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CPL-IR

Total questions: 107

Worksheet time: 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Static air pressure is...

a)

the amount of pressure exerted by a fluid that is not flowing

b)

only the weight of air pushing upwards

c)

only the weight of air pushing downwards

d)

only the weight of air pushing sideways

2.

Dynamic pressure is...

a)

pressure due to movement of air

b)

pressure due to movement of electrons independent of an electrical field

c)

pressure exerted on an object by air when in a perfect vacuum

d)

pressure that is constantly changing

3.

The pressure measured or collected by a pitot probe consists of..

a)

static and dynamic pressure

b)

dynamic pressure

c)

static pressure

d)

ambient pressure

4.

The airspeed indicator requires...

a)

GPS to work

b)

dynamic and static pressure to work

c)

dynamic pressure only to work

d)

static pressure only to work

e)

dynamic and static pressure, and GPS to work

5.

The vertical speed indicator requires...

a)

GPS to work

b)

dynamic and static pressure to work

c)

dynamic pressure only to work

d)

static pressure only to work

e)

dynamic and static pressure, and GPS to work

6.

The altimeter requires...

a)

GPS to work

b)

dynamic and static pressure to work

c)

dynamic pressure only to work

d)

static pressure only to work

e)

dynamic and static pressure, and GPS to work

7.

Pitot heat is used to...

a)

remove any water from the air entering the pitot tube

b)

remove any water from the air entering the static vent

c)

prevent or remove any ice from the pitot head

d)

remove any ice from the static air pressure system

8.

Looking at the Christchurch ATIS in the picture, what is the density altitude?

a)

1733 feet

b)

1610 feet

c)

803 feet

d)

1033 feet

9.

Compressibility error causes...

a)

the airspeed indicator to over read

b)

the airspeed indicator to under read

c)

the altimeter to under read

d)

the altimeter to over read

10.

As you increase altitude in an aircraft...

a)

TAS increases relative to IAS due to air density

b)

IAS increases relative to TAS due to air density

c)

TAS increases relative to IAS due to air instrument error

d)

IAS increases relative to TAS due to air instrument error

11.

You are flying from Dunedin to Christchurch. At Dunedin the QNH is 1015 and temperature +11 degrees Celsius. At Christchurch it is 1020 and +12 degrees Celsius.


Which statement is true?

a)

If you fly from Dunedin to Christchurch without changing your QNH, your altimeter will under read

b)

If you fly from Dunedin to Christchurch without changing your QNH, your altimeter will over read

c)

The QNH change will balance out the temperature change

d)

The temperature change will balance out the QNH change

12.

Position error is a well known error regarding the...

a)

Vertical Speed Indicator, Altimeter and Airpeed Indicator

b)

Vertical Speed Indicator only

c)

Altimeter only

d)

Airspeed Indicator only

13.

You are flying south from point A (in the north) to point B (in the south). At point A, the temperature is 15 degrees Celsius and QNH is 1010 hPa. At point B, the temperature is 21 degrees Celsius and QNH is 1010 hPa. Which statement is correct?

a)

Air density at the destination is lower than at the origin

b)

Air density at the origin is lower than at the destination

c)

Density altitude is the same at both A and B

d)

Pressure altitude is the same at both A and B

14.

Climbing through 6000 feet, you pitot tube becomes blocked due to icing but your static vent remains clear.


Select all instruments which will be affected.

a)

Altimeter

b)

Airspeed Indicator

c)

Vertical Speed Indicator

d)

Direction Indicator

e)

Manifold Air Pressure gauge

15.

Select the correct tolerances for an altimeter.


Select both a positive and a negative value

a)

+30 feet

b)

- 45 feet

c)

+ 60 feet

d)

+ 45 feet

e)

- 30 feet

16.

A Vertical Speed Indicator uses what device as part of the internal mechanism?

a)

Metering unit

b)

Bourdon tube

c)

Pitot tube

d)

Gyroscope

17.

