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Preterm 1

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The relationship between the atomic radius (r) and edge length (a) of a simple, fcc, bcc cubic unit cell will be respectively

a)

a2\frac{a}{2} 2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}

b)

a2\frac{a}{2} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} 2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4}

c)

2a4\frac{\sqrt{2}a}{4} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} a2\frac{a}{2}

d)

3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4} a2\frac{a}{2} 3a4\frac{\sqrt{3}a}{4}

2.

The ability of crystalline solids to change values of physical properties when measured in different directions is called _______.

a)

polymorphism

b)

isomorphism

c)

anisotropy

d)

isotropy

3.

This type of solid forms a regular repeating

three-dimensional structure called a crystal lattice. What type of solid is this?

a)

amorphous

b)

crystalline

c)

glass

d)

diamond

4.

Which type of solid typically has the lowest melting point of the four types of crystals?

a)

Ionic

b)

Molecular

c)

Metallic

d)

Covalent Network

5.

Anionic sites occupied by unpaired electrons are called

a)

F Centres

b)

Interstitial Centres

c)

Cationic Centres

d)

Anionic Centres

6.

What is contribution of a lattice point present at the body centre towards a unit cell

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0

7.

What fraction of a sphere present at the face of a unit cell is present in one unit cell

a)

1/8

b)

1/4

c)

1/2

d)

1

8.

3. Alkali halides do not show Frenkel defect because

a)

(a) cations and anions have almost equal size

b)

(b) there is a large difference in size of cations and anions

c)

(c) cations and anions have low coordination number

d)

(d) anions cannot be accommodated in voids

9.

Oxygen is an example of

a)

diamagnetic substance

b)

paramagnetic substance

c)

ferromagnetic substance

d)

none of these

10.

Molarity is the number of moles of a _______________________________ dissolved per liter of solution.

a)

M

b)

solution

c)

molar

d)

solute

11.
what is the molarity of a solution that contains 125 g NaCl in 4.00 L of solution?
a)
0.535 M NaCl
b)
2.14 M NaCl
c)
8.56 M NaCl
d)
31.3 M NaCl
12.

Physical properties (observed/measured) influenced by the number/amount of solute particles are called:

a)

qualitative properties

b)

analytical properties

c)

colligative properties

d)

quantitative properties

13.

Which of the following is NOT a colligative property?

a)

freezing point

b)

density

c)

boiling point

d)

vapor pressure

14.
The freezing point of a solution is ____ the freezing point of the pure solvent.
a)
the same as
b)
lower than
c)
higher than
d)
no relation to
15.

Find the boiling point of a solution containing 15.0 g sucrose (molar mass = 342.3g/mol), in 100g of water. (Kb = 0.512 oC/m)

a)

100.2

b)

99.8

c)

0.2

d)

-0.2

16.

Which of the following interface cannot be obtained?

a)

liquid-liquid

b)

solid-liquid

c)

liquid-gas

d)

gas-gas

17.
Which biomolecule is made of nucleotides and contain you DNA?
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipids
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
18.
Which biomolecule has sugars and starches?
a)
Lipids
b)
Proteins
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Nucleic Acid
19.
Which biomolecule is important source of energy for humans; glucose for human cells, tissues, and organs; provides fiber, sugar, and starches; provides structural support, cell wall, and cell membrane maker?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Lipid
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Protein
20.
Identify the biomolecule
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Protein
d)
Nucleic Acid
21.
Identify the biomolecule
a)
Lipid
b)
Protein
c)
Carbohydrate
d)
Nucleic Acid
22.
What is the monomer for a protein?
a)
Monosaccharide
b)
Triglyceride
c)
Amino Acid
d)
Nucleotide
23.
What is the monomer of nucleic acids?
a)
Glycerol
b)
Monosaccharides
c)
Amino Acids
d)
Nucleotides
24.

In aqueous solution, an amino acid exist as

a)

cation

b)

anion

c)

zwitter ion

d)

neutral molecule

25.

Proteins are found to have two different types of secondary structures viz. α-helix and β-pIeated sheet structure, α-helix structure of protein is stabilised by

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

van der Waals forces

c)

Hydrogen bonds

d)

Dipole-dipole interactions

26.

Each polypeptide in a protein has aminoacids linked with each other in a specific sequence. This sequence of amino acids is said to be __________ .

a)

primary structure of proteins.

b)

secondary structure of proteins

c)

tertiary structure of proteins.

d)

quaternary structure of proteins.

27.

α-D (+) glucose and β-D (+) – glucose are

a)

Enantiomers

b)

Geometrical isomers

c)

Anomers

d)

Epimers

28.

The sugar present in milk is

a)

Sucrose

b)

Maltose

c)

Glucose

d)

lactose

29.

Keratin present in hair is an example of

a)

Fibrous protein

b)

Globular protein

c)

Conjugated protein

d)

Derived protein

30.

Which of the following reactions of glucose can be explained only by its cyclic structure?

a)

Glucose forms pentaacetate

b)

Glucose reacts with hydroxylamine to form an oxime.

c)

Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine.

d)

Glucose is oxidised by nitric acid to gluconic acid

31.

