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WorksheetsCattle Disease Final
Total questions: 113
Worksheet time: 4hrs 46mins
What is the causative agent associated with bovine warts?
Bovine papilloma virus
Bovine herpes virus
BRSV
Bovine Parainfluenza Virus
What animals are most at risk for warts?
7 year old beef cow raised on pasture
6 month old dairy heifer
5 year old boer buck
1 year old rabbit
What must be done if you diagnose chorioptic mange?
Report to your regulatory veterinarian
Treat all cattle in herd
Nothing
Treat herd with pyrethrin
How is dermatophilosis diagnosed?
Clinical signs
Direct microscopic examination of pus
Smell
Gross examination
What is one of the common dermatophytes in ruminants?
Trichophyton congolensis
Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Tricophyton papilloma
Tricophyton nodosus
What is the common term for dermatophytosis?
Roundworm
Bullseye
Itchworm
Ringworm
What is the usual duration of dermatophytosis?
1 -3 years
1 – 2 weeks
1 – 3 months
1 – 5 days
When is the best time to treat for hypoderma in cattle?
October
February
July
December
What is a clinical sign of a lice infestation?
Depression from being made fun of for having lice
Gastrointestinal stasis
Pale mucous membranes
Hypersalivation
How should lice infestation be treated?
2% Lime sulfur dip
Pyrethrin powder
Chlorohexidine scrub
Don’t treat, will die off in winter.
What is the most common types of mange that affect farm animals?
Chorioptes spp and demodex spp.
Sarcoptes spp. and Chorioptes spp.
Sarcoptes spp. and Psoroptes spp.
Demodex spp. And Psoroptes spp.
What will help in the diagnosis of Type III photosensitization?
Known ingestion of St. John’s wort
Known dosage of a sulfa drug
Known issue since birth
Elevated GGT, SDH
90% of bovine lameness is located where?
In the hip
In the hoof
In the humerus
In the head (psychogenic)
For the cow in the following picture, where is the lameness most likely located?
Front medial toes (bilateral)
Front lateral toes (bilateral)
One or both front fetlocks
One or both carpi
This cow is not lame, but has neurologic deficits to her front legs
Which of the following treatments is would be most likely to result in the quickest resolution of lameness for the following cow?
Bilateral Wooden Toe blocks on the Medial front toes
Bilateral Wooden Toe blocks on the Lateral front toes
Facilitated ankylosis
Cast application
All of the previous treatments will result in a quick resolution of clinical signs
The following statement(s) is true regarding foot rot in cattle:
Foot rot is commonly associated with D. nodosus and F. necrophorum
Foot rot is primarily an infection of the external soft tissues structures of the foot but can spread to the coffin joint, navicular structures, and the flexor tendon sheaths
Foot rot is associated with swelling, pain and red skin around the coronary band
All of the previous statements are true concerning foot rot in cattle
You examine a cow for lameness and find the following lesion.
What is this lesion?
Hairy Heel Wart (Digital Dermatitis)
Corn (Interdigital Fibroma)
Foot Rot (Interdigital Phlegmon)
Rusterholz Ulcer (Pododermatitis Circumscripta Ohio)
You examine a cow for lameness and find the following lesion.
What is the most appropriate treatment for this cow?
Oxytetracycline impregnated bandage on the foot
Cast application
Surgical debridement with primary closure
Intralesional formalin injections
You are presented with a 800 lb steer that has been “non-weight-bearing lame” on its left hind leg (it is not bearing any weight on its left hind leg) for 2 days. The owner is concerned that it is a fracture. They have been treating at home with Flunixin meglumine (a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug) with mild improvement. Physical examination did not reveal any areas that appear hot, swollen, painful, or unstable. Which of the following is the most likely differential?