A Vertical Speed Indicator is considered serviceable if, within a temperature range of -20o to +50o Celsius, it is accurate to within...

a)

+ or - 200 feet per minute

b)

+ or - 100 feet per minute

c)

+ or - 300 feet per minute

d)

+ or - 50 feet per minute

18.

On an airspeed indicator what does the bottom of the green band indicate?

a)

Stalling speed with landing gear and flaps up, and power off

b)

Stalling speed with landing gear and flaps down, and power off

c)

The maximum speed for flight in smooth air

d)

Maximum flap extension speed

19.

On the take off role you notice that the Vertical Speed Indicator indicates a slight rate of climb. This is likely to be due to...

a)

airflow past the static vent causing a lower pressure

b)

airflow past the pitot tube causing a lower pressure

c)

airflow past the static vent causing a higher pressure

d)

airflow past the pitot tube causing a higher pressure

20.

You are flying an aircraft with suction driven instruments. During flight, the static vent becomes blocked.


Select all instruments which will be affected?

a)

Altimeter

b)

Airspeed Indicator

c)

Direction Indicator

d)

Balance ball

e)

Turn coordinator

21.

Select the two qualities of a spinning gyroscope

a)

Precession

b)

Rigidity

c)

Suction

d)

Transference

e)

Resultant

22.

Select all types of systems which can be used to spin a gyroscopic rotor

a)

Venturi

b)

Vacuum

c)

Positive pressure

d)

Magnetic flux

23.

One of the qualities of a spinning gyroscope is that a force applied at one point is...

a)

felt 90 degrees further on in the plane of rotation

b)

felt 90 degrees prior in the plane of rotation

c)

unable to move the gyroscope except in the plane of rotation

d)

unable to move the gyroscope except in the opposite direction of the plane of rotation

24.

Select all of the different types of gyroscope

a)

Space

b)

Earth

c)

Tied

d)

Rate

e)

Free

25.

Which instrument is shown in the picture?

a)

Turn coordinator

b)

Turn indicator

c)

Turn display

d)

Turn and slip

26.

If an aircraft pulls out of a dive and is not in balanced flight, what can the turn indicator or coordinator be expected to do?

a)

The gyro will topple

b)

It will under read

c)

It will over read

d)

It will stick in the same position until negative g is applied

27.

It is possible for the cockpit instruments to indicate that the wings are level but the aircraft is turning....

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only if not fitted with a Turn Coordinator

d)

Only if not fitted with a Turn Indicator

28.

The balance ball...

a)

is driven a rate gyroscope

b)

has no power source

c)

is driven by an earth gyroscope

d)

is connected to the turn indicator or turn coordinator

29.

According to the picture, the aircraft is...

a)

in a turn to the right and is skidding

b)

in a turn to the right and is slipping

c)

has its right wing down and the aircraft is yawing

d)

yawing and the left wing is down

30.

Apparent drift is an error that applies to the _______________ and is caused by ____________ .

a)

direction indicator , rotation of the earth

b)

direction indicator , friction forces

c)

artificial horizon , friction forces

d)

artificial horizon , rotation of the earth

e)

turn coordinator , friction forces

31.

Which of the errors below is the artificial horizon subject to?

Select all that apply

a)

straight line acceleration

b)

turning error

c)

apparent drift

d)

actual drift

e)

gimbal error

32.

What type of gyroscope would you find in a Direction Indicator?

a)

Space

b)

Tied

c)

Earth

d)

Rate

33.

What is an advantage of a positive pressure gyroscopic system?

a)

Gyroscopic rotor speed can be maintained at high altitudes

b)

Gyroscopes will not topple

c)

The Artificial Horizon will not suffer from any errors

d)

The suction pump is under less of a strain and so will be more efficient

34.

Gyroscopic rigidity depends on a number of things. Two of these are...

a)

Rotational Velocity and Mass

b)

Gimbal Size and Rotational Velocity

c)

Mass and Air Density

d)

Gimbal size and Air Density

35.

