMTs for MS?

a)

Effect could take 1-2 years of use

b)

Interferons (IFNs), glatiramer, and terifulnomide are reasonable for CIS

c)

Natalizumab holds the highest risk of JCV

d)

Spasticity is rare and unlikely for MS

72.

What is considered first line for MS-related gait disruption and weakness?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Dalfampridine

c)

SSRIs or TCAs

d)

Propranolol

73.

What is considered first line for MS-related Fatigue?

a)

Amantadine

b)

Dalfampridine

c)

SSRIs or TCAs

d)

Propranolol

74.

Which of the following isn't a consideration for interferon (IFN) use for MS?

a)

First dose needs to be at an HCP's office

b)

Complications with depression

c)

Transient hypersensitivity

d)

Flulike symptoms requiring NSAIDs and potentially steroids

75.

What 1st gen MS drug has the least side effects with the exception of a transient hypersensitivity?

a)

Mitoxantrone

b)

Interferon 1b

c)

Peginterferon beta-1a

d)

Glatiramer

76.

Select all of the considerations for Mitoxantrone

a)

Significant immunosuppression and leukemia

b)

Hepato- and cardiotoxicity

c)

Infertility

d)

Alopecia

77.

Which of the following is a first dose only concern for 2nd gen MS drugs and is the reason most are given in an office despite being a tablet?

a)

Intense bradycardia

b)

Macular edema

c)

Skin cancer

d)

Infection

78.

What is the contraindication for most of the -mod drugs for MS?

a)

Macular edema

b)

Concurrent steroid use

c)

Drug abuse

d)

Major cardiovascular problems

79.

Which MS drug has a contraindicated for certain CYP 2C9 polymorphs?

a)

Siponimod

b)

Natalizumab

c)

Teriflunomide

d)

Dimethyl fumarate

80.

What MS drug can't be given to those wishing to be pregnant within 2 years?

a)

Teriflunomide

b)

Siponimod

c)

Corticotropin (ACTH)

d)

Nicorette

81.

Check all of the side effects for dimethyl fumarate and diroximel fumarate

a)

Flushing

b)

Hepatotoxicity

c)

Cardiotoxicity

d)

1st dose bradycardia

82.

Which of the following may not be a consideration for MS -mab drugs?

a)

Listeria infection with Alemtuzumab (Lemtrada)

b)

Latent infection risk like TB, JCV, or Hep B

c)

Highest risk of PML (JCV) with Natalizumab (Tysabri)

d)

Multiple doses per day

83.

What is the correct consideration for Cladribine for MS use?

a)

Lymphocyte count increase

b)

Not separated from other drugs by 3 hours

c)

Frequent dosing

d)

Warnings for malignancy, teratogenicity, and herpes prophylaxis when leukopenic

84.

Select the incorrect drug-mechanism

a)

Ocrelizumab (Ocrevus) - anti-CD20 and anti-B cells

b)

Alemtuzumab (Lemtrada) - anti-CD52

c)

Natalizumab (Tysabri) - anti-CD8

d)

Natalizumab (Tysabri) - reduces leukocyte transmission to brain

85.

Select the incorrect drug-mechanism

a)

Mitoxantrone - topoisomerase II inhibitor

b)

Dimethyl and Diroximel fumarate - antioxidative

c)

Cladribine - CD8 and CD4 promoter

d)

Fingolimod (Gilenya) - activated lymphocyte release blocker

86.

Select the 3 side effects for baclofen

a)

Lower seizure threshold

b)

hyponatremia

c)

Sedation

d)

Cognitive dysfunction

87.

Which two spasticity drugs have considerable hepatic warnings?

a)

baclofen

b)

tizanidine

c)

dantrolene

d)

botox

88.

What is the standard progression of therapy regarding spasticity?

a)

Baclofen, Tizanidine, Gabapentin, Diazepam

b)

Baclofen, Diazepam, Tizanidine, Gabapentin

c)

Diazepam, Ativan, Lorazepam, Valium

d)

Diazepam, Gabapentin, Glatiramer, Baclofen

89.

Which spasticity drugs can't be used after a recent stroke?

a)

Gabapentin and Diazepam

b)

Botox and Diazepam

c)

Baclofen and Tizanidine

d)

Dantrolene and Diazepam

90.

What is inhibited by drugs like tolcapone and entacapone?

a)

The entry of carbidopa into the brain

b)

conversion of levodopa to an inactive metabolite

c)

Subtantia nigra darkening

d)

Extrapyramidal movement

91.

What group of drugs is most helpful for Parkinson's extrapyramidal movements (e.g. jerks and tremors)

a)

Anticholinergics

b)

MAO-B inhibitors

c)

COMT inhibitors

d)

ACE inhibitors