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Propulsion - Whole book

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 2hrs 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the formula for work?

a)

Work = Force x Distance

b)

Work = (Force x Distance) / Time

c)

Work = Force x Mass

2.

An object with stored energy due to it's position is know as?

a)

Potential energy

b)

Kinetic energy

c)

Fluid energy

3.

What is considered to be called a "constant pressure cycle"?

a)

Brayton cycle

b)

Otto cycle

c)

Engine pressure ratio

4.

If there is 100% airflow going through the air inlet of a turbofan engine, how much is then going to be absorbed by the compressor?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

Undefined

5.

How is energy from the exhaust in turboshaft used?

a)

Drive an output shaft

b)

Create thrust for the aircraft

c)

Drive a propeller

6.

A radial outflow compressor is also know as?

a)

Centrifugal flow compressor

b)

Axial flow compressor

c)

Diffuser

7.

What is used in an engine to isolate it incase of a fire emergency?

a)

LPSOV

b)

HPSOV

c)

LP Switch

8.

What type of flow is output by a low pressure fuel pump?

a)

Centrifugal flow

b)

Axial flow

c)

Compressed flow

9.

How does a fuel heater prevent the blockage of the LP fuel filter from ice?

a)

Hot oil from engine lubrication

b)

Hot fuel from the fuel tank

c)

HPSOV pumping the fuel through creating additional heat

10.

What is the purpose of the differential pressure switch?

a)

Detects icing on the LP fuel filter

b)

Ensures correcting volume of fuel is being dumped in the dump valve

c)

Ensures the FCU is operating correctly

11.

What is the major difference between a spur gear pump and a multiple piston pump?

a)

Spur gear pump operates constantly while multiple piston operates by varying the output.

b)

Spur gear pump contains a drive/pump shaft while multiple piston does not.

c)

Spur gear pumps are much more efficient in operation than a multiple piston pump.

12.

What does the constant volume pump use to maintain pressure in case of excessive containination?

a)

Bypass valve

b)

Fuel pump

c)

LPSOV

13.

Where is the highest point of pressure in an engine?

a)

Combustor

b)

Compressor

c)

Exhaust

14.

Duplex nozzles use what to control flow?

a)

FCU return valve

b)

LPSOV

c)

HPSOV

15.

What is the purpose of having the drain line at the lowest or bottom point of the system?

a)

Prevent fire and sludge formation

b)

Ease of access for engineer or operator to remove

c)

Becomes easily visible to the pilot during flight

16.

What ratio of fuel is used in a combustor for cooling?

a)

65%

b)

45%

c)

85%

17.

How many sections are in a turbine engine?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

18.

Where is the location of the piezoelectric probe that is used to measure vibration?

a)

Right angle to the trubine

b)

On the exhaust

c)

Centre of the compressor

19.

In a hydropneumatic fuel control system, when the governor valve is closed, what does the acceleration control pressure (Px) and governor pressure (Py) do to the compressor pressure (Pc)?

a)

Increase

b)

Decrease

c)

No effect

20.

What does the power lever directly drive in a hydrochemical fuel control system?

a)

Flight weight speeder spring

b)

Governor drive

c)

Sliding cap

21.

What is the major difference between Supervisory electronic engine control and Full advisory engine control?

a)

There is no mechanical linkage from the power levers to the engine.

b)

Supervisor is much more safer than FADEC.

c)

FADEC does not have a rating plug attached to the system.

22.

What type of measurement is taken for reading a ratiometer?

a)

Resistance

b)

Voltage

c)

Inductance

23.

Why are thermocouple probes connected in parallel?

a)

Get an average EMF

b)

Safety of the circuit

c)

Chromel wiring are connect in series

24.

Which part of a low joule HEIU system can potentially lethal?

a)

Reservoir capacitor

b)

Discharge capacitor

c)

Rectifier

25.

Which one of these is used in a FADEC subsystem for redundancy?

a)

Control alternator

b)

Electronic engine control

c)

Supervisory electronic engine control system

26.

A body at rest tends to stay at rest unless changed by an external force.

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's second law

c)

Newton's Thrid law

27.