What type of a gyroscope can be found in an Artificial Horizon?

a)

Earth gyro

b)

Tied gyro

c)

Space gyro

d)

Rate gyro

36.

In an Artificial Horizon the gyroscope is mounted so that...

a)

it's axis of rotation is vertical

b)

it's axis of rotation is horizontal and in line with the aircraft's wings

c)

it's axis of rotation is horizontal and in line with the longitudinal axis of the aircraft

d)

it cannot rotate beyond 55 degrees in pitch

37.

The Basic Empty Weight of an aircraft includes...

Select all that apply

a)

unusable fuel

b)

crew

c)

rations

d)

radios

38.

The Basic Operating Weight of an aircraft is also known as the...

a)

Aircraft prepared for service weight

b)

Zero fuel weight

c)

Gross weight

d)

All up weight

39.

The Basic Operating Weight of an aircraft includes...

a)

pilot/s and crew

b)

passengers

c)

fuel for the flight

d)

cargo

40.

Which of these are limitations?

Select all that apply

a)

Zero fuel weight

b)

Maximum certificated take off weight

c)

Maximum landing weight

d)

Ramp weight

41.

A lateral fuel imbalance in a light aircraft will cause...

a)

the nose to pitch up

b)

the nose to pitch down

c)

the aircraft to be unable to take off

d)

one wing to be heavier than another

42.

How many kilograms does 150 litres of Avgas weigh?

a)

208 kg

b)

108 kg

c)

75.6 kg

d)

36 kg

43.

Approximately how many litres in 90 US Gallons?

a)

342 litres

b)

23.68 litres

c)

198 litres

d)

125 litres

e)

40.91 litres

44.

Approximately how many kilograms are there in 900 pounds?

a)

409 kg

b)

1,980 kg

c)

648 kg

d)

237 kg

45.

Approximately how much does 135 US Gallons of fuel weigh?

a)

369 kg

b)

97 kg

c)

214 kg

d)

61 kg

46.

Given APS = 20000 lb, Fuel loaded = 3000 lb, Fuel burn = 2500 lb, and MCTOW = 40000 lb, MCLW = 35000 lb, MZFW = 29000 lb, What is the maximum payload you can carry

a)

9000 lb

b)

17000 lb

c)

14500 lb

d)

5000 lb

47.

Your AUW = 4800 kg and total moment = 604800. The CG is at STA 126, with CG limits between STA 123 and 128. You need to offload 200 kg from STA 161. What station will the new CG for the aircraft be at?

a)

124

b)

120

c)

130

d)

129

e)

121

48.

If a Station has a negative value, eg: STA -40, this means that...

a)

the station is in front of the datum

b)

the station is behind the datum

c)

weight must be removed from that station

d)

weight can be added to that datum

49.

Given: Gross weight = 1838 kg with CH at STA 27, MCTOW = 4000 kg. At which station can you load 240 kg of cargo to put the aircraft CG at STA 35?

a)

96

b)

27

c)

86

d)

43

50.

The Commercial Load is another name for...

a)

Payload

b)

Operating weight

c)

Gross weight

d)

Aircraft Prepared for Service weight

51.

Zero Fuel Weight is equal to...

a)

APSW + payload

b)

APSW + fuel

c)

Ramp weight + fuel

d)

Gross weight + fuel

52.

What is a GREAT CIRCLE?

a)

a regularly curved line on the surface of the earth which cuts through all meridians at the same angle

b)

the shortest and most convenient route over distances of less than lOOO nm

c)

represented as a line concave to the nearest pole on a mercator chart projection

d)

a circle whose centre and radius are the same as that of the earth

53.

What is the Magnetic Heading of an aircraft in the following circumstance?

VARIATION is 22°E, and

the RELATIVE Bearing of an object from the aircraft is 030°, and

the TRUE Bearing of the same object is 268°T

a)

036°M

b)

078°M

c)

216°M

d)

222°M

54.