Mid metatarsal fracture
Capital physeal fracture
Hoof abscess
Cranial cruciate ligament rupture
Please identify this instrument or its intended use
Checking for foot pain
Checking for patellar reflexes in large animals
Large Animal Bone holding forceps
Large Animal Tendon retractor
A good bovine lameness exam should begin with
Evaluation of Cranial Cruciate Ligaments
Observation of the animal as it walks
Radiographs of all 4 feet
Lunging in both directions
One of your clients has been feeding a very hot ration (high carbohydrate content) in the hopes of increasing his milk production. You diagnose several of his cows with laminitis among various other foot lesions. You explain to the farmer that many of the other foot lesions may be due to laminitis or subclinical laminitis. Which of the following hoof lesions is NOT a sequela to laminitis?
Rusterholtz ulcer (Pododermatitis Circumscripta
White line disease and abscessation
Corns (interdigital fibroma)
Horizontal Grooves (Hardship grooves)
When performing a lameness exam on a cow, which of the following is an Uncommon (Not Common) sign of lameness:
The cow spends less time on the lame leg
The cow comes down harder (with more force) on the sound leg
The cow has a shortened stride
The cow vocalizes when the lame leg contacts the ground
A farmer calls you out to examine a 5 day old Angus calf that cannot stand. You palpate instability at the mid-diaphyseal portion of the bone between the stifle and the hock. Which of the following would not be a viable option for stabilization of this fracture?
Internal fixation (plates or pins)
Transfixation pin cast
Cast
Thomas splint-cast combination
Which of the following would be a good candidate for application of a plain cast?
A calf with a Salter-Harris type 1 fracture of the distal metacarpus
A calf with a highly comminuted metacarpal fracture
A calf with a femur fracture.
A mature bull with a tibial fracture.
A cast placed on a mature Holstein cow should incorporate the foot.
True
False
A ventral coxofemoral luxation has a better prognosis than a dorsal luxation.
True
False
Which of the following is not commonly a clinical sign of a rupture cranial cruciate ligament in cattle?
Dependent effusion of the limb distal to the stifle.
Crepitus radiating from the stifle.
Severe lameness.
Stifle effusion
Which of the following has the best prognosis?
A dorsal hip luxation in a Holstein cow that occurred the night prior.
A cranial cruciate ligament rupture in a 2200lb bull.
A ventral hip luxation in a Holstein cow that occurred the night prior.
A dorsal hip luxation in a Holstein cow that occurred 3 days prior
Coating of bacteria by milk antibody in the udder is called:
Margination
Respiratory Burst
Opsonizing
Phagocytosis
Which of the following is not a natural defense mechanism that cow has at the teat end level?
Healthy teat skin
Orbeseal Plug
Teat sphincter
Keratin Plug
The peripheral immune system is generally not exposed to mastitis pathogens because of:
The blood-brain barrier
The internal teat sphincter
Furstenberg’s rosette
Blood-udder barrier
Which of the following lists of mastitis causing pathogens is INCORRECT?
Contagious = Staph. aureus, Strep.ag.
Environmental = Strep. uberis, Enterococcus, Coliforms
Contagious = Staph. aureus, Mycoplasma
Environmental = E. coli, Coag. negative staph.
Contagious = Strep. hyicus, Staph. aureus
Environmental = E. coli, Klebsiella, Enterococcus
Conatgious = Strep. ag., Mycoplasma
Environmental = Coliforms, Coag. negative staph., E. coli
Which mastitis pathogen is correctly paired with its primary “compartment”?
Staph. aureus = cow
E. coli = parenchyma
Strep. ag. = parenchyma
Strep. ag. = milk
Visible abnormality of the milk is always an indication of:
Subclinical mastitis
Clinical mastitis
Subclinical & Clinical mastitis
Staph. Aureus
Which of the following statements about the changes that happen to milk during a case of mastitis is NOT true:
The milk protein casein goes down
The Na and CL levels in the milk go up
Potassium level in the milk increases while the calcium level in milk decreases
Milk fat decreases
Which of the following is true about Dry Cow Therapy?