F=MA or the acceleration of a body is proportional to the force causing it, and INVERSLY proportional to the mass to the body.

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's second law

c)

Newton's thrid law

28.

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's second law

c)

Newton's thrid law

29.

Which law is used to determine excatly the amount of thrust achieved by the gas turbine engine?

a)

Newton's first law

b)

Newton's second law

c)

Newton's third law

30.

In the centre of a venturi velocity and pressure

a)

V=increase, Pressure=decrease

b)

V=decrease, Pressure=increase

c)

V=increase, Pressure= increase

31.

Gas flowing through a convergent duct - subsonic airflow

a)

V=increasing, P=decreasing, T=decreaseing

b)

P=increasing, V=decreasing, T=decreaseing

c)

V=increasing, P=decreasing, T=increasing

32.

Gas flowing through a divergent duct - subsonic airflow

a)

V=decreasing, P=increasing, T=increasing

b)

P=decreasing, V=increasing, T=increasing

c)

V=decreasing, P=increasing, T=decreasing

33.

When is there an exception to the venturi principle?

a)

Gas at the speed of sound (sonic)

b)

Gas below the speed of sound (subsonic)

c)

There is no exception

34.

Fuel pumps, hydraullic pumps, electrical generator and other engine accesories are driven by?

a)

Driveshaft

b)

Combustion chamber

c)

Exhaust system

35.

Which type of trubojet has very low propulsive efficiency, high specific fuel consumption and an underible noise level.

a)

Single spool axial

b)

Twin spool axial

c)

Multi spool axial

36.

Which type of compressor was designed for high compression ratios, quick acceleration, better control of stall characteristics.

a)

Dual and triple spool axial

b)

Single spool axial

c)

Quadriple spool axial

37.

The ratio of the mass airflow which flows through the fan duct, divided by the mass airflow which flows through the core of the engine is?

a)

Fan Bypass radio

b)

Axial bypass ratio

c)

Spool bypass ratio

38.

A ______ accelerates a large quantity of air rearwards at a low rate

a)

propeller

b)

jet engine

c)

piston engine

39.

A _____ accelerates a small quatity of air rearwards at a high rate.

a)

propeller

b)

jet engine

c)

piston engine

40.

Which type of engine is more efficient than a pure turbo jet as the princliple is more akin to that of a propeller, in that is accelerates a relatively large mass of air at a low rate.

a)

High bypass

b)

Medium bypass

c)

Low bypass

41.

Approx what percentage of the thrust produced in a twin spool high bypass engine is from the bypass air ducting?

a)

80%

b)

70%

c)

90%

42.

Which tyoe of engine is used to drive any industrial application that require high torque output?

a)

Turboshaft

b)

Turboprop

c)

Turbofan

43.

Which engine uses a mulitstage turbine and planetary reduction gear.

a)

Turboprop

b)

Turbofan

c)

Turboshaft

44.

Single large disc engines must be restricted in rpm due to which high load on the disc?

a)

Centripetal

b)

Centrifugal

c)

Gravitiational

45.

Why is planetary gearing selected for the reduction gear?

a)

High degree of speed reduction and propeller shaft and thrust lines remain on the same line as the compressor and turbine shafts.

b)

Ability to withstand high pressures and rotate freely.

c)

High degree of robustness and ability to act as a redundant unit.

46.

Which type of engine does the propeller shaft and thurst lines lay on the same centre line as the compressor casuing minimal interference with the entry of the air into the air intake?

a)

Turboprop

b)

Turboshaft

c)

Turbojet

47.

Which engine is all the energy in the gases absorbed by the turbines and tranformed into rotational force or torque with little or no thrust produced in the exhaust?

a)

Turboprop

b)

Turboshaft

c)

Turbojet

48.

Which part of an engine operate on the priniple of acceleration of a working fluid followed by diffusion to convert aquired kinetic energy to a pressure rise?

a)

Compressor

b)

Turbine

c)

Combustion

49.

The primary purose of which engine section is to increase the pressure of the mass of air entering the engine inlet the discharge it to the diffuser/

a)

Compressor

b)

Combustor

c)

Exhaust

50.