What is the value of VARIATION in the following circumstance?

the MAGNETIC Bearing of an object from the aircraft is 040°M, and

the RELATIVE Bearing of an object from the aircraft is 350°R, and

the TRUE Heading of the aircraft is 060°T

a)

15°W

b)

10°E

c)

15°E

d)

10°W

55.

Produce a TRUE statement by inserting the correct set of words into this text

“The difference between True North and Magnetic North is called (i) _______ and it (ii) _________ “

a)

(i) variation (ii) remains the same around the globe

b)

(i) deviation (ii) varies around the globe

c)

(i) variation (ii) varies around the globe

d)

(i) deviation (ii) remains the same around the globe

56.

What is the relative bearing of Hokitika from your position given you are tracking directly to Hokitika and are allowing for 7°R drift?

a)

cannot be determined

b)

007°R

c)

353°R

d)

187°R

57.

Produce a TRUE statement by inserting the correct set of words into this text

“Variation is _________ “

a)

constant everywhere on earth

b)

used to calculate the difference between True and Magnetic Direction

c)

the difference between Compass and Magnetic Direction

d)

never used in navigation

58.

What is COMPASS Bearing given

VARIATION is 12°E, and

DEVIATION is 2°W, and

the RELATIVE Bearing of an object from the aircraft is 350°R, and

the TRUE Bearing of an aircraft is 082°T

a)

cannot be determined

b)

075°M

c)

072°C

d)

070°C

59.

Produce a TRUE statement by inserting the correct set of words into this text

“Meridians of longitude are _________ “

a)

perpendicular to each other

b)

lines joining the true geographic poles

c)

parallel to each other

d)

lines joining points of equal latitude

60.

What name is used to describe a line on a chart joining places of equal variation?

a)

an isobar

b)

an isotach

c)

an isograph

d)

an isogonal

61.

Which of the following is a small circle?

a)

parallels, other than the Equator

b)

parallels, including the Equator

c)

meridians of longitude

62.

Produce a TRUE statement by inserting the correct set of words into this text

“The earth rotates in a/an (i) _______ direction when viewed from above the North Pole and this direction is defined as (ii) _________ “

a)

(i) anti clockwise (ii) East

b)

(i) anti clockwise (ii) West

c)

(i) clockwise (ii) East

d)

(i) clockwise (ii) West

63.

What is CONVERGENCE?

a)

the reducing distance between meridians at higher latitudes

b)

the changing angle between great circle tracks and meridians

c)

the curve of a rhumb line as it approaches the pole

d)

The increasing curvature experienced when navigating on a great circle track

64.

What is a NAUTICAL MILE?

a)

the length of the arc of a great circle which subtends an angle of one degree at the earth's center

b)

length measure equivalent to 5280 meters

c)

the length of one sixtieth part of an arc of one degree at the earth's center of a great circle

d)

length measure exactly equal to 6070 meters

65.

What is the value of 1° of latitude?

a)

1 nm

b)

60 nm

c)

1 minute of meridianal arc

d)

24 nm

66.

Determine linear orientation expressed as degrees True, given 270°C, deviation of 4°W’ and variation of 22°E

a)

288°T

b)

296°T

c)

252°T

d)

270°T

67.

What is the volumetric equivalent to 85 US Gallons expressed as litres?

a)

315 litres

b)

322 litres

c)

345 litres

d)

330 litres

68.

What is equivalent length of 27 km expressed nautical mile length?

a)

10.2 nm

b)

14.6 nm

c)

35.5 nm

d)

13.2 nm

69.

What is the relative bearing of Wellington from your aircraft given you are tracking directly to Wellington and are allowing for 13° Left drift?

a)

cannot be determined

b)

013°R

c)

347°R

d)

167°R

70.

What is a RHUMB LINE?

a)

a line that intersects all meridians at the same angle

b)

the shortest distance between two points

c)

the graphical representation of the arc of a great circle drawn on the earth’s surface

d)

a line that intersects all lines of latitude at the same angle

71.