Dry cow therapy prevents new infections in the early dry period and helps control subclinical infections
Dry cow therapy prevents new infections early in lactation
Dry cow therapy is best used to treat clinical infections resulting in high cell counts
Selective Dry cow therapy is the best method for controlling all high cell count situations
Which statement about treating contagious mastitis pathogens is correct?
Treatment success of Strep. ag. is around 30%
Strep. ag. is best treated with ceftiofur (Spectramast ®)
Staph. aureus cure rates are around 80-90%
Amoxicillin has been shown efficacious in the treatment of Strep. ag.
Which statement about treating mastitis is true?
If the cow is not sick, IMM therapy for gram negative infectious is of little benefit
Mycoplasma is easily treated with Amoxicillin
Systemically injected Ceftiofur reaches high concentrations in the udder
Culturing mastitis pathogens should only ever be done for contagious organisms
Which of the following lists of etiologies of “inflammation of the mammary gland” is CORRECT?
Trauma, infectious agents, toxins, viruses
Trauma, toxins, chemical irritants
Infectious agents, environmental irritants, viruses, trauma
Trauma, BVD, infectious agents, toxins
“Acute Toxic Mastitis” is typically defined as:
Sudden onset of a “new” infection of clinical mastitis, the udder is inflamed and the cow is sick.
Sudden onset of a “new” infection. Mastitis may or may not be clinical, cow is rarely sick.
Recurrence of chronic infection of subclinical mastitis. The cow is rarely sick.
Cow is sick, down, dehydrated and anorexic. The mastitis is subclinical, responds well to IMM antibiotics and most of these cases recover fully.
Which anti-inflammatory medication for Toxic Mastitis Treatment should be reached for first (according to AMDUCA)?
Dexamethasone
Dexamethasone SP
Ketoprofen
Flunixin
Which of the following antibiotics are labeled for treatment of mastitis in the dairy cow?
Ceftiofur
Oxytetracycline
Penicillin
Amoxicillin
None of the above
The best (and easiest) method of measuring the prevalence of subclinical mastitis in a dairy herd is:
Individual cow SCC’s
Bulk tank SCC
Bulk tank cultures
Fore-stripping all cows at milking time
Which statement about SCC’s is correct?
The units of SCC is cells/dl of milk
The legal limit for Grade A milk in the USA is now 400,000 (according to the Pasteurized Milk Ordinance – PMO)
The SCC goal on dairy farms should be <750,000
None of the above are correct
Bulk tank SCC and Bulk tank culture data should be monitored no less than_______
Daily
Weekly
Monthly
Yearly
The main difference between a teat fistula and a conjoined (web) teat is:
A teat fistula communicates with the cistern of the primary teat; a conjoined teat is a supernumary teat that grows off the side of a primary teat and does not communicate with the teat cistern of the primary teat.
A cistern of a conjoined teat is continuous with the cistern of the primary teat; a teat fistula is a hole in the wall of a teat but does not communicate with the teat cistern of the primary teat.
Teat spiders live in web teats.
There is no difference between teat fistulas and web teats.
Which of the following factors is favorable to achieving a good closure of a teat laceration?
Using large suture material so that the closure is stronger.
Performing a one layer closure to minimize the amount of foreign material in the teat.
Having a laceration that is near the proximal end of the teat oriented in a vertical direction.
Having milk in contact with the interior layers to help supply nutrients and expedite the healing process.
Having the milker hand milk the teat for 4 milkings (2 days) to reduce trauma induced by the milking machine.
When closing a full thickness teat defect, what is the most important layer to close to gain a strong closure?
Mucosa
Submucosa
Skin
Periteat fascia
You are presented with a two day old vertical teat laceration. On physical examination you find that the teat wall is edematous and a mild amount of discolored tissue is present on the wound edge. Although deep, the laceration does not appear to communicate with the primary teat cistern. What is the best treatment option?
