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WorksheetsRECALLS_PATHO-LAB_Hemodynamics...
Total questions: 69
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Accumulation of fluid in the tissues.
a)
Edema
b)
Effusion
c)
Hydroperitoneum
d)
Hydropericardium
2.
Accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity
a)
Edema
b)
Effusion
c)
Hydroperitoneum
d)
Hydropericardium
3.
Conditions leading to inadequate synthesis or increased loss of ___ from the circulation are common causes of reduced plasma oncotic pressure.
a)
Transudate
b)
Proteins
c)
Albumin
d)
Endothelin
4.
Non-inflammatory edema and effusions are protein-poor fluids called __.
a)
Proteins
b)
Albumin
c)
Endothelin
d)
Transudate
5.
Microscopically, it is appreciated as clearing and separation of the extracellular matrix and subtle cell swelling; most commonly in subcutaneous tissues, lungs, and brain.
a)
Edema
b)
Effusion
c)
Hydroperitoneum
d)
Hydropericardium
6.
Effusions involving the pleural cavity
a)
Hydroperitoneum
b)
Hydrothorax
c)
Hydropericardium
d)
Hyperemia
7.
Effusions involving the pericardial cavity
a)
Hydroperitoneum
b)
Hydrothorax
c)
Hydropericardium
d)
Hyperemia
8.
Effusions involving the pericardial cavity
a)
Hydropericardium
b)
Hydrothorax
c)
Hyperemia
d)
Hydroperitoneum
9.
An active process in which arteriolar dilation (e.g., at sites of inflammation or in skeletal muscle during exercise) leads to increased blood flow; affected tissues turn red (erythema)
a)
Hyperemia
b)
Hydroperitoneum
c)
Hydropericardium
d)
Hydrothorax
10.
A passive process resulting from reduced outflow of blood from a tissue.
a)
Heart failure
b)
Congestion
c)
Chronic pulmonary congestion
d)
Acute pulmonary congestion
11.
Chronically congested tissues will produce capillary rupture and small hemorrhagic foci; subsequent catabolism of extravasated red cells can leave residual telltale clusters of hemosiderin-laden macrophages called __.
a)
Chronic pulmonary congestion
b)
Acute pulmonary congestion
c)
Heart failure cells
d)
Congestion
12.
Microscopic finding of the lung: thickened or fibrotic alveolar septa, numerous hemosiderin-laden macrophages (heart-failure cells) in the alveoli.
a)
Heart failure cells
b)
Acute pulmonary congestion
c)
Congestion
d)
Chronic pulmonary congestion
13.
Diagnosis of a liver condition where macroscopically cut section of the liver looks like a cut nutmeg.
a)
Chronic hepatic congestion
b)
Heart failure cells
c)
Acute pulmonary congestion
d)
Congestion
14.
Disc-shaped anucleate cell fragments that are shed from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow in the bloodstream.
a)
Erythrocytes
b)
Thrombocytes
c)
Leukocytes
d)
Megakaryocytes
15.
A constituent of subendothelial connective tissue that acts as a bridge between the platelet surface receptor glycoprotein Ib (GpIb) and exposed collagen; mediator of platelet adhesion.
a)
Christmas Factor
b)
Hageman factor
c)
von Willebrand Factor
d)
Stuart-Power factor
16.
<br />Activated platelets also produce the prostaglandin ___, a potent inducer of platelet aggregation.<br />a. Plasmin<br />
a)
Plasmin
b)
Fibrin
c)
Endothelin
d)
Thromboxane A2
17.
This substance inhibits platelet aggregation and produces a mild bleeding defect by inhibiting cyclooxygenase, a platelet enzyme that is required for TxA2 synthesis.
a)
Aspirin
b)
Thrombin
c)
ADP
d)
Collagen
18.
The conformational change in glycoprotein IIb/IIIa that occurs with platelet activation allows binding of ___, a large bivalent plasma polypeptide that forms bridge BETWEEN adjacent platelets, leading to their aggregation
a)
Fibrin
b)
Fibrinogen
c)
Plasmin
d)
Plasminogen
19.
Inherited deficiency of GpIIb-IIIa results in a bleeding disorder called __.
a)
Von Willebrand disease
b)
Hemophilia A
c)
Glanzmann thrombasthenia
d)
Bernard Soulier syndrome
20.
A precisely orchestrated process involving platelets, clotting factors, and endothelium that occurs at the site of vascular injury and culminates in the formation of a blood clot, which serves to prevent or limit the extent of bleeding.
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
Platelet plug formation
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Hemostasis
21.
Occurs immediately and markedly reduces blood flow to the injured area
a)
Vasoconstriction
b)
Platelet plug formation
c)
Vasodilation
d)
Hemostasis
22.
A potent endothelium-derived vasoconstrictor.
a)
Plasmin
b)
Endothelin
c)
Fibrinogen
d)
Thrombin
23.