Compressor efficency is based on the priniple of maximum compression with minimal temperature rise. Temperatre rise is caused by?

a)

Speed of rotation and torque

b)

Humidity and motion

c)

Compression and friction

51.

What engine component secondary purpose is to supply engine service bleed air to cool hot section parts, pressurise bearing seals, supply heated air for the inlet anit-icing and fuel system heat for de-icing?

a)

Compressor

b)

Combustion section

c)

Exhaust section

52.

Which compressor type has the advantges of light weight, basic construction and ruggedness/

a)

Centrifugal

b)

Axial

53.

Which part of an axial flow compressor is placed at the rear to decrease velocity and raising temperature as well as directing the airflow to the net stage compression at the desired angle?

a)

Stator

b)

Rotor

54.

How many stages of compression are in an axial flow compressor?

a)

10-18

b)

4-9

c)

16-27

55.

Which section of an engine contains a fuel injection system, ignition source and fuel drainage system?

a)

Compressor section

b)

Combustion section

c)

Turbine section

56.

The function of which section is to add heat energy to flowing gases, expanding and accelerating gases into the turbine section?

a)

Compressor section

b)

Combustion section

c)

Turbine section

57.

What is important to do to reduce the possibilty of exceeding turbine inlet temperatures due to an engine fire after shutdown and to prevent gum deposits in the fuel manifold, nozzles and combustion chambers?

a)

Fuel drainage

b)

Engine wash

c)

Burning leftover fuel

58.

Approx what percentage of incoming air is designated to the primary and seconday paths?

a)

40-50% primary and 50-60% secondary

b)

20-30% primary and 70-80% secondary

c)

10-20% primary and 80-90% secondary

59.

Which section of an engine carried out the task of extracting energy from the hot gases released from the combustion system and expanding them to a lower pressure and temperature?

a)

Compressor section

b)

Combustion section

c)

Turbine section

60.

What is required at the first stages of the stator vanes and rotor blades?

a)

Cooling

b)

Heating

c)

Evaporation

61.

The turbine inlet temperature, mass airflow through the engine and velocity and pressure of the exhaust jet are all effected by which aspect of the exhaust section?

a)

shape and size

b)

thickness and curvature

c)

type of material

62.

Which section of an engine is to collect the gas flow, straighten it and increase its velocity?

a)

Compressor section

b)

Combustor section

c)

Exhaust section

63.

Which section of an engine is used to power both engines and aircraft accessories such as generators, hydraulic pumps, fuel pumps, oil pumps and act as a reservoir and housing the accessory drive gears?

a)

Exhaust section

b)

Accessory section

c)

Turbine section

64.

The accessory drive location is selected to keep the engine profile to a minimum for?

a)

Streamlining

b)

Weight savings

c)

Accessability

65.

What can be caused by a sudden increase in pressure at the combstion chamber end of the compressor or blockage at the inlet compressor?

a)

Blade stall

b)

Surge

c)

Blade fracture

66.

A stall through the compressor (the whole spool stalls) is called?

a)

A surge

b)

A flux

c)

A spike

67.

As there is no counter EMF in a torque motor the coils are made of many turns of fine wire increasing resistance and limiting?

a)

current

b)

voltage

c)

power

68.

The EEC acting in a supervisory capacity modulates?

a)

Engine fuel flow to maintain the designed thrust.

b)

Engine oil pressure to maintain the designed thrust.

c)

Engine N2 torque to maintain the designed thrust.

69.

In a system with an EEC, when a problem developes the control automatically reverts to which system?

a)

Hydromechanical

b)

Electromechanical

c)

Hydraulicmechincal

70.

Bases on the input signals to the EEC, the output signals adjust and control?

a)

ignition circuits

b)

pressure valves

c)

rpm gauge

71.

The hydromechincal unit is connector to what to ensure fuel control in case of a failure of the EEC?

a)

power lever

b)

ignition unit

c)

feather lever

72.

The hydromechincal unit is comprised of?

a)

stepper motor controlled by the HMU

b)

A lever which controls fuel shutoff

c)

A lever which controls fuel pressure

73.