Primary closure (immediately close the wound with suture)
Debridement & Primary closure (debride the edges of the wound back to fresh, bleeding tissue and then close the wound with suture)
Delayed primary closure (clean and debride the wound; allow time for inflammation to subside and edema to decrease; then suture the wound)
Radical Mastectomy
Which of the following scenarios would contribute to anemia caused by decreased production in the bone marrow?
Chronic kidney disease, leading to decreased hepcidin release.
Chronic kidney disease, leading to decreased erythropoietin release.
An increased amount of transferrin released by the liver.
Liver disease, leading to decreased hepcidin release.
Fatal hemorrhage from uterine prolapse usually occurs before reduction of the prolapse back into the abdomen.
True
False
Which of the following is the most accurate regarding Anaplasma in cattle?
Young cattle will show little to no clinical signs after infection with Anaplasma
Cattle infected with Anaplasma marginale will not remain a reservoir for the herd after recovery from anemia.
Anaplasmosis is treated with Penicillin IM for 3 days
The most common tick vector for Anaplasma in the United States is Rhipicephalus.
Bacillary hemoglobinuria caused by Clostridium hemolyticum (aka Clostridium novyii type D) is often associated with which of the following as a comorbidity?
Bovine respiratory syncytial virus (BRSV)
Bovine leukemia virus (BLV)
Abomasal infection with Ostertagia
Liver flukes
You have just received the results of the analysis of gut fluid for botulinum toxin taken from a cow that was initially weak, went down and eventually died (<12 hours). The results of this test were Clostridium botulinum type C.
Which of the following sources is most likely?
Cows consuming TMR with soybean based protein added
Cows consuming fecal contaminated large bale ensilage
Cows consuming forage contaminated with dead animal parts
Cows consuming bones in phosphorous deficient area of South Africa
If you were going to vaccinate a group of 600 lb beef heifers (Bovine, cattle) housed on pasture, which of the following would be the most appropriate?
Tetanus anti-toxin prior to castration
IBR, BVDV, Leptospira hardjo-bovis
Clostridial bacterin toxids (7-way, 8-way vaccines)
Clostridium botulinum
Anemia associated with Clostridial diseases is associated with which of the following organisms?
Clostridium septicum (aka Septic braxitoxicity)
Clostridium Novyii Type D (aka Clostridium hemolyticum)
Clostridium chauvoei (aka Blackleg)
Clostridium novyii Type B (aka Big Head)
Which of the following statements about treatment of tetanus is most correct?
Play soothing music, and keep affected animal in high traffic area of the barn/hospital
Administer a NMDA receptor antagonist (ketamine) hourly to relax muscles
Neutralize unbound tetanus toxin
Continue feeding animal with orogastric tube to maintain hydration and nutritional plane
Which of the following presentations is most consistent with BLV associated lymphoma?
A 4 year old Holstein cow, 1 month from freshening, with melena.
A 6 month old Holstein heifer with peripheral lymphadenopathy.
A 9 month old steer struggling to urinate.
A 1 year old beef bull with a mass in the brisket area.
Roughly what percent of cattle that carry the BLV virus will develop tumors?
70%
2%
0.2%
20%
Animals with lymphocytosis secondary to BLV...
Are more likely to spread BLV.
Are more likely to produce calves with congenital deformities.
Do not develop abomasal tumors.
Are also persistently immunosuppressed.
You arrive at a farm to check on a 4 year old Holstein cow that calved 2 months ago. Over the past week, she has been becoming progressively weaker in her hind legs. This morning she is completely unable to rise. She is bright and alert, eating and drinking well, and is crawling around the stall on her front legs. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Spinal lymphoma
Rabies
Hypocalcemia
Toxic mastitis
Which of the following is not a potential secondary issue for a downer cow regardless of etiology?
Liver abscessation due to compromised blood flow.
Nerve damage due to compartment syndrome.
Kidney damage due to myoglobinuria
Additional musculoskeletal injury.
