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Correlations Review

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is not a function of the kidney?

a)

Blood filtration

b)

Reabsorption of waste products

c)

Retention of essential nutrients and water

d)

Acid-base balance

2.

The name of a reaction between a single antigenic determinant and an individual combining site is:

a)

Affinity

b)

Avidity

c)

Reactivity

d)

Structural stability

3.

What is the normal myeloid to erythroid (M:E) ratio in the bone marrow?

a)

2:1 - 4:1

b)

1:2 - 1:4

c)

3:1 - 5:1

d)

5:1 -10:1

4.

What is the MOST common cause of acute hemolytic transfusion reactions?

a)

Testing errors

b)

Donor IgG immune antibodies

c)

Blood administration errors

d)

Clerical errors

5.

How is beta thalassemia defined?

a)

The production of an abnormal form of hemoglobin due to the substitution of an amino acid in the beta chain.

b)

A decrease in the rate of production of beta chains due to a partial or total deletion of loci from chromosome 11 that code for the beta chain.

c)

A decrease in the rate of production of beta chains due to a partial or total deletion of loci from chromosome 16 that code for the beta chain.

d)

A decrease in the rate of production of Hb A due to a substitution of an amino acid in the beta chain.

6.

Which of the following parasites has the egg as the infective stage of the parasite for humans?

a)

Enterobius vermicularis

b)

Taenia solium

c)

Trypanosoma cruzi

d)

Schistosoma mansoni

7.

Which of the following statements about the test for C-reactive protein (CRP) is TRUE?

a)

It correlates with neutrophil phagocytic function

b)

It is an indicator of an inflammatory condition

c)

It is diagnostic for rheumatic fever

d)

It is part of the complement cascade

8.

In order to obtain an appropriate specimen before preparing a smear for acid-fast bacilli staining in a sputum sample, what must be done to the original sample?

a)

Mincing or grinding

b)

Nothing needs to be done to the original specimen

c)

Concentration and centrifugation

d)

Digestion and decontamination

9.

Gastrointestinal infections of which of the following a organisms are associated with hemolytic uremic syndrome?

a)

Proteus mirabilis

b)

Salmonella

c)

Shiga toxin producing E. coli

d)

Clostridium difficile

10.

Which class of immunoglobulins is implicated in hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

11.

In the clinical laboratory, after correctly matching the blood collection tube(s) with the appropriate test requisition and patient identification labels, the laboratorian will ascertain if the sample is acceptable for further processing. What is NOT part of this criteria?

a)

.Checking for proper volume.

b)

Checking for hemolysis

c)

Checking for proper anticoagulant.

d)

Checking for proper preservative.

12.

All of the following organisms have been linked to cause endocarditis EXCEPT?

a)

Aggregatibacter aphrophilus

b)

Cardiobacterium hominis

c)

Eikenella corrodens

d)

Hemophilus influenzae

13.

All of the following media types should be inoculated for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), EXCEPT:

a)

Sheep blood agar plate (SAP)

b)

Brucella agar plate (BRU)

c)

Chocolate agar plate (CHOC)

d)

Trypticase soy broth (TSB)

14.

When in the Fisher Projection, which carbon is used to determine if the molecule is in D or L formation?

a)

First chiral carbon

b)

Central Carbon

c)

Penultimate carbon

d)

Anomeric carbon

15.

The primary advantage of a multiple choice test is that it:

a)

Is easy to construct

b)

Tends to focus on the recall level

c)

Is difficult to make

d)

Is useful in assessing affective skills

16.

If you receive a transudate fluid for a Gram stain and bacterial culture, what is the ideal specimen preparation method for the bacterial culture?

a)

Use centrifugation to concentrate the sample; then using the pellet to inoculate the media

b)

Use centrifugation to concentrate the sample; then using the supernatant to inoculate the media.

c)

Dip a swab in the original sample and use this swab to inoculate the media.

d)

Use a sterile pipette to draw up the original sample and use this fluid to inoculate the media.

17.

