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Worksheets

The finale

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the right wing of the monocoque is improperly rigged to a greater angle of incidence than designated in manufacturer’s specifications, it will cause the

a)

Airplane to be off balance both laterally and directionally

b)

Right wing to have both an increased lift and decreased drag

c)

Airplane to pitch and roll about the lateral axis

d)

Right wing will have decreased in lift and drag

2.

Which of the below will not develop pitching moment?

a)

A symmetrical airfoil set at positive AOA

b)

A camber airfoil that is not developing lift

c)

A cambered airfoil set a zero AOA

d)

A camber airfoil that is producing lift

3.

An airplane is making a constant airspeed, level turn. Its velocity

a)

Is increasing

b)

Is decreasing

c)

Remains the same

d)

Is changing

4.

Airfoil camber is defined as

a)

Maximum thickness of airfoil

b)

The maximum distance between the camber line and the chord line

c)

The percentage of the mean camber line

d)

Ratio of the thickness to chord

5.

The maximum distance between the mean camber line and the chord line is the

a)

Mean camber

b)

Mean camber line

c)

Maximum camber

d)

Maximum chord

6.

To compensate for nose down tendency the

a)

Flaps are set as positive AOA

b)

Elevators are set at positive AOA

c)

Elevators are set at negative AOA

d)

Horizontal stabilizers are set at negative AOA

7.

The coefficient of drag can be defined as

a)

The ratio of lift forces to drag forces

b)

A measure of the efficiency of the airplane

c)

The ratio of drag forces to lift forces

d)

The ratio of drag pressure to dynamic pressure

8.

The speed of sound depends on

a)

The air density alone

b)

Pressure and density

c)

Temperature alone

d)

Density, temperature and viscosity

9.

Induced drag results from the lift vector being tilted to the rear. This is caused by

a)

The wing tip vortices causes downwash behind the wing

b)

The relative wind behind the wing is pushed downwards

c)

The local relative wind at the AC is depressed

d)

All choices are mentioned here

10.

Which control surface produces large amounts of drag without affecting other lift producing surfaces of the aircraft?

a)

Spoilers

b)

Speed brakes

c)

Slats

d)

Flaps

11.

The elevator is commonly installed onto the

a)

Leading edge of the horizontal stabilizer

b)

Trailing edge of the horizontal stabilizer

c)

Tip of the main plane

d)

Inboard of the main plane

12.

In longitudinal control

a)

The elevator controls pitch about the lateral axis

b)

The aileron control roll about the longitudinal axis

c)

The rudder control direction about the yaw axis

d)

The aileron control pitch about the lateral axis

13.

Calculate the pressure if 16lbs forces is being applied to a piston in the cylinder given the area of the piston is 4 inches^2

a)

32 psi

b)

64 psi

c)

16 psi

d)

4 psi

14.

Mil-H-83282 belongs to what type of fluid and what is the color

a)

Mineral, violet

b)

Mineral, red

c)

Synthetic, violet

d)

Synthetic, red

15.

The disadvantage of using gas to transmit forces is that

a)

It is compressible

b)

It is lighter

c)

It takes up more space

d)

It is flammable

16.

What is the purpose of pressurizing the reservoir?

a)

Prevent foaming and evaporation of fluid

b)

Ensure positive supply of fluid at high altitude only

c)

Allow expansion of fluid under high temperature

d)

In case of pump failure, the pressure in the reservoir will supply the fluid pressure

17.

The advantage of a variable displacement pump is that

a)

Direction of pump rotation can vary

b)

Flow of hydraulic fluid can be regulated

c)

Various type of pump can be installed in a same hydraulic system

d)

It is interchangeable between aircraft types

18.

If there is excessive pressure in reservoir, where does it relief to?

a)

Hydraulic fluid relief through the reservoir relief valve to the ambient

b)

Hydraulic fluid relief through manual bleed valve to the ambient

c)

Hydraulic fluid relief through system relief valve back to the reservoir

d)

Hydraulic fluid relief through manual bleed valve back to reservoir

19.

Excessive fluid pressure relieved by system relief valve is diverted to

a)

Supply line

b)

Return line

c)

Atmosphere

d)

Bypass valve

20.

Excessive air load on the wing flap is diverted to return line by

a)

Thermal relief valve

b)

Back-blow relief valve

c)

System relief valve

d)

Check valve

21.

