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Day 14 - Networking and Security I - Final Review

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following upper layers of the OSI model are responsible for communicating between hosts?

a)

Application, Session, Transport

b)

Application, Presentation, Session

c)

Application, Data Link, Session

d)

Application, Session, Presentation

2.

________ sends and receives information in the form of bits

a)

Layer 1

b)

Layer 2

c)

Layer 3

d)

Layer 4

3.

________ are stripped off at their receiving router, and the original packet is left completely intact

a)

Packets

b)

Packet frames

c)

Sub layers

d)

IEEE

4.

MAC defines how packets are placed on the media.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

_______ are located at layer 3 and provide the routing services with an internetwork

a)

Packets

b)

Frames

c)

Routers

d)

Physical topologies

6.

TCP and UDP both work at Layer 4

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The session layer keeps applications’ data separate from other applications’ data

a)

True

b)

False

8.

MAC reservations assign specific _______ to specific MAC addresses.

a)

pools

b)

TTL

c)

Networks

d)

IP addresses

9.

Which of the following upper layers of OSI model are responsible for defining how data is transmitted from end to end?

a)

Transport, Network, Data Link, Physical

b)

Transport, Network, Application, Data Link

c)

Transport, Network, Presentation, Physical

d)

Transport, Network, Presentation, Data Link

10.

The _____ layer of the OSI model is responsible for data translation and code formatting.

a)

presentation

b)

Session

c)

Network

d)

Physical

11.

The Data Link layer of the OSI model is responsible for all of the following except:

a)

formatting messages into frames

b)

tracking the location of devices on a network

c)

adding headers to messages

d)

ensuring proper delivery of messages based on hardware MAC addresses

12.

The _____ layer of the OSI model is responsible for transporting traffic between devices that are not locally attached.

a)

Physical

b)

Session

c)

Network

d)

Transport

13.

The _____ layer of the OSI model is responsible for organizing network communication in one of three different modes.

a)

Network

b)

Transport

c)

Application

d)

Session

14.

TCP and UDP both operate at the _____ layer of the OSI model.

a)

Transport

b)

Application

c)

Network

d)

Session

15.

In a _____ topology, each computer is directly connected to other computers within the same network.

a)

Ring

b)

Star

c)

Mesh

d)

Bus

16.

The infrastructure wireless network topology most closely resembles the _____ wired network topology.

a)

Star

b)

Mesh

c)

Ring

d)

Bus

17.

The Internet is the largest _____ in existence.

a)

LAN

b)

MAN

c)

WAN

d)

WLAN

18.

A _____ is similar to a LAN, but it spans an entire city or campus.

a)

WLAN

b)

WAN

c)

MAN

d)

SAN

19.

A _____ can be described as a server that presents a group of hard disks as virtual disks over a network.

a)

WLAN

b)

WAN

c)

MAN

d)

SAN

20.

Which of the following network services assigns IP addresses to hosts based on information provided by a server?

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

NTP

d)

IPAM

21.

Which layers of the TCP/IP model are responsible for ensuring end-to-end message integrity and error recovery?

a)

Application

b)

Transport

c)

Internet

d)

Network

22.

IP resides at which layer of the OSI model?

a)

Session

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Physical

23.

The OSI Model was designated to facilitate the migration of data between incompatible versions or systems.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Connectionless protocols are less reliable but faster.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Which TCP/IP diagnostics utilities make use of ICMP? (Choose any two)

a)

Traceroute

b)

Route

c)

Ipconfig

d)

Ping

26.

Which network communication characteristic is determined at the Transport layer of the OSI Model?

a)

Half duplex vs Full duplex

b)

Data flow rate

c)

The best route to the destination

d)

Connection oriented vs connectionless communication

27.

Which protocols are operated at the Application layer of the OSI Model? (Choose any two)

a)

HTTP

b)

TCP

c)

FTP

d)

IP

28.

Which protocol breaks large blocks of information from an application and breaks them into smaller segments?

a)

IP

b)

UDP

c)

ICMP

d)

TCP

29.

Which of the following statements concerning UDP is true?

a)

UDP performs error recovery

b)

UDP is used for applications that require high reliability

c)

UDP is slower than TCP because UDP requires time to perform handshaking.

d)

UDP performs error checking but simply discards erroneous packets

30.

DNS is located on TCP port _____.

a)

22

b)

53

c)

69

d)

123

31.

SSH is located on TCP port _____.

a)

22

b)

44

c)

26

d)

51

32.

A(n) _____ is a frame or packet addressed to all machines that is almost always limited to a broadcast domain.

a)

broadcast

b)

collision

c)

PDU

d)

MTU

33.

Which of the following statements concerning VLANs is true?

a)

Trunks lines used for VLANs are either a 1000 Mbps or 10 Gbps

b)

When compared to static VLANs, dynamic VLANs are easier to set up.

c)

Static VLANs are more secure than dynamic VLANs

d)

When compared to static VLANs, dynamic VLANs are much more difficult

34.