You drive out to see a 3 year old Angus cow 1 day after calving. She is BAR with a normal temperature, respiratory rate, and heart rate, but has retained fetal membranes hanging from her vulva. When she attempts to stand, her pelvic limbs knuckle at the fetlock, and she seems to have an especially wide-based stance. What is your treatment plant?
Hobbles, a stall with good footing, float tank if possible, and anti-inflammatories.
Hobbles, a stall with good footing, uterine lavage, anti-inflammatories, and systemic antibiotics.
IV calcium and antibiotics
A stall with good footing, anti-inflammatories, fluids, intramammary and systemic antibiotics.
What therapy is the down cow most likely in need of? (Red like outlining shape of neck).
IV calcium
IV dextrose
Dexamethasone
Surgical correction of a displaced abomasum
Which of the following statements regarding ketosis is most correct?
When glucose is available, non-esterified fatty acids (NEFAs) will shunt toward the oxidative pathway and form ketone bodies.
When glucose is available, non-esterified fatty acids (NEFAs) will undergo re-esterification and form triglycerides.
Acetate can enter the TCA cycle at the level of acetyl Coenzyme A
Acetoacetate is the most prevalent ketone body formed in cattle via oxidation of non-esterified fatty acids (NEFAs).
You are called to a farm to examine a 5 year old Holstein that freshened two weeks ago. She has had a gradual drop in milk production and feed consumption over the last 5 days. You perform a physical exam and hear a large “ping” on the left side. Which of the following diagnostics could help support a diagnosis of ketosis?
A high rumen chloride
A positive BHB urine ketone strip and a positive blood BHB ketone level
A liver biopsy sample with > 15% total fat content
A negative acetoacetate urine ketone strip but a positive blood BHB ketone level
You are called to a farm to examine a 5 year old Holstein that freshened two weeks ago. She has had a gradual drop in milk production and feed consumption over the last 5 days. You perform a physical exam and hear a large “ping” on the left side.
You have diagnosed a left displaced abomasum (LDA) and ketosis in this Holstein cow. Which of the following treatment plans are most appropriate?
Administer propylene glycol orally and wait until the ketosis is resolved before correcting the LDA to avoid more stress on the cow.
Perform a right flank omentopexy and advise owner to administer Predef 2X repeatedly until milk production returns.
Perform a right flank omentopexy and administer electrolytes, transfaunate, and propylene glycol via oro-ruminal tube following surgery. Have owner recheck ketone levels in 24 hours.
Administer one bottle (500 ml) of 50% dextrose IV once, transfaunate the cow, then wait to see if she “eats her way out” of the LDA.
Which of the following clinical scenarios is most likely to suffer from pregnancy toxemia?
Jersey heifer two weeks fresh
Holstein cow (third parity) pregnant and in mid-lactation
Late pregnant Holstein heifer (1st parity) with body condition score of 3
Beef cow pregnant with twins and on range
Which of the following is not a common risk factor for pinkeye?
Plant awns
Flies
Solar radiation
Excessive exposure to moonlight
Which of the following drugs has a label for treatment of pinkeye in cattle?
Tulathromycin and florfenicol
Florfenicol and oxytetracycline
Tulathromycin and oxytetracycline
None of the above have a label for treatment of pinkeye in cattle
Which of the following is not an option for anesthesia of the eye for an enucleation procedure?
None of these are used for anesthesia of the eye
4-point block
Peterson block
Smith's retrobulbar block
Most metabolic diseases of bovine animals are more likely related to which nutrient?
Carbohydrates
Protein
Fat
Vitamins
Which of the following is not a feeding strategy for preventing hypocalcemia in dairy cattle?
Feed high levels of Ca during late gestation
Feed adequate Ca, P, and Mg during late gestation but not in abundance.
Feed a negative DCAD diet during late gestation
Feed low K forages
Which of the following does NOT describe a risk factor for nitrate toxicity?
Cows break into a storage shed and eat fertilizer grade urea
Corn silage grown during drought conditions.
Water runoff into streams from fields having been fertilized with ammonium nitrate.