Which is not a correct servicing procedure

a)

Flush out the new pipelines with different types of hydraulic fluids

b)

Blank off disconnected pipelines

c)

Make sure all components are cleaned before installation

d)

Use a proper tray to hold the components

22.

If the caution light in the cockpit remains on, what is the causes

a)

Insufficient fluid in reservoir

b)

System pressure too high

c)

Air in the system

d)

Pressure switch stuck open

23.

Choose a most suitable actuator to operate 2 mechanisms simultaneously

a)

Single action

b)

3-port

c)

Double action

d)

Triple action

24.

Fitting is used to

a)

Close a hole in a line

b)

Link up the lines between the hydraulic components

c)

Join the return lines to the reservoir

d)

Pressurize the joint between pipelines

25.

What is the effect of low humidity in the aircraft

a)

Fog appear in cabin

b)

Decrease cabin temperature

c)

Prevents freezing of aircraft parts

d)

Depressurization in the cabin

26.

Where does the air conditioning system begin

a)

At the flow control valve

b)

At the temperature control valve

c)

At aircon unit outlet

d)

When the air enters the cabin

27.

In the cabin pressurization system, which component controls the rate of discharge of the cabin air into the atmosphere

a)

Cold air unit

b)

Flow control valve

c)

Cabin pressure regulator

d)

Temperature control valve

28.

Which components control the chamber pressure up to 10,000 feet

a)

The outflow valve and differential bellow

b)

Differential bellow and needle valve

c)

Cabin air bleed orifice and filter

d)

Isobaric bellow and needle valve

29.

Climbing from 10,000 feet to 30,000 feet the pressure differential in a military aircraft will

a)

Be maintained constant

b)

Increase with altitude

c)

Decrease with altitude

d)

Increase or decrease depending on pilot selection

30.

Which of the following is correct about the constant differential pressure

a)

When the maximum differential pressure is reached, the cabin altitude increases at same rate as aircraft altitude

b)

When the maximum differential pressure is reached, the cabin altitude decreases at same rate as aircraft altitude

c)

When the aircraft altitude increases, the cabin altitude decreases

d)

When the aircraft altitude decreases, the cabin altitude increases

31.

Which one of the following is NOT an effect of ice formation on aircraft

a)

Hampers pilot’s vision

b)

Increases the drag on aircraft

c)

Causes stalling of the engine compressor

d)

Causes failure of cabin pressurization and air conditioning of the aircraft

32.

Which of the following methods may be used to prevent or control ice formation on aircraft

a)

Using fluid spray

b)

Using vortex generator

c)

Heating by thermocouples

d)

Using ram air to blow away the ice

33.

In the anti-icing system, what is the principle used in the thermal type

a)

Hot air

b)

De-icing fluid

c)

Inflatable boots

d)

Electrical elements

34.

Which of the following is the correct heater mat used in propeller anti-icing system

a)

A layer of heating element molded to a layer of insulating rubber

b)

Two layers of heating element sandwiching a layer of insulating rubber

c)

Two layers of insulating rubber sandwiching a layer of heating element

d)

A layer of heating rubber molded into a layer of insulating element

35.

Which two factors control the temperature of a heating element in an electrical heating anti-icing system

a)

Electrical power and bleed air supply

b)

Cooling condition and electrical power

c)

Cooling condition and location of heating element

d)

Bleed air supply and location of heating element

36.

How is ice formed on aircraft

a)

Ice in clouds sticks to aircraft and makes an ice layer that is equally thick over the whole aircraft

b)

When supercooled liquid droplets hits the surfaces of the aircraft, it changes to solid

c)

Aircraft takeoff when wet, the water form into ice due to low temperatures

d)

Ice is formed when rain hits the surfaces of the aircraft

37.

What is meant by the flashpoint of fuel

a)

The flashpoint of fuel is the lowest temperature at which fuel starts to vaporize completely

b)

The flashpoint of fuel is the lowest at which fuel at which fuel creates just enough vapour to become flammable

c)

The flashpoint of fuel is the lowest at which fuel ignites without an external flame

d)

The flashpoint is the highest temperature which can be reached if a fuel air mixture is burnt

38.

What is unique about the fuel with FSII element

a)

Improve fuel air mixture

b)

Increased fuel flow to the engine

c)

Increase the flashpoint of fuel

d)

Lower freezing point of fuel

39.

JP5 fuel is safer than other types of fuel as

a)

The flashpoint is lower

b)

The flashpoint is higher

c)

The freezing point is higher

d)

The freezing point is lower

40.