Power for the EEC comes from?

a)

Electrical system or PMA

b)

Hot battery bus

c)

Back up power supply

74.

If the EEC has a double channel failure

a)

The engine will not start and exciters can only be powered by EEC command

b)

Fuel flow will be restricted to the engine

c)

The batteries will be shut down to prevent the engine(s) turning on

75.

Reduced crew workload, increased and improved reliability and reduced fuel consumption are all benefits of?

a)

FADEC

b)

ECU

c)

EEC

76.

Which two engine indications will the pilot need to monitor to set the target thurst in a FADEC system?

a)

EPR and N1

b)

EPR and N2

c)

RPM and Manifiold pressure

77.

What will allow the engine to work nearer to the surge line thus increasing thrust whilst reducing the chance of surge or stall in a FADEC system?

a)

Optimising airflow

b)

Optimising fuel flow

c)

Limiting fuel flow

78.

What type of control likage is there none of from the power levers to the engine?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Torque tubes

79.

Which system elmiates the need for engine rigging and trimming?

a)

FADEC

b)

EEC

c)

APU

80.

To achieve stable running, in all the engine conditions, the FCU maintains a correct combustion zone air-to-fuel mixture ratio of?

a)

15:1

b)

14:1

c)

13:1

81.

The control of the power of the gas turbine engine is achived by regualting?

a)

The quantity of fuel injected into the combustion system

b)

The flow rate of fuel injected into the combustion system

c)

The pressure of fuel injected into the combustion system

82.

The relationship between the airflow induced through the engine and the fuel supplied is complicated by changes in?

a)

Altitude, air temp and speed

b)

Humidity and moisture

c)

operation of the compression section

83.

Throttle movement, air temp and pressure, rapid acceleration and deceleration and signals of engine gas temp and compressor delivery are all part of a servo system controlling?

a)

Fuel flow of the spray nozzles

b)

Fuel pressure of the spray nozzles

c)

Fuel quantity of the spray nozzles

84.

What are the two ways in which a HP fuel pump is varied?

a)

Varying piston stroke and recirculating excess fuel delivery back to pump inlet

b)

Control change of the power lever

c)

Reignition of the starting circuit

85.

During acceleration fuel flow must be held proportionate to the amount of?

a)

Air

b)

Oil

c)

EPR

86.

The ECU ID plugged into a connector and attached to where on the engine?

a)

Engine fan case

b)

Engine terminals

c)

Engine control levers

87.

If two channels on a EEC have equal health status?

a)

Channels will alternate active/standby status on each engine shutdown

b)

Only one channel will remain active until a fault persists

c)

One channel will stay active after 3 engine shut downs, then it will go into standby and the other channel will be active for 3 engine shut downs.

88.

EEC will go iinto a soft revisionary mode using the last known ambient pressure signal or hard revisionary mode which uses a fixed reference ambient temperature for the engine is an example of?

a)

Redundancy

b)

Failsafe

c)

Bypass

89.

The EEC is provided with feedback valves and actuators fitted with duel?

a)

Linear variable differntial transformer sensors

b)

Inductance sensors

c)

Wheatstone brige sensors

90.

The HMU provides an interface between the EEC signal and fuel flow achived by what which controls the fuel supply to the nozzles?

a)

EHSV or torque motors

b)

Linear variable differential transformers

c)

Shut off valves

91.

The EEC is equipt with what to provide maintence information and tests the engines capabilities by an interface monitoring unit?

a)

BITE

b)

Ethernet connections

c)

Self intuitive computers

92.

What spray pattern helps prevent engine flameout in rain and snow conditions?

a)

Strong spray

b)

Weak spray

c)

Trickle spray

93.

What occurs when engine thrust command is reduced during decent?

a)

Low fuel/air ratio

b)

High fuel/air ratio

c)

Medium fuel/air ratio

94.

What dumps air not required for efficient engine performance from the output of the LP compressor in the engine bypass duct?

a)

Variable bypass valve (LP bleed air solenoid valve)

b)

Inlet guide vanes

c)

Variable stator vanes

95.