Which of the following is NOT a symptom of subacute ruminal acidosis?
Scant fecal output
Low milk fat or inverted milk fat to milk protein
Low feed efficiency
Diarrhea
Laminitis
Grass tetany can be prevented by:
Feeding mineral supplement fortified with magnesium.
Feeding additional feed grade limestone
Feeding poloxalene
Feeding Rumensin
Hypocalcemia is concern for dairy cows during the transition period. Which of the follow can be used to prevent hypocalcemia?
Feeding 15grams per head per day of calcium to cows when they need it most
Feeding a DCAD diet between 0 and -15mEq
Feeding diets high in potassium (for example - good quality alfalfa hay)
Feeding a DCAD diet between 0 and +10mEq
Two or more of the above are correct
The hallmark of the transition period in the bovine is mobilization from adipose tissue. This lipolysis results in which of the following?
An unlimited supply of Trigylcerides metabolized by the bovine liver
Increased levels of calcium in the milk
Increased levels of Non-Esterified Fatty Acids in the bloodstream
Increased levels of circulating sulfates in the bloodstream
None of the above are correct
Which statement best describes the dairy cow’s transition period?
The time when the calf is weaned from milk and enters group housing with other heifers
The time of a cow’s lactation when she is at “peak milk"
The time between “drying off and going to the pre-fresh pen (3 weeks pre-fresh)
The time between 3 weeks pre-fresh and about 1 month post-fresh
The time between calving and passing her fetal membranes
Which of the following about the transition period is true?
The transition period is a time when 80% of the cows on a dairy will have adverse health events
The transition period is a time when 80% of the adverse health events in a cows life will occur
The transition period includes 80% of the cows life
The transition period is a time when 80% of the cows will freshen
The transition period is when 80% of the milk in a cows’ lactation is produced
When deciding how much colostrum to administer to a recently delivered calf, which of the following parameters would be most useful and practical?
Value of calves
Brix refractometer value of colostrum (> 26%)
Whether the dam is a heifer or cow.
Hydrometer readings >1.025.
Measure colostral IgG concentration by Radial Immunodiffusion and save back colostrum samples with IgG quantitation > 190 gm/L.
As a general rule, which parity of female bovine (dairy) produce the highest concentration of IgG per liter of colostrum?
First parity
Second parity
Third parity
Fourth or greater parity
As a general rule, how soon after a normal birth should a calf ingest colostrum to maximize absorption of colostral IgG?
4 hours
8 hours
12 hours
24 hours
Which of the following means of getting adequate passive transfer of maternal colostral IgG has been shown to be most effective?
Leave calf in small stall with bucket of freshly milked colostrum
Hang 2 L calf nipple bottle containing freshly milked colostrum on front of small stall
Force feed 2-3 L freshly milked maternal colostrum with an esophageal feeder
Which of the following tests for adequate passive transfer of maternal IgG is most practical and useful to use in a large herd setting
Send serum to lab for analysis of GGT
Using optical refractometer, determine total serum protein > 5.5 gm/dL
Glutaraldehyde clotting test of whole blood
Radial Immunodiffusion of IgG because it is the Gold Standard
Select the appropriate configuration of the emasculator when castrating cattle.
"Nut to gut," the nut on the emasculator faces the abdomen.
An emasculator should never be used to castrate.
”Nut to nut,” the nut on the emasculator faces the scrotum
The emasculator works regardless of configuration.
As a veterinarian, you should inform all of your clients who show cattle that cosmetic dehorning should be performed for best dehorning results.
True
False
Select the correct statement regarding teaser bulls.
Bulls with a penopexy procedure typically last longer than those with the "sidewinder" procedure.
Teaser bull procedures should be performed when the bull is still immature on relatively docile bulls with good libido.
Teaser bull should be sexually rested at least 9 months to allow the surgical sites to fully heal and for the scar tissue to mature.
Teaser bull procedures should only be performed on mature bulls that are relatively docile.