Tissue factor activates factor ___ until it culminates in thrombin generation.
a)
Factor II
b)
Factor X
c)
Factor VII
d)
Factor V
24.
Play a critical role in hemostasis by forming the primary plug that initially seals vascular defects and by providing a surface that binds and concentrates activated coagulation factors.
a)
Erythrocytes
b)
Leukocytes
c)
Megakaryocytes
d)
Thrombocytes
25.
Laboratory test that assesses the function of the proteins in the extrinsic pathway (factors VII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen).
a)
Prothrombin Time (PT)
b)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
26.
Laboratory test that assesses the function of the proteins in the intrinsic pathway (factors XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, and fibrinogen).
a)
Prothrombin Time (PT)
b)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
27.
Deficiency of coagulation factor __ does not cause bleeding but instead may cause thrombosis.
a)
Factor II
b)
Factor X
c)
Factor VII
d)
Factor V
28.
The most important coagulation factor that has various enzymatic activities that control diverse aspects of hemostasis and link clotting to inflammation and repair.
a)
Plasmin
b)
Fibrin
c)
Endothelin
d)
Thrombin
29.
Converts fibrinogen into crosslinked fibrin.
a)
Thrombin
b)
Plasmin
30.
Fibrinolysis is largely accomplished through the enzymatic activity of ___, which breaks down fibrin and interferes with its polymerization.
a)
Thrombin
b)
Plasmin
31.
Breakdown products of fibrinogen (often called fibrin split products), useful clinical markers of several thrombotic states.
a)
Thrombin
b)
Plasmin
c)
D-dimers
d)
Fibrin Degradation Products
32.
The most important plasminogen activator is ___; synthesized principally by endothelium.
a)
Thrombin
b)
Plasmin
c)
D-dimers
d)
Tissue Plasminogen Activator
33.
Activated protein C/ protein S complex is a potent inhibitor of coagulation factors __ and __.
a)
Factors Va and VIIIa
b)
Factors IX and X
c)
Factors Va and Vb
d)
Factors II and III
34.
Mechanism of action of heparin drugs
a)
Antifibrinogen
b)
Antithrombin
35.
Bleeding into joints called __ following minor trauma that is particularly characteristic of hemophilia.
a)
Ecchymoses
b)
Petechiae
c)
Hemarthrosis
d)
Purpura
36.
Hemorrhages sometimes simply called bruises are 1 to 2 cm in size.
a)
Petechiae
b)
Hemarthrosis
c)
Purpura
d)
Ecchymoses
37.
Extravasated Blood
a)
Hematoma
b)
Ecchymoses
c)
Petechiae
d)
Purpura
38.
Contributes to arterial and cardiac thrombosis by causing endothelial injury or dysfunction, as well as by forming countercurrents that contribute to local pockets of stasis.
a)
Statis
b)
Turbulence
39.
Hypercoagulability is also called as ____.
a)
Thrombocytopenia
b)
Leukopenia
c)
Thrombophilia
d)
Neutrophilia
40.
Included in Virchow triad, Except ___
a)
Endothelial injury
b)
Stasis
c)
Hypercoagulability
d)
Epithelial injury
41.
What is the most important factor in the Virchow triad?
a)
Endothelial injury
b)
Stasis
c)
Hypercoagulability
42.
Inherited hypercoagulability state where the Arg to Glu substitution in amino acid residue 506 leading to resistance to activated protein C.
a)
Sickle cell disease
b)
Factor V mutation ( Factor V Leiden)
43.
Cystathione β-synthetase inherited deficiency leads to elevated___; contributor of arterial and venous thrombosis.
a)
Factor V Leiden
b)
Single Nucleotide Change
c)
Homocysteine
d)
Protein S deficiency
44.
Unfractionated heparin induces the appearance of antibodies that recognize complexes of heparin and platelet factor 4 on the surface of platelets. Binding of these antibodies to platelets results in activation, aggregation, and consumption (hence the name in the syndrome).
a)
Anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome (APAS)
b)
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
c)
Necrosis
d)
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia syndrome (HITs)
45.
This syndrome has protean clinical manifestations, including recurrent thromboses, repeated miscarriages, cardiac valve vegetations, and thrombocytopenia.
a)
Anti-phospholipid antibody syndrome (APAS)
b)
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
c)
Necrosis
d)
Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia syndrome (HITs)
46.
Arterial or cardiac thrombi usually begin at sites of turbulence or endothelial injury; tend to grow ____.
a)
Anterograde
b)
Retograde
47.
Laminations of pale platelet and fibrin deposits alternating with darker red cell-rich layers.
a)
Mural thrombi
b)
Red Infarcts
c)
Lines of Zahn
d)
White Infarcts
48.