In water scavenge system, the method used to suck out the water from the tank is

a)

Venturi effect

b)

Suction

c)

Pumping

d)

Vacuum

41.

The respective tank switches in the control panel during refueling is used to control

a)

Refuelling coupling

b)

Refuelling valve

c)

Refuelling pump

d)

Refuelling manifold

42.

If the fuel pressure warning light illuminate

a)

It shows normal fuel pressure

b)

The fuel pressure in the manifold is high

c)

The fuel quantity is low

d)

The fuel boost pump is not switched on

43.

Which element is not part of the basic fuel quantity indicating system

a)

Tank units

b)

Amplifier

c)

Indicator

d)

Induction motor

44.

The fuel quantity probes in the tank are installed

a)

Horizontally and in different lengths

b)

Horizontally in equal lengths

c)

Vertically and in different lengths

d)

Vertically and in equal lengths

45.

Which of the following method is recommended for inspecting the surfaces of a cable for broken wires

a)

Run a small magnet over the cable. The broken wires will expose itself

b)

Run a rag over the cable, back and forth, for any catching with the cable experienced

c)

Bend the cable

d)

Bend the cable and inspected with a magnifying glass

46.

What is the maximum deflection allowed on a cable fairlead?

a)

4 degrees

b)

3 degrees

c)

5 degrees

d)

6 degrees

47.

Name one advantage of push pull rod system over a cable system

a)

It is lighter

b)

It comes in larger in diameter size

c)

It is less affected by temperature change

d)

It has less mechanical play

48.

You have an aluminum alloy sheet with series number beginning with 6, what main alloy metal would that be

a)

Copper

b)

Zinc

c)

Manganese

d)

Magnesium and silicon

49.

The core material of Alclad 2024-T4 is

a)

Heat-treated aluminum alloy, and the surfaces material is commercially pure aluminum

b)

Commercially pure aluminum, and the surface is heat treated aluminum alloy

c)

Strained-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surfaces materials is commercially pure aluminum

d)

Strained-hardened aluminum alloy, and the surface material is heat treated aluminum alloy

50.

During which phase of flight do aircraft structures suffer the greatest amount of fatigue

a)

Takeoff and landing

b)

Straight and level flight

c)

Slow descend

d)

Taxing

51.

When computing weight and balance, an aircraft is considered in balanced when

a)

All moment arms of the plane fall within CG range

b)

The movement of the passengers will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range

c)

The movement of fuel will not cause the moment arms to fall outside the CG range

d)

The average moment of arm of the loaded plane fall within the CG range

52.

When using a colored dye penetrant, what color would the faults appear

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

White

d)

Yellow

53.

A structure that made use of its outer skin for strength is called

a)

Tension skin construction

b)

Stress skin construction

c)

Semi-monocoque construction

d)

Monocoque construction

54.

When the aircraft is on jack, its mainplanes experience

a)

Bending stress

b)

Compression stress

c)

Tension stress

d)

Torsion stress

55.

Which of the following fabric is noted for being flexible?

a)

Kevlar

b)

Boron

c)

Glass

d)

Carbon

56.

In the process of weighing an aircraft towards obtaining the CG, the arms from the weighing points always extend

a)

Parallel to the center line of the airplane

b)

Straight forward from each of the landing gear

c)

Directly from each weighing points to the others

d)

Parallel to the chord line of the wing

57.

Excessive shoulder wear is caused by

a)

Locked or non-rotating wheel on a dry runway

b)

Landing on a grooved runway

c)

Under inflation of tires

d)

Overinflation of tires

58.

The function of the master cylinder is to

a)

Produce the breaking pressure

b)

Build-up pressure to control the break metering valve

c)

Give artificial feel on the steering system

d)

Standby as back up for emergency use

59.

What pushes the lock links over center against the drag links point to ensure a positive down lock on the main undercarriage

a)

Safety pin

b)

Downlock sensors

c)

Downlock springs

d)

Aircraft weight

60.

What is the function of the torque link

a)

Allow the inner cylinder to rotate and to move up and down in the outer cylinder

b)

To allow the inner cylinder to move up and down in the outer cylinder but not to rotate

c)

Prevent vibration build up in the landing gear during takeoff and landing

d)

Give improved steering capabilities when taxing or narrow curves

61.

Normal slippery action on a thin film of water is

a)

Viscous hydroplaning

b)

Dynamic hydroplaning

c)

Static hydroplaning

d)

Reverted rubber hydroplaning

62.

