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Genetics and Evolutionary Biology Quiz Buster

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 1hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following events occurs in Anaphase of Mitosis?

a)

Nuclear envelopes form around chromosomes

b)

Chromatin condenses into chromosomes

c)

Chromosomes align

d)

Sister chromatids seperate

e)

Homologous chromosomes move towards opposite poles

2.

A medical technician analysing a blood sample in a clinical lab determines that the blood has both A and B antigens present on the surface. Therefore, the antigens are exhibiting a genetic characteristic known as:

a)

Simple dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Partial dominance

d)

Semi-dominance

e)

Co-dominance

3.

In eukaryotes, _______ occurs for growth and repair while ______ occurs for sexual reproduction.

a)

Mitosis and Meiosis; Meiosis

b)

Mitosis; Meiosis

c)

Meiosis; Mitosis

d)

Binary fission; Meiosis

e)

Mitosis; Binary fission

4.

Binary fission is:

a)

The combination of 2 cells to create 1 giant cell

b)

Cell division by meiosis

c)

Cell division in prokaryotes, creating 2 genetically identical daughter cells

d)

Cell division in eukaryotes, creating 2 genetically identical daughter cells

5.

In a diploid cell with 4 chromosome pairs (2n=8), how many sister chromatids will be found in the nucelus at prophase of mitosis?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

8

d)

16

e)

32

6.

What is the mode of inheritance of the following pedigree?

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal dominant

c)

X linked dominant

d)

X linked recessive

7.

Centromeres are:

a)

Positively charged proteins

b)

Isolated chromatin from interphase cells

c)

Constricted region of a chromosome that connects sister chromatids

d)

Part of the chromosome that protects the end from DNase

8.

What is the structural component of nucleic acids?

a)

Phosphate

b)

Sugar

c)

Base

d)

All of the structures listed are present in nucleic acids

9.

The enzyme DNA polymerase requires:

a)

Template RNA strand

b)

rNTPs

c)

Mn2+

d)

Primer DNA with free 3'OH

10.

The three phases of transcription are:

a)

Initiation, synthesis, deletion

b)

Initiation, elongation, deletion

c)

Initiation, elongation, termination

d)

Initiation, synthesis, termination

11.

Which of the following is NOT part of the process of replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Crossing over

c)

Okazaki fragments

d)

Topoisomerase

e)

Exonuclease activity

12.

What typically determines the sex of a human?

a)

The presence of the X chromosome

b)

The presence of the Y chromosome

c)

X inactivation

d)

Crossing over during meiosis

13.

Which of the following is FALSE about endonucleases?

a)

Bacteria's DNA is protected from them by methylation

b)

Only cut DNA at specific nucleotide sequences

c)

Cleave the phosphodiester bonds between nucleic acids

d)

Produced by bacteria as a defence mechanism against bacteriophages

14.

Which of the following is not an essential feature of cloning vectors?

a)

Recessive selectable marker

b)

Origin of replication

c)

Unique restriction endonuclease cleave site

d)

Ability to fit desired DNA fragment

15.

Out of the following, which would be the most appropriate to clone a 400kb DNA fragment?

a)

Bacteriophage

b)

Cosmid

c)

YAC

d)

BAC

16.

In gel electrophoresis, DNA is seperated based on:

a)

Negative charge

b)

Charge and size

c)

Size

d)

Positive charge

17.

Which is false about cDNA libraries?

a)

Created by reverse transcription

b)

Composed of all the genes expressed in the tissue

c)

Contains mRNA copies

d)

Construction involves mRNA isolation

18.

Consider the DNA molecule below. Which of the following DNA molecules is most likely to bind to the sticky end of this molecule?

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

What is the sequence of the DNA complementary strand based on the following Sanger sequencing data?

a)

3’ – ATGCCAGTA – 5’

b)

5’ – TACGGTCAT – 3’

c)

3’ – TACGGTCAT – 5’

d)

5’ – ATGCCAGTA – 3’

20.

Which of the following is true of both Sanger Sequencing and Automated Sequencing?

a)

The four reactions are added to different beakers

b)

Each ddNTP has a tag attached

c)

Each reaction is loaded into separate lanes for electrophoresis

d)

DNA immobilization is an important step

21.

Which of the following is the correct definition for restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)?

a)

Specific set of SNPs and other genetic variants observed on a single chromosome or part of a chromosome

b)

Certain DNA motifs repeated (the same motif but at different rates) distributed throughout the genome

c)

A site in the genome where a person differs by a single base pair is called a single nucleotide polymorphism

d)

When the same restriction enzymes make different sized fragments in people due to genome differences.

22.

Compare known sequences in the database with newly sequenced genomic DNA using BLAST tool. What does BLAST stand for?

a)

Basic Local Assimilated Search Tool

b)

Basic Local Alignment Search Tool

c)

Brilliant Local Assimilated Search Tool

d)

Brilliant Local Alignment Search Tool

23.

Which of the following was NOT an aspect of what Lamarck believed about evolutionary biology?

a)

Species change through time

b)

Evolutionary change is imperceptible

c)

Evolution occurs through adaptation to the environment

d)

Species are related to each other by common descent

e)

Discrete genes are the method through which traits are inherited

24.

The upper forelimbs of humans and bats have similar skeletal structures, whereas the corresponding bones in whales have very different shapes and proportions. Genetic data suggest that all three diverged from a common ancestor. Which is the most likely explanation for this difference?

a)

Whales are not mammals, bats and humans are

b)

Humans and bats developed structures through natural selection, whales did not

c)

Natural selection in an aquatic environment resulted in these significant changes

d)

Whales mutate faster than other species, that is why they are so different

e)

Forelimb evolution was adaptive in humans and bats, but not in whales

25.

Which of the following is NOT a weakness of Darwinism?

a)

No specific theory for the evolution of complexity

b)

Saw heredity as a blending phenomenon

c)

Was not able to identify a mechanism of inheritance

d)

Believed in special creation and that strata represented catastrophic events which were responsible for the complete removal of species

26.

Which of the following conditions would cause a population to fall out of Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Extremely large population size

c)

No gene flow

d)

Random mating

e)

No mutation

27.

Robins typically lay four eggs. If more than four eggs are produced then the baby chick are malnourished, while smaller egg counts result in no viable baby chicks, this is an example of...

a)

Disruptive selection

b)

Directional selection

c)

Stabilising selection

d)

Artificial selection

28.

Which of the following is not an effect of small populations?

a)

Inbreeding depression

b)

Loss of genetic diversity

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Gene flow

29.

Which of the following correctly labels Taxa 1, 2 and 3?

a)

1-Monophyletic; 2-Paraphyletic; 3-Polyphyletic

b)

1-Monophyletic; 2-Polyphyletic; 3-Paraphyletic

c)

1-Polyphyletic; 2-Paraphyletic; 3-Monophyletic

d)

1-Polyphyletic; 2-Monophyletic; 3-Paraphyletic

30.

Name and explain Mendel's 3 principles of inheritance.

4 lines
31.

What is dosage compensation of X-linked genes?

4 lines
32.

Explain which phase of meiosis non-disjunction is worse to occur and why?

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33.

Describe the steps of PCR.

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34.

List two differences between genomic libraries and cDNA libraries.

4 lines
35.

Explain the difference between gene flow and genetic drift, include how each occurs.

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36.

Explain the three levels of DNA packaging and size of the DNA at each stage.

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