A dry (nonlactating), adult, Brown Swiss cow has a maintenance fluid requirement of...
10ml/kg/day
100ml/kg/day
30ml/kg/day
50ml/kg/day
A calf with a 3mm gap between eyeball and orbit, a skin tent of 12 seconds, and tacky mucous membranes can be estimated at what percent dehydration?
8-9%
10-12%
6-7%
3-5%
A 500kg cow that is 10% dehydrated would need what volume of fluid to make up for this deficit?
5L
500L
50ml
50L
A 500kg Jersey bull presents with severe dehydration and obvious shock (tachycardia, prolonged CRT, depression), likely secondary to an abomasal obstruction, and continues to attempt to lay down during the examination. You estimate him at 10% dehydrated. What is your initial course of action prior o abdominal explore?
8 units of whole blood IV.
2L of intravenous hypertonic saline
20L of intraruminal fluids
Ask the bull in a calm (non-accusatory) manner, why he will not stop trying to lay down.
You are going to a farm to see a 450kg, recently fresh Ayrshire cow suffering from metritis. Which supplies should you pack in your truck for potential fluid therapy?
Sterile water and a bucket of baking soda.
2 bottles of hypertonic saline, a Frick speculum, and a rubber hose.
Blood collection bags and a filtered administration set for transfusion purposes.
As many 1L saline bags as will fit.
You go to a farm to see a 10 day old calf with scours. You estimate the calf to weigh 50kg. It is standing but clearly depressed with a weak suckle reflex. How much total sodium bicarb should the calf receive over the next 12-24 hours?
450 meq
600 meq
150 meq
300 meq
How does the maintenance fluid requirement change if a cow is lactating?
Subtract 90% of the daily milk production.
Subtract 50% of the daily milk production.
Add 50% of the daily milk production.
Add 90% of the daily milk production.
Copper toxicity is commonly associated with which of the following clinicopathologic findings?
Hypophosphatemia
Hypercholesterolemia
Hemoglobinuria
Cherry red blood
Lead poisoning is commonly associated with which of the following clinical signs?
Vertical nystagmus
Hypermetric gait
Dorsomedial strabismus
Intestinal obstruction
Monensin toxicity is most likely to occur when fed to which species?
Cattle
Sheep
Goats
Horses
Nitrate toxicity is associated with which of the following clinico-pathologic abnormalities in cattle?
Brown blood (methemoglobinemia)
Bright red blood (oxygenated hemoglobin)
Dark red, thin blood (hemoglobinuria)
Dark red blood (myoglobinuria)
Which of the following diseases/disorders is commonly associated with dorsomedial strabismus? (pick all that apply)
Cerebrocortical necrosis
Lead poisoning
Histophilus somnii brain abscesses
Listeria monocytogenes brain abscesses
You examine an 11 day old calf with diarrhea, dehydration and abnormal mentation (chewing, star gazing, seizures). You draw a venous blood sample and run serum electrolytes and acid-base parameters. Of most significance in the blood analysis is the serum sodium (Na+) is 188 mmol/L (reference: 134-156 mmol/L). You then perform a spinal tap and analyze the CSF Na+ which was also 188 mmol/L. Which of the following would be LEAST likely to successfully treat the calves hypernatremia without worsening clinical signs? (pick all that apply)
Replace fluid and electrolyte abnormalities with normal saline at a rate which does not lead to worsening clinical signs
Replace fluid and electrolyte abnormalities with normal saline + an appropriate volume of 7.2% NaCL solution to make the final Na+ concentration decrease gradually
Rapid IV infusion of purified water to rapdily drop serum sodium
Oral administration of an electrolyte solution with total sodium content of 139 mmol/L
Urea toxicity most commonly occurs when cattle are placed on feed containing urea too rapidly for the rumen to acclimate to the increased ammonia produced during fermentation.
Which of the following treatments would be most appropriate to treat urea toxicity?
