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Pharmacology final Study guide

Total questions: 89

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is pharmacology?

a)

Study of drugs

b)

Study of plants

c)

Study of living things

2.

What is the suffix in the word "pharmacology"?

a)

Pharmaco-

b)

-logy

3.

What is an Anti-inflammatory drug?

a)

a drug or medicine used to reduce inflammation

b)

a drug or medicine used to relieve pain

4.

What is a "pain killer" medicine?

a)

a drug or medicine used to relieve pain

b)

a drug or medicine used to reduce inflammation

5.

"Panadol" is related to which class of drugs?

a)

Pain killers

b)

Antibiotics

6.

"Megamox" is related to which class of drugs?

a)

Pain killers

b)

Antibiotics

7.

Why we may need to use "Claritine"?

a)

to treat allergies and reactions to bites and stings

b)

To relief pain

c)

To reduce inflammation

8.

Which one is "brand" name for a drug?

a)

panadol

b)

Paracetamol

9.

Which is a "generic" name for a drug?

a)

Claritine

b)

Loratidine

10.

Why do we use "antibiotics"?

a)

To treat bacterial infections

b)

To treat viral infections

c)

To treat parasitic infections

d)

To treat fungal infections

11.
Elevates mood
a)
Antiasthmatics
b)
Antidepressants
c)
Hormones
d)
Antipyretics
12.
Reduces Pain
a)
Antiemetics
b)
Analgesics
c)
Thrombolytics
d)
Antipyretics
13.
Elevates mood
a)
Antiasthmatics
b)
Antidepressants
c)
Hormones
d)
Antipyretics
14.
Reduces Pain
a)
Antiemetics
b)
Analgesics
c)
Thrombolytics
d)
Antipyretics
15.
Manages nausea, vomiting and motion sickness
a)
Calcium channel blockers
b)
Antiemetics
c)
Anticholinergics
d)
Antiasthmatics
16.
Prevents blood from clotting
a)
Anticoagulants
b)
Thrombolytics
c)
Antiplatelets
d)
Bronchodilators
17.
Decreases swelling
a)
Antiinflammatories
b)
Antipyretics
c)
Antifungals
d)
Immunosuppressants
18.
Relieves allergy symptoms;treats anaphylaxis
a)
Anticholinergics
b)
Antihistamines
c)
Beta-blockers
d)
NSAIDs
19.

hypoglycemic

a)

metformin

b)

furosemide

c)

atorvastatin

d)

ciprofloxacin

20.

antihypertensive

a)

furosemide

b)

zolpidem

c)

gabapentin

d)

lisinopril

21.

anticonvulsant

a)

gabapentin

b)

lisinopril

c)

acetaminophen

d)

atorvastatin

22.

antivirals

a)

acyclovir

b)

fluconazole

c)

ibuprofen

d)

clonazepam

23.

anxiolytics (antianxiety)

a)

ibuprofen

b)

linsinopril

c)

clonidine

d)

lorazepam

24.

Drugs with which have medical use and the lowest potential for dependency

a)

Schedule I

b)

Schedule III

c)

Schedule IV

d)

Schedule V

25.
The Controlled Substances act classifies drugs according to...
a)
potential for abuse
b)
potential for dependence
c)
medical value
d)
all of these
26.

Substances in this schedule have no currently accepted medical use in the United States, a lack of accepted safety for use under medical supervision, and a high potential for abuse.

Some examples of substances are: heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), peyote, meth, and “Ecstasy”.

a)

schedule I

b)

schedule II

c)

schedule III

d)

schedule IV

e)

schedule V

27.

Substances in this schedule have a high potential for abuse which may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence. Some have medicinal usage.


Examples of these narcotics include: hydromorphone (Dilaudid), methadone (Dolophine), meperidine (Demerol), oxycodone (OxyContin, Percocet), fentanyl (Sublimaze, Duragesic), morphine, opium, and codeine.

a)

schedule I

b)

schedule II

c)

schedule III

d)

schedule IV

e)

schedule V

28.
Under what circumstances could a person be receiving a schedule 2 drug?
a)
Never
b)
When given a prescription
c)
With a valid photo id over the counter
d)
While they are in the hospital
29.
Position?
a)
Trendelenburg
b)
low fowler's
c)
semi fowler's 
d)
high fowler's
30.
Position?
a)
 Trendelenburg
b)
sim's
c)
Reverse Trendelenburg
d)
fowler's
31.
Position?
a)
Lithotomy
b)
dorsal recumbent
c)
jacknife
d)
knee chest
32.
Position?
a)
prone
b)
jacknife
c)
sim's
d)
supine
33.

STAT

a)

immediately

b)

yesterday

c)

tomorrow

34.

erythro-

a)

red

b)

white

c)

blue

d)

black

35.

cyano-

a)

red

b)

white

c)

blue

d)

black

36.

leuko-

a)

red

b)

white

c)

blue

d)

black

37.

necro- & melano-

a)

red

b)

white

c)

blue

d)

black

38.

gtt

a)

teaspoon

b)

mililliter

c)

drop

d)

Tablespoon

39.

tsp

a)

teaspoon

b)

Tablespoon

c)

drops

40.

BID

a)

every day

b)

twice a day

c)

three times a day

d)

four times a day

41.

qd

a)

every hour

b)

every minute

c)

every second

d)

every day

42.

PO

a)

below the tongue

b)

in the cheek

c)

by mouth

43.

IV

a)

intravenous

b)

intramuscular

c)

intradermal

d)

subcutaneous

44.

IM

a)

intravenous

b)

intramuscular

c)

intraderal

d)

subcutaneous

45.

