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New C and G Paper 2 revision

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name the Retractor

a)

Langenbeck

b)

Weitlaner

c)

Deaver

d)

Malleable

2.

Identify the correct name for the picture above.

a)

kelley retractor

b)

goelet retractor

c)

balfour retractor

d)

gelpi retractor

3.

Identify the correct name for the picture above.

a)

gelpi retractor

b)

goelet retractor

c)

richardson retractor

d)

weitlaner retractor

4.

What suture is made of collagen from sheep small intestine?

a)

Catgut

b)

Sheepgut

c)

PDS

d)

Protein coated

5.

When using an autoclave at 121 C, what time and pressure settings must also be used?

a)

20 minutes 10 PSI

b)

3.5 minutes 30 PSI

c)

15 mins 15 PSI

d)

10 minutes 20 PSI

6.

Name the parasite

a)

Sarcoptes Scabiei

b)

Otodectes Cynotis

c)

Linognathus Setosus

d)

Trichodecties Canis

7.

What parasite is this?

a)

Trichodectes canis

b)

Felicola subrostratus

c)

Linognathus Setosus

d)

Cheyletiella

8.

What microorganism is shown here?

a)

MRSA

b)

Giardia

c)

Malassezia

d)

Sarcoptes

9.

What urinary crystal, commonly seen in rabbits, is shown here?

a)

Struvite

b)

Urate

c)

Calcium Oxolate

d)

Calcium Carbonate

10.

Which part of a microscope adjusts the level of light produced by the light source?

a)

Iris Diaphragm

b)

Rheostat

c)

Substage condenser

d)

Focus knobs

11.

What name is given to dense particles that settle after centrifugation?

a)

Solution

b)

Sediment

c)

Supernatant

d)

Sample

12.

Preservation of blood in which blood tube/vacutainer will allow analysis of plasma?

a)

White blood tube

b)

Brown Gel Tube

c)

Red vacutainer

d)

Green vacutainer

13.

Which of these techniques would not be useful for checking faeces for parasites?

a)

Smear

b)

Baermann

c)

McMaster

d)

Quadrant Streak

14.

What cell preservative causes unwanted shrinkage and hardening of samples?

a)

10% formalin

b)

10% formal saline

c)

10% neutral buffered saline

d)

Alcohol

15.

Which of these cultures medias is modified for fungal culture?

a)

Sabourauds Agar

b)

Blood Agar

c)

Chocolate Agar

d)

Simple Agar

16.

Cisterna magna puncture may be utilised to obtain which sample type?

a)

Synovial fluid

b)

Abdominocentesis

c)

CSF

d)

Thoracocentesis

17.

Increasing kV has which of the following effects?

a)

Increases thermionic emission

b)

Decreases thermionic emission

c)

Accelerates the electron cloud towards the anode

d)

Decelerates the electron cloud travelling towards the anode

18.

Which of the following decreases the effect of penumbra?

a)

Increasing FFD

b)

Decreasing FFD

c)

Increasing OFD

d)

Increasing size of focal spot

19.

What type of xray grid is shown here?

a)

Parallel

b)

Focused

c)

Pseudofocused

d)

Crosshatch

20.

Which diagnostic imaging modality relies upon the recovery of hydrogen atoms after being bombarded by radiowaves?

a)

CT

b)

MRI

c)

Scintigraphy

d)

Ultrasound

21.

Which of the following structures is most hyperechoic on ultrasound?

a)

Air

b)

Fluid

c)

Soft tissue

d)

Bone

22.

The degree of blackening on a film is termed radiographic....?

a)

Density

b)

Contrast

c)

Definition

d)

Resolution

23.

Which of the following is not a cause of a pale film?

a)

Underexposure

b)

Overexposure

c)

Underdevelopment

d)

Overlong FFD

24.

Scatter radiation can be reduced using all of the following EXCEPT..?

a)

Use of a grid

b)

Increasing kV

c)

Decreasing kV

d)

Better collimation practices

25.

Which phosphor is commonly found in CR cassettes?

a)

Lithium fluorohalide

b)

Barium fluorohalide

c)

Calcium tungstate

d)

Rare earth

26.

Leukaemia would be an example of what type of effect caused by ionizing radiation?

a)

Carcinogenic

b)

Somatic

c)

Teratogenic

d)

Genetic

27.