The variable bypass valve is open at low rpm when the air is not required and usually fully closed above what N1 value?

a)

80%

b)

70%

c)

60%

96.

What controls the angle of attack of the compressor blades and can adjust the airflow into the compressor?

a)

Movable stator vanes

b)

Inlet guide vanes

c)

Variable bypass valve

97.

What is controlled by the EEC to ensure maximum efficency and reliability of the engine?

a)

Active clearence control

b)

Inlet guide vanes

c)

Linear variable differnetial transformer

98.

What type of clearance changes are due to uniform loading on the stationary or rotating structures that create uniform radial displacement?

a)

Axisymmetric

b)

Radialsymmetric

c)

Antisymmetric

99.

Which loads are responisble for the largest radial variations in tip clearance?

a)

Centifugal and thermal loads

b)

Centripetal and thermal loads

c)

Radial and thermal loads

100.

Which loads produce clearance changes by casuing the rotor to expand or contrat during changes in engine acceleration?

a)

Centrifugal

b)

Thermal

c)

Centripetal

101.

Which loads produce both axisymmetric and asymmetric clearance changes due to ther thermal expansion of the stationary and rotating structures?

a)

Centrifugal

b)

Thermal

c)

Centripetal

102.

Temperature difference between the hot and cold junctions and circuit resistance determine what in a thermocouple?

a)

Amplitude of current

b)

Amplitude of voltage

c)

Amplitude of frequency

103.

Which thermocouple is general purpose, smaller temperature range and shorter lifespan at higher temps with the positive leg iron and negative leg constantan alloy?

a)

Type J

b)

Type K

c)

Type T

104.

Which thermocouple provides the widest operating temperature range and the postive leg is a non-magnetic and negative leg magnetic?

a)

Type J

b)

Type K

c)

Type T

105.

Which thermocouple is best suited at low temps and low temp environments consisting of postive leg copper and negative leg Cu-Ni alloy wire?

a)

Type J

b)

Type K

c)

Type T

106.

Which system has resistors to adjust the parallel resiatnce of the thermocouple section to the value required by the system?

a)

EGT

b)

CHT

c)

TIT

107.

Which probes are mounted in the tail pipe and are connected in parallel so that their output is averaged?

a)

CHT

b)

EGT

c)

TIT

108.

Which thermocouples may be either single or duel hot junctioins?

a)

EGT

b)

CHT

c)

TIT

109.

Which type of EGT provided additional identical hot jusction which gives a signal to an electronic fuel control for schedulling purposes or to test connection for calibrating the EGT circuit/

a)

Single

b)

Duel

c)

Tripple

110.

All thermocouple probes are connected in what to read an average EMF?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Combination

111.

What is used to calibrate the system since the lengths of wires from the sensors to the indicators is critical and compensates for ambient air temperatures in an EGtT system?

a)

Resistor

b)

Capacitor

c)

Inductor

112.

What is incorporated in the indicator or circuit for an EGT system to prevent variations of cold junctions temperatures?

a)

Automatic temperature compensating device

b)

Resistors

c)

Wire shielding

113.

What type of thermocouple are gas turbine engines fitted with due to the rapid velocty of the jet efflux?

a)

Stagnation type

b)

Rapid response

c)

Slow response

114.

Where is the cold junction within the FADEC for a thermocouple?

a)

EEC

b)

EICAS

c)

ECAM

115.

Which method is used to measure extreme temperatures via infrared radiation given off by the turbine clades at the outlet of the combustion chamber?

a)

Pyrometer

b)

EGT

116.

In a piston engine EGT system, at which temperature will the needle start moving on the gauge?

a)

640 DegC

b)

440 DegC

c)

960 DegC

117.

Which type of CHT probe has the termocouple junction welded directly to the probe shaft, have faster response time, longer life and lower cost?

a)

Grounded

b)

Non-grounded

c)

Open-ended

118.

Which type of CHT probe is is susceptible to more electrical noise?

a)

Grounded

b)

Non-grounded

c)

Open-ended

119.