TID or tid

a)

once a day

b)

twice a day

c)

three times a day

d)

four times a day

46.

5 ml =

a)

1 teaspoon (tsp)

b)

?

47.

15 ml =

a)

1 TBSP (Tablespoon

b)

?

48.

Which of the following classifications of medications can be used as a calcium supplement?

a)

Antidiarrhea

b)

Antacid

c)

Antinausea

d)

PPI's

49.

Which of the following is NOT an antidiarrheal?

a)

Pectin

b)

Diphenoxylate

c)

Pepcid

d)

Immodium

50.

Which of the following is NOT an antiemetic

a)

Antihistamine

b)

Cannabinoid

c)

5-HT3 Receptor Antagonists

d)

Tums

51.

Pernicious anemia is when your blood is lacking?

a)

Iron

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Folate

d)

Vitamin d

52.

What does triple therapy treat?

a)

PUD

b)

GERD

c)

IBS

d)

Diverticulitis

53.

In a patient with a history of gastric bypass. Vitamin b12 should be given by what route?

a)

IV

b)

PO

c)

SL

d)

Any way

54.

tid

a)

Three times a day

b)

Two times a day

c)

Four times a day

d)

Give now

55.

o.d.

a)

left eye

b)

both eyes

c)

right eye

d)

right ear

56.

Before meals

a)

a.d.

b)

os

c)

a.c.

d)

p.c.

57.

subcutaneous

a)

SC

b)

ST

c)

suc

d)

c

58.

o.s.

a)

Left Eye

b)

Left ear

c)

Right Eye

d)

Right Ear

59.

a.d.

a)

Both eyes

b)

Both ears

c)

Right ear

d)

Left ear

60.

qid

a)

Four times a day

b)

Three times a day

c)

Every day

d)

Every other day

61.

Both Eyes

a)

o.u.

b)

a.u.

c)

o.d.

d)

a.d.

62.

Left ear

a)

a.d.

b)

o.s.

c)

o.d.

d)

a.s.

63.

As Needed

a)

NPO

b)

PRN

c)

PO

d)

PPN

64.

p.c.

a)

Left eye

b)

Right eye

c)

Before Meals

d)

After meals

65.

Two times a day

a)

BID

b)

TID

c)

QID

d)

BPN

66.

PRN

a)

As needed

b)

By mouth

c)

Every day

d)

At bedtime

67.

Intradermal

a)

IM

b)

ID

c)

IT

d)

IA

68.

By mouth

a)

PR

b)

BM

c)

PO

d)

PM

69.

IM

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intravenous

c)

Intradermal

d)

Subcutaneous

70.

IV

a)

Intramuscular

b)

Intradermal

c)

Intravenous

d)

Intrathecal

71.

Nothing by mouth

a)

NBM

b)

PON

c)

NPO

d)

PO

72.

o.d.

a)

left eye

b)

both eyes

c)

right eye

d)

right ear

73.

which of the following is Water soluble vitamins

a)

A

b)

C

c)

E

d)

K

74.

Which of the following S/S of deficiency in (Vitamin A)

a)

Night blindness

b)

osteomalacia

c)

rickets

d)

bleeding tendency

75.

deficiency in (Vitamin D) in adult Causes:

a)

Night blindness

b)

osteomalacia

c)

rickets

d)

bleeding tendency

76.

deficiency in (Vitamin D) in children Causes:

a)

Night blindness

b)

osteomalacia

c)

rickets

d)

bleeding tendency

77.

deficiency in (Vitamin K) can Cause:

a)

Night blindness

b)

osteomalacia

c)

rickets

d)

bleeding tendency

78.

which of the following fat solubal Vitamin is a CONTRAINDICATION in Pregnancy:

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

79.

Which of the following is manifestation of vitamin A deficiency?

a)

Xerophthalmia

b)

Peripheral neuritis

c)

Osteomalacia

d)

Bleeding tendency

80.

Which of the following vitamins is given to newborn babies to prevent hemorrhagic disease of newborn?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

81.

Which of the following vitamins cause hypercalcemia and hyperphosphatemia in high doses?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin D

c)

Vitamin E

d)

Vitamin K

82.

Which of the following diseases can be treated with Niacin (vit B3)?

a)

Beri beri

b)

Senile osteoporosis

c)

Pellagra

d)

Scurvy

83.

Which of the following vitamins is used to prevent peripheral neuritis in patients of tuberculosis who is taking INH?

a)

Vitamin B6

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Folic acid

d)

Vitamin C

84.

Which of the following iron preparations is given intramuscularly?

a)

Ferrous succinate

b)

Ferrous gluconate

c)

Iron sorbitol-citric-acid complex

d)

Sodium ferric gluconate

85.

The side effect which primarily limits acceptability of oral iron therapy is

a)

Black stools

b)

Staining of teeth

c)

Metallic taste

d)

Epigastric pain and bowel upset

86.

Which of the following diseases can be treated with Thiamine B1

a)

Beri beri

b)

Senile osteoporosis

c)

Pellagra

d)

Scurvy

87.

Which of the following vitamins is used to treat morning sickness in pregnancy

a)

Vitamin B6

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Folic acid

d)

Vitamin C

88.

Which of the following diseases can be treated with Vitamin C

a)

Beri beri

b)

Senile osteoporosis

c)

Pellagra

d)

Scurvy

89.

Which of the following diseases can be treated with Vitamin D

a)

Beri beri

b)

Senile osteoporosis and Hypoparathyroidism

c)

Pellagra

d)

Scurvy

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