_____ _____ allows the sniffing of traffic on a network when using a switch.

a)

True spanning

b)

Port mirroring

c)

MAC addressing

d)

VLAN tagging

35.

Why was IPv6 originally created?

a)

due to the need for a more robust 32-bit addressing system

b)

due to the need to limit the use of multiple addresses for hosts

c)

due to the need to limit the use of multiple addresses for networks

d)

due to the limited number of available IPv4 addresses

36.

_____ rules control how much bandwidth can be used by a protocol, user, PC, IP address, or VLAN.

a)

Latency

b)

QoS

c)

Frequency

d)

Load

37.

Assume that you need to have secure communications using HTTPS. What port number is used by default?

a)

21

b)

23

c)

69

d)

443

38.

Which of the following protocols is used to find the hardware address of a local device?

a)

RARP

b)

ARP

c)

IP

d)

ICMP

39.

Which Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection, and what is the default port number?

a)

IP ; 6

b)

TCP ; 2

c)

UDP ; 23

d)

TCP ; 23

40.

Which of the following protocols is used by email servers to exchange messages with one another?

a)

POP3

b)

IMAP

c)

SMTP

d)

HTTP

41.

Concerning private IP addresses, a class _____ private IP address falls in the range of 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

42.

Private ip addresses cannot be directly accessed by the internet.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Assume that you need to do some loopback testing. Which of the following IP addresses would you use

a)

172.16.0.1

b)

192.168.0.1

c)

127.0.0.1

d)

10.22.0.1

44.

A __________ is the exit point for all the packets in your network that have destinations outside your network

a)

Default Gateway

b)

Hub

c)

Switch

d)

Proxy Server

45.

In IP address of 10.20.12.44 and a 255.255.255.0 subnet mask, Which IP-address actually reflects the network ID section?

a)

44

b)

10.20

c)

10.20.12

d)

20.12.44

46.

Subnets create more broadcast domains which ultimately results in less traffic on each network segment.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Which of the following IP addresses is the (APIPA)?

a)

172.254.0.1

b)

169.254.255.254

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

192.168.0.2

48.

The _____ standard for wireless networks operates at the 5 GHz range and has a maximum data rate of up to 1 Gbps.

a)

802.11a

b)

802.11g

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11ac

49.

Regarding channel bandwidth, standard 802.11 defines 14 channels for the 2.4 GHz band that are rated at _____ MHz each.

a)

5

b)

10

c)

20

d)

40

50.

The _____________ is assigned by an Internet service provider (ISP) and are globally unique

a)

Private IP address

b)

Apipa Address

c)

Loopback Address

d)

Public IP Address

51.

Cloud services reserved strictly for the use of a single organization are known as _____ cloud services.

a)

private

b)

community

c)

public

d)

hybrid

52.

If the host is unable to find an IP address via DHCP it will be assigned a(n):

a)

Private IP Address

b)

Public IP Address

c)

APIPA

d)

Loopback

53.

What is the frequency range of the IEEE 802.11g standard?

a)

2.4 Gbps

b)

5 Gbps

c)

2.4 GHz

d)

5 GHz

54.

Which wireless standard allows you to channel-bond to increase bandwidth and uses both the 2.4GHz and 5GHz frequencies?

a)

802.11 a

b)

802.11 b

c)

802.11 g

d)

802.11 n

55.

How many non-overlapping channels are available with 802.11a?

a)

3

b)

12

c)

23

d)

40

56.

Class A Private IPv4 addresses network range is from:

a)

172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

b)

10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255

c)

224.0. 0.0 to 239.255. 255.255

d)

192.168.0.0 – 192.168.255.255

57.

NAT can be used for machines with private IP addresses that need to access the Internet

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Class _______ is reserved for Multicasting

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

59.

Class E addresses are reserved for experimental purposes and should not be used to address hosts or multicast groups.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

A ________ is a single IP address that can be used by multiple systems

a)

Private

b)

Virtual IP

c)

Public

d)

Apipa

61.

__________ divides broadcast domains, that means traffic is routed efficiently, improving speed and network performance.

a)

Subnetting

b)

Cellular

c)

CASBs

d)

None of the above

62.

______ Automatically assigns to a computer whenever the computer connects to the network

a)

DHCP

b)

DNS

c)

Default gateway

d)

None of the above

63.

A DHCP reservation is a permanent IP address assignment that is permanently reserved for a specific DHCP client

a)

True

b)

False

64.

802.11 a operates on the following frequency

a)

2 .4 GHz frequency

b)

5GHz frequency

c)

2.4& 5GHz frequency

d)

None of the above

65.

EUI allows a host to assign itself a unique 64 bit IPv6 interface identifier (EUI-64)

a)

True

b)

False