What word or phrase is used to describe the value of the angular interference from aircraft components that causes an altered reading to a magnetic compass?

a)

compass swing

b)

deviation

c)

alteration

d)

variation

72.

Convert 115 US Gallons to Litres

a)

435 Litres

b)

515 Litres

c)

385 Litres

d)

55 Litres

73.

What is 7.6 hours in minutes?

a)

456 minutes

b)

4560 minutes

c)

572 minutes

d)

5720 minutes

74.

Convert 327 minutes to hours

a)

5.45 hours

b)

5.75 hours

c)

5.10 hours

d)

6.20 hours

75.

Covert 25°C to °F

a)

77°F

b)

72°F

c)

81°F

d)

92°F

76.

Total fuel is 80 Imperial Gallons and fuel burn is 45.5 litres an hour. What is your safe endurance time for a daytime flight?

a)

7.5 hours

b)

6.35 hours

c)

8.9 hours

d)

9.2 hours

77.

Distance traveled is 255nm in 180 minutes. What is your speed in km?

a)

157km

b)

85km

c)

141km

d)

585km

78.

Chart scale is 1:250,000 and the chart distance you measure is 33cm. What is this in nm?

a)

82.5nm

b)

44.5nm

c)

64.5nm

d)

33.5nm

79.

QNH is ISA in NZCH and you plan to fly to Pukaki but forget to update the altimeter QNH on the way. If the pressure in Pukaki is 1015 hPa and you've maintaned the same indicated altitude the whole flight what will your true altitude be?

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

The same

d)

Higher then lower

80.

UTC is 1530, what is LMT at 72°30'W?

a)

1040

b)

1140

c)

0940

d)

1240

81.

CAS is 155kt with a pressure altitude of 3500ft and OAT of 10°C. What is TAS?

a)

164kt

b)

158kt

c)

160kt

d)

172kt

82.

You have 80 Gallons of fuel which is a total endurance of 5 hours. What is your fuel burn?

a)

16 GPH

b)

22GPH

c)

18GPH

d)

20GPH

83.

After traveling 33nm you realise you are 2nm port of track. If the total distance is 118nm and current heading is 303°M what is your total correction heading?

a)

308°M

b)

298°M

c)

315°M

d)

285°M

84.

You have been blown 3nm starboard of track after traveling 60nm. Your total distance is 70nm and your current heading is 116°M. What heading must you turn onto for total correction?

a)

095°M

b)

111°M

c)

121°M

d)

118°M

85.

Deviation is 2°E and your current heading is 249°M. What is your heading in °C?

a)

247°C

b)

251°C

c)

254°C

d)

244°C

86.

Variation is 23°W and your current heading is 033°C. If deviation is 3°W what is your heading in °T?

a)

007°T

b)

030°M

c)

036°M

d)

059°T

87.

You've flown 228nm and check your EET. You are early by 6 minutes. How many minutes early will you be if you still have another 424nm to go?

a)

17.2 minutes early

b)

19.2 minutes early

c)

18.2 minutes early

d)

22.2 minutes early

88.

Convert 169km into STAT.M

a)

105sm

b)

91sm

c)

125sm

d)

85sm

89.

What is 222 LTR of AVGAS in kg if the specific gravity is 0.72?

a)

160kg

b)

178kg

c)

195kg

d)

155kg

90.

What is 3288m in feet?

a)

10750ft

b)

10450ft

c)

1075ft

d)

1045ft

91.

If you have to climb 6500ft and you climb at 500ft per minute how long will it take you?

a)

13 minutes

b)

23 minutes

c)

6.5 minutes

d)

7.8 minutes

92.

If you descend at 1000ft per minute and and need to descend 7500ft, how much fuel do you use if you burn 30L and hour?

a)

3.75L

b)

7.55L

c)

8.75L

d)

4.55L

93.