Glycosidic linkage is an

a)

amide linkage

b)

ester linkage

c)

ether linkage

d)

acetyl linkage

32.

Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid?

a)

Br2/H2O

b)

Nitric acid

c)

Alkaline solution of iodine

d)

Ammonium hydroxide

33.

Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?

a)

Glucose

b)

Sucrose

c)

Maltose

d)

Lactose

34.

Maltose is made up of

a)

two α-D-glucose

b)

normal β-D-glucose

c)

α- and β-D-glucose

d)

fructose

35.

What is the basic formulae for starch?

a)

(C6H12O6)n

b)

(C6H10O5)n

c)

C12O12O11

d)

(C6H12O4)n

36.

Which of the following treatment will convert starch directly into glucose?

a)

Heating with dilute H2SO4

b)

Fermentation by diastase

c)

Fermentation by zymase

d)

Heating with dilute NaOH

37.

What type of reaction is the breakdown of polysaccharides to form monosaccharides?

a)

hydrolysis

b)

condensation

c)

substitution

d)

substitution

38.

Which elements are contained in all protein molecules?

a)

carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen

b)

carbon, sulfur, and oxygen

c)

carbon, nitrogen, and sulfur

d)

carbon, nitrogen, and iron

39.

The characteristic functional groups of a protein are

a)

-OH and -NH2

b)

-COOH and -CH2

c)

-COOH and -NH2

d)

-COOH and -SH

40.

The components of a nucleic acid are

a)

sugars, phosphate groups, and amino acids

b)

sugars, phosphate groups, and nitrogen-containing bases.

c)

sugars, amino acids, and nitrogen-containing bases.

d)

peptides, phosphate groups, and nitrogen-containing bases.

41.

The symbol -TGCAGCAA- could represent a portion of

a)

a DNA molecule.

b)

an RNA molecule

c)

Both (a) and (b)

d)

Neither (a) nor (b)

42.

The shape of a DNA molecule is described as

a)

a spring

b)

a double helix

c)

a cross-linked spiral

d)

a double coil

43.

The process by which DNA makes a copy of itself is called

a)

gene mapping

b)

protein synthesis

c)

fingerprinting

d)

replication

44.

The unit of ebulioscopic constant is _______________.

a)

K kg mol–1 or K (molality)–1

b)

mol kg K–1 or K–1(molality)

c)

kg mol–1 K –1 or K–1(molality)–1

d)

mol kg–1 or K (molality)

45.

Value of Henry’s constant KH ____________.

a)

increases with increase in temperature.

b)

decreases with increase in temperature

c)

REMAIN CONSTANT

d)

first increases then decreases.

46.

Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.

Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.

a)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.

b)

Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

c)

Assertion and reason both are incorrect statements

d)

Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.

e)

Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

47.

Which of the following binary mixtures will have same composition in liquid and vapour phase?

a)

Benzene - Toluene

b)

n-Hexane - n-Heptane

c)

Water- hCl

d)

Water-Ethanol

48.

A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3 – ion. It is due to the formation of

a)

[Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+

b)

FeSO4 .NO2

c)

[Fe(H2O)4 (NO)2 ] 2+

d)

FeSO4 .HNO3

49.

In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2 + Pt F6 – as a base compound. This is because

a)

both O2 and Xe have same size.

b)

both O2 and Xe have same electron gain enthalpy

c)

both O2 and Xe have almost same ionisation enthalpy

d)

both Xe and O2 are gases

50.

In solid state PCl5 is a _________

a)

covalent solid

b)

octahedral structure

c)

ionic solid with [PCl6 ] + octahedral and [PCl4 ] – tetrahedra

d)

ionic solid with [PCl4 ] + tetrahedral and [PCl6 ] – octahedra

51.

Which of the following options are not in accordance with the property mentioned against them? (i) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Oxidising power.

(ii) MI > MBr > MCl > MF Ionic character of metal halide. (iii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 Bond dissociation enthalpy.

(iv) HI < HBr < HCl < HF Hydrogen-halogen bond strength.

a)

I,II

b)

II,III

c)

III,I

d)

IV,II

52.

Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 gas?

a)

It acts as bleaching agent in moist conditions.

b)

It’s molecule has linear geometry.

c)

It’s dilute solution is used as ANALGESIC

d)

It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute H2SO4 with metal sulphide

53.

Which of the following statements are correct?

(MORE THAN 1 OPTION CAN BE ANSWER)

a)

All the three N—O bond lengths in HNO3 are equal

b)

All P—Cl bond lengths in PCl5 molecule in gaseous state are equal.

c)

P4 molecule in white phosphorus have angular strain therefore white phosphorus is very reactive.

d)

PCl is ionic in solid state in which cation is tetrahedral and anion is octahedral.

54.