Thrombi occurring in heart chambers or in the aortic lumen are designated as __.
a)
Thromboemboli
b)
Vegetations
c)
Arterial emboli
d)
Mural thrombi
49.
Thrombi on heart valves are called ___.
a)
Vegetations
b)
Mural thrombi
50.
DVTs are asymptomatic in approximately 50% of affected individuals; due to opening of venous collateral channels.
a)
false
b)
true
51.
A venous embolus that pass through an interatrial or interventricular defect and gains access to the systemic arterial circulation.
a)
Air embolism
b)
Fat and marrow embolism
c)
Paradoxical embolism
d)
Amniotic fluid embolism
52.
Condition where gas bubbles within the circulation can coalesce to form frothy masses that obstruct vascular flow and cause distal ischemic injury.
a)
Caisson Disease
b)
Fat and marrow embolism
c)
Paradoxical embolism
d)
Air embolism
53.
A more chronic from of decompression sickness; the persistence of gas emboli in the skeletal system leads to multiple foci of ischemic necrosis, the more common sites are the femoral heads, tibia, and humeri.
a)
Caisson Disease
b)
Fat and marrow embolism
c)
Paradoxical embolism
d)
Air embolism
54.
Classic findings in autopsy include the presence of squamous cells shed from fetal skin, lanugo hair, fat from vernix caseosa, and mucin derived from the fetal respiratory or GI tract in the maternal pulmonary microvasculature.
a)
Air embolism
b)
Amniotic fluid embolism
c)
Fat and marrow embolism
d)
Paradoxical embolism
55.
Type of infarct in tissues with dual circulations (e.g., lung and small intestine) that allow blood to flow from an unobstructed parallel supply into a necrotic zone.
a)
Pink infarct
b)
Yellow infarct
c)
Red Infarct
d)
White Infarct
56.
Type of infarct that occur with arterial occlusions in solid organs with end-arterial circulation (e.g., heart, spleen, and kidney), and when tissue density limits the seepage of blood from adjoining capillary beds into the necrotic area.
a)
Pink infarct
b)
Yellow infarct
c)
Red Infarct
d)
White Infarct
57.
Occurs when infected cardiac valve vegetations embolize or when microbes seed necrotic tissues.
a)
Septic infarction
b)
Shock
c)
Cardiogenic shock
d)
Hypovolemic shock
58.
A state in which diminished cardiac output or reduced effective circulating blood volume impairs tissue perfusion and leads to cellular hypoxia.
a)
Septic infarction
b)
Shock
c)
Cardiogenic shock
d)
Hypovolemic shock
59.
Shock that results from low cardiac output due to myocardial pump failure.
a)
Septic infarction
b)
Shock
c)
Cardiogenic shock
d)
Hypovolemic shock
60.
Shock that result from low cardiac output due to low blood volume (e.g., massive haemorrhage or severe burns).<br />
a)
Septic infarction
b)
Shock
c)
Cardiogenic shock
d)
Hypovolemic shock
61.
Shock that result from bacterial, viral or fungal infections; it is a systemic inflammatory condition characterized by endothelial cell activation, tissue edema, DIC, and metabolic derangements that often lead to organ failure and death.
a)
Shock associated with systemic inflammation
b)
Neurogenic shock
c)
Anaphylactic shock
d)
Acute tubular necrosis
62.
Shock that results from an anesthetic accident or a spinal cord injury.
a)
Shock associated with systemic inflammation
b)
Neurogenic shock
c)
Anaphylactic shock
d)
Acute tubular necrosis
63.
Shock that result from an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
a)
Shock associated with systemic inflammation
b)
Neurogenic shock
c)
Anaphylactic shock
d)
Acute tubular necrosis
64.
Cellular changes in the kidneys induced by cardiogenic or hypovolemic shock.
a)
Shock associated with systemic inflammation
b)
Neurogenic shock
c)
Anaphylactic shock
d)
Acute tubular necrosis
65.
Septic shock is most frequently triggered by 3 microorganisms (descending order):
a)
Gram (+), Gram (-), Fungi
b)
Gram (-), Gram (+), Fungi
66.
Cellular changes in the lungs caused by sepsis or trauma; so called shock lung.
a)
Pulmonary embolism
b)
Diffuse alveolar damage
c)
Alveolar necrosis
67.
<br />Cellular changes in septic shock leading to DIC, except:<br />
a)
Fibrin-rich microthrombi
b)
Petechial hemorrhages
c)
None of the choices
68.
Shock characterized by warm and flushed skin because of peripheral vasodilation.
a)
Cardiogenic shock
b)
Anaphylactic shock
c)
Hypovolemic shock
d)
Septic shock
69.
Shock characterized by hypotension; weak, rapid pulse; tachypnea; and cool, clammy, cyanotic skin.
a)
Both
b)
Neither
c)
Cardiogenic shock
d)
Hypovolemic shock
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