What virulence factor is not inherent to bacterium?

a)

Presence of a polysaccharide capsule

b)

Production of a proteolytic enzymes

c)

Production of opsonins

d)

Presence of surface membrane attachment receptors

18.

What is the lower reference limit for progressive motility of spermatozoa when performing a semen analysis?

a)

12%

b)

32%

c)

65%

d)

90%

19.

The laboratory receives red, green, and lavender top capillary specimens for testing from a nine month old patient in the pediatric wing of the hospital. This is the second day for the patient in the hospital and the same tests were performed on the previous day. A delta check is triggered when the platelet count is found to be drastically higher than the first result from the day before. All the other test results were the same. The blood was recollected and the all results were the same as earlier in the day. What could be the most likely explanation the changes in the platelet results?

a)

The lavender specimen from the previous day was not collected first.

b)

The testing on the first day was performed on the wrong patient.

c)

There is a diurnal variation for platelets and the specimen from the previous day was collected during a low count period.

d)

The specimen from the previous day was clotted and platelets were trapped in the clot.

20.

Which enzyme is responsible for the rate-limiting step of steroid hormone synthesis?

a)

21-hydroxylase

b)

CYP450

c)

F-zone enzymes

d)

17-hydroxylase

21.

The bone marrow in alpha thalassemia major usually demonstrates:

a)

Normoplasia

b)

Hypoplasia

c)

Asplasia

d)

Hyperplasia

22.

The term pharmacokinetics BEST describes:

a)

What the drug does to the body

b)

The concentration of drug at its sites of action

c)

What the body does to the drug

d)

The concentration of the drug at the time of administering

23.

You are collecting a blood specimen to be used for forensic (legal) alcohol testing. Which of the following must be done before you can start the specimen collection process?

a)

Collect the specimen, the patient does not need to be informed what the blood is collected for.

b)

Seal the collection tubes in front of the patient.

c)

Must inform the patient that the blood about to be collected is for alcohol testing.

d)

Label the tubes in the presence of the patient.

24.

All of the following affect the relative centrifugal force of a centrifuge, EXCEPT?

a)

Time

b)

Revolutions per minute (RPM)

c)

Radius of centrifuge

d)

A constant of 1.12 x 10^-5

25.

All of the following organisms are aerobic organisms, EXCEPT?

a)

Francisella tularensis

b)

Bacteroides fragilis

c)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

d)

Neisseria meningitidis

26.

A 72-year-old patient has a routine check-up and CBC. The CBC shows a high absolute neutrophil count of 28,000/µl, with slightly elevated bands, a few immature myeloid cells, and slight toxic granulation. Upon further examination of the patient, hepatomegaly and splenomegaly are noted. Because of the splenomegaly and the lack of obvious infection, a bone marrow exam is performed which shows hypercellularity of the granulocytes. Molecular testing yields a CSF3R mutation. The most likely diagnosis is:

a)

Primary Myelofibrosis (PMF)

b)

Pelger-Huet anomaly

c)

Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

d)

Chronic Neutrophilic Leukemia (CNL)

27.

Regarding therapeutic drug monitoring, which of the following statements is correct when collecting a specimen for a peak level?

a)

Peak level is the point at which the drug is lowest in the patient's body.

b)

Peak level is tested on a blood sample that is collected immediately prior to when the next dose of the drug is given.

c)

Peak level is tested on a blood sample that is collected after a dose of the drug is given (at a specified time).

d)

None of the above choices are correct

28.

The use of the direct antiglobulin test is indicated in all the following EXCEPT:

a)

Transfusion reactions

b)

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

c)

Hemolytic disease of the newborn

d)

Detection of alloantibodies in serum

29.

Which of the following choices is the basic technique used to detect unexpected antibodies with a commercial set of reagent cells?

a)

Polyclonal technique

b)

Direct antiglobulin test

c)

Enzyme technique

d)

Indirect antiglobulin test

30.

Which of the following substances produced by Group A Streptococci is responsible for producing type specific immunity?

a)

Streptolysin O

b)

Streptolysin S

c)

M antigen

d)

T antigen