What will happen if the microswitches in the landing gear indicating system is not properly rigged

a)

Every system will still continue to function normally

b)

The brake system on the landing gear will not be able to function

c)

The indicating system will not display the correct status of the landing gear

d)

The indicating system will be totally unserviceable (no indication at all)

63.

When the landing gear position indication system is not displaying the correct status of the landing gear for the right main landing gear indicator, what could be the fault

a)

The indication bulb is blown

b)

There is no electrical power to the landing gear position system

c)

There is no hydraulic power to the landing gear position system

d)

The microswitches are not properly rigged

64.

1. Which are the electrical components in the nose wheel steering system

i. Control unit

ii. Feedback potentiometer

iii. Command potentiometer

iv. Steering amplifier

a)

i, ii, iii

b)

ii, iii and iv

c)

i, iii and iv

d)

i, ii and iv

65.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of oxygen

a)

Combustible

b)

Support combustion

c)

Odorless

d)

Tasteless

66.

What happens to the combination valves when the servicing hosts of the LOX cart is connected to the fuel port

a)

Build up port is closed and the gas port is opened to vent

b)

Build up port is closed and fill port is opened to vent

c)

Both build up port and fill port are opened to vent

d)

Both fill and gas ports are closed

67.

The pressure closing valve is shut when LOX converter pressure is

a)

Below 75psi

b)

Above 75 psi

c)

Above 110psi

d)

Above 210psi

68.

The heat exchanger in the LOX system

a)

Extract heat from the oxygen so that it is cooler for the air crew to inhale

b)

Helps to cool the oxygen as it flows to the regulator

c)

Cools the return

d)

Ensures that liquid oxygen is fully converted to gaseous oxygen suitable for breathing

69.

Which is the correct tool for separating the vent and supply hoses from the LOX converter?

a)

Multi-grip

b)

Vise-grip

c)

Approved spanner or wrench

d)

By hand

70.

When the blinker on the oxygen regulator panel is

a)

White, it means that the oxygen is flowing

b)

Amber, LOX level is low

c)

Red, system is over pressure

d)

Black oxygen filter is clogged

71.

The OBOGS oxygen concentrator comprises molecular sieve bed, coalescing filter, rotary valve and

a)

Oxygen monitor

b)

Oxygen regulator

c)

Plenum assembly

d)

Backup supply

72.

The hazards involved in handling liquid oxygen are

a)

Pressure explosion, freezing and corrosion

b)

Fire and explosion, pressure explosion and freezing

c)

Fire and explosion, pressure explosion and corrosion

d)

Fire and explosion, pressure explosion and high levels of heat

73.

What is the most important principle to consider in winter survival

a)

Protect from wind and cold

b)

Be located by rescuers

c)

Water rationing

d)

Food rationing

74.

Name 2 of the items can be found in the Personal Survival Packs (PSP)

a)

Salt tablets and strobe light

b)

Flu tablets and strobe light

c)

Salt tablets and lamb

d)

Salt tablets and stroke light

75.

What is the purpose of floating knife fitted on the life raft

a)

To cut the rescue line

b)

To cut the water pocket

c)

To cut the liferaft painter cord and entangled cordage

d)

To cut the liferaft valves

76.

Liferaft generally are inflated by

a)

Oxygen gas

b)

Nitrogen gas

c)

Carbon dioxide gas

d)

Compressed air

77.

Which part of the parachute is strong and contains some elasticity and it absorb much of the shock load

a)

Parachute pack

b)

Pilot chute, canopy, suspension lines, pack and harness

c)

Suspension lines

d)

Canopy

78.

Which component is designed to operate within 2 seconds after being immersed in seawater

a)

SEAWARS (sea water artificial release system)

b)

SEAWARS (sea water activated release system)

c)

UWARS (universal water activated release system)

d)

UWARS (universal water artificial release system)

79.

The anti g suit gives protection against g forces by

a)

Applying counter pressure to the abdomen, thighs and legs

b)

Applying counter pressure to the head, thighs and legs

c)

Applying counter pressure to the abdomen and head

d)

Applying counter pressure to the abdomen, thighs and arms

80.

The air supply to the anti g suit is automatically controlled by

a)

Oxygen valve

b)

Inflation valve

c)

Anti g valve

d)

Inlet and inflation valve, relief and safety topping up valve, deflation plug