Orogastric intubation to administer warm water enemas to treat diarrhea
Orogastric intubation to administer cold water containing dilute acid (acetic acid) to ionize the ammonia
Orogastric intubation to administer warm water containing bicarbonate to neutralize the ammonia ions
Orogastric intubation to administer warm water containing soy bean meal urease to degrade the rumen urea
When performing a full dairy farm “walk-through”, which best describes the on-farm steps that should be taken?
Start at the farm office and proceed to whichever barn is closest to the office
Let the dairy farm owner/manager choose which barns you visit and in what order
Start with the milking center so you can see the cows being milked and then move to the cow barn.
Start with the youngest calves on the farm and work towards the oldest animals, finishing in the lactating cow barn
It doesn’t matter at all as long as you see every barn on the farm
Cattle vaccination protocols should ______
Be tailored to the vaccine manufacturers sales-person’s recommendations
Be tailored to the production class of animals on the farm and the disease challenges of that farm
Be tailored to cover every type of possible disease prevention so there is never a chance of missing something
Be tailored to what the neighboring farm does since they will likely have the same disease issues
It doesn’t matter as long as you vaccinate for BVD at least
Based on the video lecture material, which “CORE” diseases in cattle should be included in a vaccine plan?
BVD, P. multocida, IBR, clostridial diseases, and mycoplasma
BVD, IBR, BRSV, clostridial diseases and mycoplasma
BVD, IBR, BRSV, PI3, Lepto interrogans, and mycolplasma
BVD, IBR, PI3, Lepto interrogans, P. multocida, Clostridial diseases and Johnes
BVD, IBR, PI3, BRSV, clostridial diseases and lepto interrogans
While there are different sources with slightly varied numbers for the cost of bovine diseases, which cost range would best reflect the financial impact to the producer if a cow has a displaced abomasum (DA)?
$4-5
$40-50
$400-500
$1400-1500
The cost of whatever a replacement cow is at the time
Which of the following is not a Type of economic impact on the dairy farm?
Clinical disease
Poor milk quality and lost quality payments
Lost milk production
Death and culling
All of types of economic impact
Which of following lists best describes the key performance areas to evaluate on a dairy farm?
Production, replacements, culling, farm debt load, number of farm workers
Reproduction, udder health, culling, replacements, production, lactation status
Replacements, culling, udder health, calf mortality, herd size
Lactation status, death rate, lameness, production, culling
Production, mastitis level, lameness, herd registration status, reproduction
Why is an official identification system for cattle necessary in the United States?
It allows the farmers/producers to accurately count their cattle for governmental reports
It allows veterinarians to accurately find the cows that need treatments
It allows accurate tracing of cattle for movement, traceability and disease control
It allows the federal government to accurately issue taxes on the farmer/producers
It isn’t necessary at all and is just propagated by the cattle tag manufacturers to sell more tags.
Extralabel drug use (ELDU) in farm animals has the absolute requirement of which of the following?
Valid veterinary-client-patient-relationship
ELDU in a patient for enhanced muscles
ELDU in a patient that is difficult to restrain (pour antibiotic onto some feed)
ELDU prescribed over the phone to client that would like Baytril 100 to treat cystitis in beef cattle
Which of the following drugs are prohibited from extralabel drug use?
Clenbuterol
Metronidazole
Chloramphenicol
All of the above
You have agreed to be the veterinarian or record for a producer. After agreeing to be her/his DVM, you determine that she/he has the propensity to administer flunixin meglumine in an extralabel manner (IM injection) and regularly uses enrofloxacin (Baytril 100) in an extra-label manner to treat calves with diarrhea. Which of the following would be an appropriate response to this producer?
Ask the producer if she/he needs any additional flunxin meglumine (Banamine®) or Baytril to use on your days-off.
Ask producer if she/he wants you to administer flunixin and enrofloxacin for her/him?
Ask the producer to only mix both drugs in the same syringe and administer by IM injection in the future?
Ask the producer if you can rescind your offer to act as their veterinarian of record?