In a single spool engine, the RPM is measured by a tacogenertor mounted on the?

a)

Accessory gearbox

b)

Drive shaft

c)

Starter generator

120.

On some engines, both N1 and N2 can be measured using a tacho generator, while others N1 may use a?

a)

Inductive pickoff

b)

RPM sensor

c)

Piezoelectric sensor

121.

A magnetic pick up for RPM (phonic wheel sensor) im mounted where on the engine?

a)

In the shroud around the fan

b)

On the fan case

c)

Next to the tacogenerator

122.

Why is there sometimes two impluse tachometers mounted?

a)

Redundancy

b)

Outputs of probes have 90 degree phase shift

c)

Outputs of the probes have 180 degree phase shift

123.

A triple spool engine has an N1 tacometer to indicate?

a)

Fan speed

b)

Intermediate pressure compressor

c)

High pressure compressor

124.

There should be no bend with a radius of less than 6 inchs and no bend within 3 inchs of either end terminal i applicable to which type of tachometer?

a)

Piston engine mechanical

b)

Piston engine digital

c)

Gas turbine

125.

What measures the difference between the compressor inlet pressure and turbine discharge pressure?

a)

EPR

b)

RPM

c)

Hall effect

126.

To calculate the EPR required for take off this is done by?

a)

FMS using the take off weight and length of runway

b)

FMS using fuel required and length of runway

c)

FMS using total weight and length of runway

127.

What is the difference between jet pipe pressure and turbine discharge pressure?

a)

Location of the pitot tube

b)

Signal sent to the gauge

c)

Location of the two pressure zones

128.

Which oil pressure system uses 26VAC from the electrical system and is connected with a hose to the oil pump outlet line to the engine?

a)

Syncho oil pressure

b)

AC inductor oil pressure

c)

Strain gauge

129.

In a strain gauge oil pressure system, the resistance of the strain is detected in which circuit then amplified before being sent to the EEC?

a)

Wheatstone bridge

b)

Capactitor

c)

Inductor

130.

What is a negative to a piezoelectric oil pressure sensor?

a)

Prone to errors from vibration

b)

Prone to noise

c)

Short lifespan

131.

Due to a positive temperature coefficient of resistance in a wheatstone bridge oil temperature system, an open circuit will cause?

a)

Full scale high

b)

Zero

c)

Sporatic readings

132.

In a wheatstone bridge oil temperature system, a full scale low reading will be due to?

a)

open circuit

b)

shorted bulb

c)

closed circuit

133.

What is the disadvantage of a wheatstone bridge oil temperature system?

a)

Any added resistance due to bad connection cause inaccurate readings

b)

The comparitive resistors fail easily

c)

They are less efficient than a ratiometer

134.

In a rotating vane type fuel flow meter, what prevents any electrical transmitter friction from affecting the movement of the vane?

a)

magnetic coupling

b)

potentiometer

c)

rotor

135.

In a rotating vane tyoe fuel flow meter, what is fitted at the top of the fuel chamber to relieve and bypass excess fuel flow when the flow is greater than the capacity of the tranmitter or the vane movemnt becomes jammed and restricts the fuel flow?

a)

Relief valve

b)

Bypass valve

c)

Tranmission valve

136.

What is the puropose of the spring in a turbine type fuel flow measurement?

a)

Prevents the turbine from completing a quater rotation

b)

Prevents the turbine from completing a half rotation

c)

Prevents the turbine from completing a full rotation

137.

Which type of transducer is used to convert the speed of the turbine to an elecctrical signal to be used by an advanced fuel gauge to produce a variety of readouts and warnings in a piston engine fuel flow system?

a)

Hall effect

b)

Piezoelectric

c)

Capacitive

138.

When an engine is idiling, the MAP is likely to be less than how much atmospheric pressure?

a)

One half

b)

One quater

c)

One third

139.

In a MAP gauge, what protects the mechaniism from pulsing and pressure surges?

a)

The choke

b)

The filter

c)

The vent in the case

140.

What is the name for the shaft mounted so that it forms a sleeve around the torque shaft in a torque shaft indication system?

a)

Reference shaft

b)

Solid shaft

c)

Bending shaft

141.