An x-ray gown should have what amount of lead equivalent thickness as a minimum?

a)

0.25 mm

b)

0.35 mm

c)

0.5 mm

d)

0.8 mm

28.

Which of the following exposure factors influence xray quality?

a)

mA only

b)

mA and s

c)

kV only

d)

kV and mAs

29.

The following points of collimation would be required for which projection?

(cranial wings of ilium, caudal tuber ischia, dorsal skin edges and mid shaft femur)

a)

VD pelvis

b)

Lateral pelvis

c)

Acetabular rim

d)

Lateral lumbar spine

30.

Which of the following statements is true in regards to the BVA Hip Score Scheme?

a)

The higher the dog scores the better the congruity of the hips

b)

Once scored a dog's owner is unable to appeal

c)

All dogs being scored must be Kennel Club Registered

d)

The patient's name should not appear on the x-ray image

31.

Which of the following suspected pathologies would not be an indication for lumbar spine radiography?

a)

Spondylosis

b)

Discospondylitis

c)

Wobbler's syndrome

d)

Lumbar sacral instability

32.

Ideally a horizontal beam should be used when performing a lateral x-ray of the abdomen in which species?

a)

Lizards

b)

Rabbits

c)

Cats

d)

Chinchillas

33.

Attenuation can be defined as.....?

a)

The degree of blackening on an image

b)

Removal of x-ray photons from the primary beam

c)

The difference in tissue densities seen on an image

d)

The area of unsharpness around an x-ray image

34.

Which of the following imaging modalities utilizes the piezoelectric effect?

a)

MRI

b)

Ultrasound

c)

CT

d)

Scintigraphy

35.

Which of the following modalities is more useful at identifying abnormal physiology than abnormal anatomy?

a)

Scintigraphy

b)

CR

c)

CT

d)

DR

36.

Which of the following modalities utilized amorphous selenium and a thin film transistor to produce an image?

a)

CT

b)

CR

c)

DR

d)

Fluoroscopy

37.

Which of the following procedures does not involve the use of endoscopy?

a)

BAL

b)

Cystoscopy

c)

Colonoscopy

d)

Angiography

38.

Which of the following side effects is not associated with iodinated contrast?

a)

Cerebral oedema

b)

Red blood cell damage

c)

Constipation

d)

Anaphylaxis

39.

Which of the following tissues is the most attenuating?

a)

Fluid

b)

Air

c)

Muscle

d)

Bone

40.

What type of agranulocyte blood cell has a large, horse shoe shaped nucleus?

a)

Monocyte

b)

Lymphocyte

c)

Erythrocyte

d)

Basophil

41.

What is the normal PCV of a Guinea Pig?

a)

39-49%

b)

36-54%

c)

37-48%

d)

20-40%

42.

When performing a ACT, which of the following samples is used?

a)

1ml of plasma at 33 C

b)

1ml of serum at 37 C

c)

1ml of whole blood at 33 C

d)

1ml whole blood at 37 C

43.

What is the normal value of a cat specific gravity?

a)

1.015-1.045

b)

1.035-1.060

c)

1.020-1.050

d)

1.025-1.040

44.

Which urinary crystal may be seen in clinically normal Dalmatians?

a)

Calcium carbonate

b)

Cystine

c)

Ammonium urate

d)

Struvite

45.

What is the circuit factor of a Bain anaesthetic circuit?

a)

1-1.5

b)

1.5-2

c)

2-2.5

d)

2.5-3

46.

Define Tidal Volume

a)

The volume of air expired in each breath

b)

The volume of air expired plus the amount of air inspired in a breathing cycle

c)

The amount of anaesthetic gas within a circuit

d)

The size of the reservoir bag

47.

Name the pictured circuit

a)

Ayre's T piece

b)

Ayres's T piece with Jackson Rees Modification

c)

Parallel Lack

d)

Bain

48.

Which of the following circuits is a Mapleson A circuit?

a)

Lack

b)

Ambu bag

c)

Bain

d)

Ayre's T Piece

49.

Which of the following anaesthetic drugs is not an opioid?

a)

Butorphanol

b)

Morphine

c)

Ketamine

d)

Methadone

50.

Which of the following is not an example of a local anaesthetic?

a)

Emla cream

b)

Maropitant

c)

Intubeaze Spray

d)

Lidocaine

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