Match the compounds given in Column I with the hybridisation and shape given in Column II and mark the correct option. Column I Column II

(A) Xe F6 (1) sp3d 3 – distorted octahedral

(B) Xe O3 (2) sp3d 2 - square planar

(C) Xe OF4 (3) sp3 - pyramidal

(D) Xe F4 (4) sp3 d2 - square pyramidal

a)

(i) A (1) B (3) C (4) D (2)

b)

(ii) A (1) B (2) C (4) D (3)

c)

(iii) A (4) B (3) C (1) D (2)

d)

(iv) A (4) B (1) C (2) D (3)

55.

Assertion : Both rhombic and monoclinic sulphur exist as S8 but oxygen exists as O2 .

Reason : Oxygen forms pπ – pπ multiple bond due to small size and small bond length but pπ – pπ bonding is not possible in sulphur.

a)

(i) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. .

b)

(ii) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion

c)

(iii) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.

d)

(iv) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement. (

e)

v) Both assertion and reason are wrong statements.

56.

Assertion : SF6 cannot be hydrolysed but SF4 can be. Reason : Six F atoms in SF6 prevent the attack of H2O on sulphur atom of SF6

a)

(i) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

b)

(ii) Both assertion and reason are correct statements, but reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

c)

(iii) Assertion is correct, but reason is wrong statement.

d)

(iv) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement.

e)

(v) Both assertion and reason are wrong statements.

57.

Assertion : KCN reacts with methyl chloride to give methyl isocyanide Reason : CN – is an ambident nucleophile

a)

(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion. (

b)

(ii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

c)

(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement

d)

(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement

e)

v) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

58.

Assertion : Phosphorus chlorides (tri and penta) are preferred over thionyl chloride for the preparation of alkyl chlorides from alcohols. Reason : Phosphorus chlorides give pure alkyl halides.

a)

(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion. .

b)

(ii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.

c)

(iii) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong statement.

d)

(iv) Assertion is wrong but reason is correct statement

e)

(v) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of assertion.

59.

Arrange the compounds in the decreasing order of acidic character

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

The correct acidic strength of the following

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

61.

Phenol reacts with bromine in CS2 to give

a)

o-bromophenol

b)

m-bromophenol

c)

o-and p-bromophenol

d)

2,4,6-tribromophenol

62.

When phenol is treated with excess of bromine water, it gives which of the following product?

a)

m-bromophenol

b)

o-and p-bromophenol

c)

2,4-dibromophenol

d)

2,4,6-tribromophenol

63.

Phenols are more acidic than alcohols because

a)

Phenoxide ion is stablised by resonance

b)

Phenols are more soluble in polar solvents

c)

Phenoxide ion does not exhibit resonance

d)

Alcohols do not lose H atoms at all

64.

Arrange the given compounds in order of decreasing

melting points.

a)

I>II>III

b)

I=II=III

c)

III>II>I

d)

III>I>II

e)

II>I>III

65.

CH3CH2OH can be converted into CH3CHO by

a)

catalytic hydrogenation

b)

treatment with LiAlH4

c)

treatment with pyridinium chlorochromate

d)

treatment with KMnO4

66.

Hydroboration-oxidation reaction gives

a)

primary alcohol

b)

secondary alcohol

c)

tert- alcohol

d)

all the three

67.

Acetone with methylmagnesium bromide followed by hydrolysis yeild

a)

propan-2-ol

b)

2-methylpropan-2-ol

c)

propan-1-ol

d)

no reaction

68.

An ether's common name is: methyl propyl ether. What is its IUPAC name?

a)

propanemethoxy

b)

methoxypropane

c)

propoxymethane

d)

methanepropoxy

69.

The Williamson synthesis of ethers involves the reaction of a primary, secondary or tertiary alcohol with a...

a)

Primary haloalkane

b)

Primary or secondary haloalkane

c)

Primary, secondary or tertiary haloalkane

70.

The IUPAC name for this ether is...

a)

Butyl methyl ether

b)

Butoxymethane

c)

Methoxybutane

d)

Methyl butyl ether

71.

Which one gives turbidity immediately with Lucas reagent?

a)

2- propanol

b)

1-propanol

c)

2-methyl 2-propanol

d)

2-methyl 1-propanol

72.

Alkyl halide formation from primary alcohols follow ____mechanism

a)

SN2

b)

SN1

c)

E1

d)

E2

73.

Which group will have the highest boiling points and melting points for similarly sized molecules?

a)

alkanes

b)

alkenes

c)

alcohols

d)

ethers

74.

What is the name of this product?

a)

1– propanol

b)

1– propene

c)

ethylene glycol

d)

3– propanol

e)

1,2,3 – propanetriol

75.
Name the following molecule:
a)
3,3-dimethyl-1-butanol
b)
3,3-methyl-1-butanol
c)
2,2-dimethyl-4-butanol
d)
3,3,3-trimethyl-1-propanol
76.

Which of the following name reactions produces salicyldehyde?

a)

Kolbe's reaction

b)

Rosenmund reduction

c)

Williamson's synthesis

d)

Reimer Tiemann reaction

77.

Conversion of Salicylic acid to Aspirin is an example of ________

a)

Rearrangement reaction

b)

Esterification reaction

c)

Dehydration reaction

d)

Alkylation reaction

78.
a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

79.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

80.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

81.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

82.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

83.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

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