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Honors Civics Chapter 3 Review

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most state constitutions modeled themselves after

a)

the Declaration of Independence.

b)

the Constitution.

c)

the Articles of Confederation.

d)

English government.

2.

Unlike the Articles of Confederation, state constitutions contained

a)

power of national taxation.

b)

no provision for a military.

c)

a bill of rights.

d)

a means to buy and sell land.

3.

A confederation is

a)

a government that rebels against another.

b)

a government wherein states have more power than the national government.

c)

a government with no official religion.

d)

a government where the state and national governments share power.

4.

Which of these was NOT a weakness of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

no power of national taxation

b)

no means of buying and selling land

c)

no national military

d)

little central governmental power

5.

Which of the following is true of the Articles of Confederation?

a)

It was intentionally weak because the Founders were wary of strong national government.

b)

It was strong, as it gave state governments significant power for themselves.

c)

It was unintentionally weak, mainly because the Founders were poorly educated.

d)

It set up a governmental system very similar to British parliament.

6.

In an example of positive actions under the Articles of Confederation, new states were founded around the Great Lakes due to

a)

The Northwest Ordinance of 1787.

b)

the founding power of state constitutions.

c)

coordinated military action against Native American tribes.

d)

Shays' Rebellion.

7.

Which of the following was most directly responsible for the convening of the Constitutional Convention in 1787?

a)

The Northwest Ordinance of 1787

b)

Pontiac's War

c)

the signing of the Treaty of Paris with Great Britain

d)

Shays' Rebellion

8.

Why was Shays' Rebellion so important in early American history?

a)

It showed the strength of state militias in a confederacy.

b)

It succeeded in winning tangible benefits for veterans of the Revolution.

c)

Shays' Rebellion was relatively unimportant in early American history.

d)

It highlighted the weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation.

9.

The original goal of the Constitutional Convention was

a)

to write the Declaration of Independence.

b)

to amend the Articles of Confederation.

c)

to write a brand new Constitution for the country.

d)

to end the war against Great Britain.

10.

Which of the following arguably proved most important in the drafting of a new national constitution?

a)

collaboration with foreign powers

b)

the will of the Anti-Federalists to resist

c)

a willingness to compromise on important issues

d)

the input of Thomas Jefferson

11.

The two competing ideologies that emerged during the Constitutional Convention were

a)

Tories and Loyalists.

b)

Federalists and Loyalists.

c)

Loyalists and Anti-Federalists.

d)

Federalists and Anti-Federalists.

12.

Which of the following was NOT a well-known Federalist?

a)

John Jay

b)

James Madison

c)

Alexander Hamilton

d)

George Washington

13.

Which of the following was NOT a well-known Anti-Federalist?

a)

Patrick Henry

b)

George Mason

c)

John Adams

d)

Thomas Jefferson

14.

Generally speaking, the Anti-Federalists wanted

a)

a weaker national government and a bill of rights.

b)

a stronger national government but even stronger state governments.

c)

a weaker national government and a strong national military.

d)

a bill of rights and a powerful national government.

15.

The Virginia Plan proposed all of the following except:

a)

a strong national government

b)

a bicameral legislature

c)

equal representation

d)

more power for larger states

16.

The New Jersey plan generally wanted

a)

equal representation so large states couldn't wield undue influence.

b)

a weak national government.

c)

a bicameral legislature.

d)

the Senate to have monetary powers.

17.

A compromise to settle difference between the VA and NJ plans was eventually proposed by Roger Sherman, a delegate from

a)

Georgia

b)

Rhode Island

c)

Massachusetts

d)

Connecticut

18.

The Connecticut (Great) Compromise called for all of the following except:

a)

monetary powers to the House of Representatives

b)

a bicameral legislature with one house equal and the other dependent on population

c)

a strong national government

d)

a unicameral legislature

19.

The only part of the government set up at the Constitutional Convention to be chosen directly by the people was the

a)

Senate.

b)

House of Representatives.

c)

Presidency.

d)

Supreme Court.

20.

In Federalist 10, James Madison's main concern was

a)

how to strengthen the national government without trampling on states' rights.

b)

how to mitigate the influence of powerful special interests.

c)

the creation of a constitution closely reflecting English Parliament.

d)

the inclusion of a Bill of Rights.

21.

In the Federalist Papers, groups with special interests who work against the public good are called

a)

confederates.

b)

factions.

c)

conglomerates.

d)

rogues.

22.

When James Madison in Federalist 51 says that "ambition must be made to counter ambition," to what is he referring?

a)

the creation of a strong national military to prevent things like Shays' Rebellion

b)

establishing a system of Full Faith and Credit

c)

setting up a strong system of checks and balances

d)

the creation of an electoral college to choose the president

23.

The Framers of the Constitution were ultimately most concerned about the power of the

a)

executive branch.

b)

legislative branch.

c)

judicial branch.

d)

national military.

24.

Which of these was meant to settle a major disagreement between northern states and southern states, and was essential to the ratification of the Constitution?

a)

the Virginia Plan

b)

the Northwest Ordinance of 1787

c)

the Great Compromise

d)

the 3/5 Compromise

25.