Which part of a torque shaft system is not subject to any torque as it is only connected to the engine?

a)

Reference shaft

b)

Torque shaft

c)

Main shaft

142.

The signals from both pick up assembilies are fed to which part of a torque shaft indication system?

a)

Torque assembly

b)

Phase detector

c)

Torque indicator

143.

What is the first stage of the reduction in a gear axial loading type torque system?

a)

The helical power train drive gear driving the larger diameter gear on the helical torquemeter gear shaft

b)

The smaller diameter gear on the helical torquemeter driving the helical power take off gear shaft

144.

What is used in place of inductive pick off for data transmission in a load cell system?

a)

Carbon brushes

b)

Proximity sensors

c)

Infrared light

145.

What is the advantage of a load cell torque system?

a)

Within 1% accuracy

b)

Long lifespan

c)

Rhobusttness

146.

The flexible drive having a limited wear life - not reccomended to use over more than 25 feet and is limited to a 9-inch bend radius is related to which type of tachometer?

a)

Mechaincal

b)

Electrical

c)

Hyrdualic

147.

Which tachometer is an engine driven, permanent magnet, three phase AC generator which the generator drives a synchornous motor in the indicator?

a)

Mechanical

b)

Electrical

c)

Hyrdraulic

148.

Which aircraft type are most likley to use the inductive pick off/phoic wheel type sensor for torque indication?

a)

turboprop

b)

turbofan

c)

piston

149.

The two accelerometers in an EVM are mounted at which angle to the compressor/turbine shafts?

a)

Right angles

b)

Parallel

c)

Randomly

150.

A series wound electric motor has a high starting torque which is suitable for turning which engine against mechincal friction and cylinder compression?

a)

Piston engine

b)

Gas turbine engine

c)

turboprop

151.

In an inertia engauged jaw clutch electric starting system, why is the slipping fricton cluth incorporated?

a)

Prevent shock loading as the linear motion of the starter jaw becomes rotary motion

b)

Push the starter jaw into engaugement with the engine jaw in the accessory gearbox

c)

To get the starter jaw to reach the end of its travel as it begins to rotate

152.

Starter engaugement with the engine drive during engine start, torque limiting to prevent mechincal damage and starter disengagement from engine drive as speed increases above starter speed are all functions of which component in a Pawl type overrunning

a)

Clutch

b)

Motor

c)

Clutch drive spline

153.

What is the purpose of torque limiting in a pawl type overrunning clutch?

a)

Prevent the starter from applying excessive torque to the engine drive

b)

Prevenst the engine from driving the starter to "self destruct" speed

c)

Maintain a sel-sustaining speed

154.

To ensure a start is not carried out on a single TRU and the engine gauging systems are all powered for the start in all conditions

a)

All DC power systems are powered by one AC generator

b)

All DC power systems are powered by two AC generators

c)

All DC systems are powered by a back up battery

155.

The featuures of the starting control circuit, reverse current relay and generator control panel are all preformed by whcih unit?

a)

GCU

b)

Generator

c)

Bue tie

156.

Light weight and simple and economical operation are all advtanges of which starting system?

a)

Starter generator

b)

Magneto

c)

Pneumatic

157.

In a pneumatic starting system, at what percentaage N2 does the centrifugal switch open?

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

70%

158.

What prevents the holding relay from re-energising in a pneumatic starting system?

a)

Open starter switch

b)

Centrifugal switch

c)

Air control valve solenoid

159.

Which positions are the igniter plus located on a gas turbine engine?

a)

4 and 8 o clock

b)

2 and 10 o clock

c)

5 and 7 o clock

160.

In FADEC applications a different channel is used consecutive to prevent what on the igniter plug adn ensure integurity?

a)

Carbon build up

b)

Gunk build up

c)

Dicoolouration

161.

The time limit placed on the operation of the ignition system by the manufacturer to prevent heat damage to its components is called?

a)

Duty cycle

b)

Life cycle

c)

Spin cycle

162.

What is used for igniting in extremely cold enviroments?

a)

Glow plug

b)

Flame plugs

c)

Spark plugs