Wind direction of 148/21 and a track of 221°M. What is heading and ground-speed if TAS is 150kt?

a)

203°M 142kt

b)

210°M 152kt

c)

195°M 132kt

d)

185°M 122kt

94.

What do co-ordinates look like in the AIP?

a)

Have the orientation N/S or E/W the numbers and units of the numbers

b)

Doesn't have the orientation N/S or E/W does have the numbers and units of the numbers

c)

Has just the numbers

d)

Have the orientation N/S or E/W and the numbers

95.

Mercator charts are:

a)

Cylindrical projections where the cylinder is slid down from north to south so that it is parallel to the axis of Earths rotation

b)

Cylindrical projections where the cylinder is slid down from east to west so that it is parallel to the axis of Earths rotation

c)

Conic projections where the cylinder is slid down from north to south so that it is parallel to the axis of Earths rotation

d)

Conic projections where the cylinder is slid down from east to west so that it is parallel to the axis of Earths rotation

96.

Select the one that is in the right order for cruise procedures

a)

Select nose attitude and power setting, trim, lean mixture, complete SADIE or CLEAR checks

b)

Lean the mixture, select nose attitude and power setting, trim, complete SADIE or CLEAR checks

c)

SADIE or CLEAR checks, lean mixture, select nose attitude and power setting, trim

d)

SADIE or CLEAR checks, lean mixture, trim, select nose attitude and power setting

97.

Call sign for aerodrome control ...

a)

ground

b)

tower

c)

control

d)

info

98.

The code for denoting the mean sea level pressure is...

a)

QNH

b)

QFE

c)

QFF

d)

QNE

99.

According to the categories of messages, which one from the messages below could not be handled by the aeronautical mobile service?

a)

Flight regularity messages

b)

Flight safety messages

c)

Communication to direction finding

d)

Aeronautical administrative messages

100.

"Have I correctly received the following?" or "Did you correctly receive this messages?"

a)

Negative

b)

Confirm

c)

Affirm

d)

Cleared

101.

Station having a requirement to transmit information to all stations likely to intercept should preface such transmission by..

a)

attention all aircraft

b)

General call "all station"

c)

to any station

d)

to all station concerned

102.

According to aircraft radiotelephony call sign procedure, which one from sample of aircraft call sign below contains a Radio Telephony Designator for Aircraft Operating Agency..

a)

PK GWQ

b)

INDONESIA KGEM

c)

CITATION VHEFS

d)

CESSNA PKDCG

103.

Azimuth of a runway is calibrated and indicates 129 degrees. The runway marking must be..

a)

Rwy 12-30

b)

Rwy 13-31

c)

Rwy 12-31

d)

Rwy 13-30

104.

Numbers containing a decimal point shall be transmited with a decimal in appropriate sequence. Example : 118.134 transmitted as..

a)

ONE ONE EIGHT POINT ONE THREE

b)

ONE ONE EIGHT DECIMAL ONE THREE FOUR

c)

ONE ONE EIGHT POINT ONE THREE FOUR

d)

ONE ONE EIGHT DECIMAL THREE

105.

"LNI 012 JAKARTA CONTROL GO AHEAD" by transmit the phrase go ahead indicating Jakarta Control request LNI 012...

a)

To reply Jakarta Control as soon as posible

b)

To make his transmission faster

c)

To proceed the transmission

d)

To make his transmission clearly

106.

The Area Control Centre shall be identified by..

a)

Director

b)

Control

c)

Approach

d)

Centre

107.

Static air pressure is...

a)

the amount of pressure exerted by a fluid that is not flowing

b)

only the weight of air pushing upwards

c)

only the weight of air pushing downwards

d)

only the weight of air pushing sideways

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Lily and Julia´s SECOND Quiz

quiz

Worksheet

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2nd - 3rd Grade

PEARLSPEADIA GENERAL STUDIES

104 questions

PEARLSPEADIA GENERAL STUDIES

quiz

Worksheet

•

1st Grade