Brutus I generally reflects the sentiments of the

a)

national legislature.

b)

Federalists.

c)

Constitutional Convention.

d)

anti-Federalists.

26.

"Many instances can be produced in which the people have voluntarily increased the powers of their rulers; but few, if any, in which rulers have willingly abridged their authority. This is a sufficient reason to induce you to be careful, in the first instance, how you deposit the powers of government."

This passage from Brutus I shows the author's wariness about

a)

giving the national government significant power.

b)

the choice of George Washington for president.

c)

having a Supreme Court with power of judicial review.

d)

the inclusion of a Bill of Rights in the Constitution.

27.

"This government is to possess absolute and uncontroulable power, legislative, executive and judicial, with respect to every object to which it extends, for by the last clause of section 8th, article 1st, it is declared 'that the Congress shall have  power to make all laws  which shall be necessary  and proper for carrying into execution the foregoing powers, and all other powers vested by this constitution, in the government of the United States; or in any department or office thereof.'"

This passage in Brutus I specifically raises a concern about which of the following?

a)

the Supreme Court

b)

the Executive Branch

c)

the Supremacy Clause

d)

the Elastic Clause

28.

The goals and intent of the Constitution are laid out in

a)

The Preamble.

b)

Article I.

c)

Article II.

d)

Article III.

29.

Article I of the Constitution deals with which of the following?

a)

the Legislative Branch

b)

the Executive Branch

c)

the Judicial Branch

d)

the national military

30.

Article I of the Constitution contains

a)

provisions for appointing military leaders.

b)

the Elastic Clause.

c)

the Supremacy Clause.

d)

the Full Faith and Credit Clause.

31.

Article II of the Constitution deals with the

a)

Legislative Branch.

b)

Executive Branch.

c)

Judicial Branch.

d)

national military.

32.

Article III of the Constitution deals with

a)

the Legislative Branch.

b)

the Executive Branch.

c)

the Judicial Branch.

d)

the national military.

33.

Article IV of the Constitution contains

a)

the Elastic Clause.

b)

provisions for a national military.

c)

the Supremacy Clause.

d)

the Full Faith and Credit Clause.

34.

Sending a criminal back to the place in which they allegedly committed a crime is called

a)

rendition.

b)

extraordinary rendition.

c)

extradition.

d)

intimation.

35.

Article V does which of the following?

a)

explains the states' relationship with each other

b)

declares the Constitution the Supreme Law of the Land

c)

discusses the make-up of the Electoral College

d)

explains the amendment process

36.

Article VI does which of the following?

a)

explains how the Constitution can be amended

b)

discusses the states' relationship with one another

c)

declares the Constitution the Supreme Law of the Land

d)

discusses the makeup of the Electoral College

37.

Article VII said that how many states needed to ratify the Constitution for it to take effect?

a)

7

b)

9

c)

11

d)

13

38.

How many amendments does the U.S. Constitution have?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

22

d)

27

39.

To propose an amendment, what proportion of Congress or national assembly must be attained?

a)

1/2

b)

2/3

c)

3/4

d)

3/5

40.

To ratify an amendment to the Constitution, what proportion of states must ratify?

a)

1/2

b)

2/3

c)

3/4

d)

3/5

41.

Which of the following is true of the amendment process?

a)

The Framers intended there to be many changes made to the Constitution.

b)

This process was made intentionally difficult in order to stabilize the government.

c)

The amendment process was meant to be used only to interpret the Constitution, not to change it.

d)

The Framers intended the amendment process to be much easier than it actually is.

42.

Powers specifically given in the Constitution to the national government are called

(a)  

43.

Powers not explicitly stated but still allowed for the national government in the Constitution are called

(a)  

44.

Powers given to the states rather than the national government by the Constitution are called

(a)  

45.

The power to declare a law unconstitutional rests with

a)

state legislatures.

b)

the president.

c)

the Supreme Court.

d)

the House of Representatives.

46.

The power to declare laws unconstitutional is called

(a)  

47.

Strict interpretation means

a)

one believes the Constitution only grants Congress the ability to do what is written.

b)

one believes the Constitution allows Congress to do more than what it directly written in the Constitution.

c)

one believes the Supreme Court is bound by precedent.

d)

one believes the President should have the ability to do more than what the Constitution says.

48.

The opposite of strict interpretation is

a)

lax interpretation

b)

relaxed interpretation

c)

implied interpretation

d)

loose interpretation

49.

The beginning of the Preamble, "We the People," firmly establishes a belief in which of the following?

a)

the power of factions

b)

full faith and credit

c)

popular sovereignty

d)

equality

50.

The ideas of separation of powers and checks and balances that so strongly influence the Constitution can be traced back to

a)

John Locke.

b)

Jean Jacques Rousseau.

c)

Montesquieu.

d)

The Magna Carta.

51.

Powers that both the state and national governments share are called

(a)  

52.

Which of the following is an example of a concurrent power?

a)

school administration

b)

appointing Supreme Court justices

c)

taxation

d)

licensing drivers

53.

When the Declaration of Independence was published...

a)

the British attacked the United States.

b)

colonial charters immediately became invalid.

c)

the United States now had a system of government.

d)

there was still potential for reconciliation with Great Britain.