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WorksheetsPre-Test Pelatihan COBIT 2019 GIAA
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 38mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
COBIT makes a clear distinction between
a)
IT and Business
b)
Governance and Management
c)
Development and Operations
d)
Goals and Objectives
2.
Governance ensures that
a)
Planning is done accurately
b)
Activities are monitored
c)
Direction is set through prioritization
d)
Processes are running smoothly
3.
What does Management do? 1. Planning activities 2. Setting directions 3. Running activities 4. Monitoring activities
a)
1,2,3
b)
1,2,4
c)
2,3,4
d)
1,3,4
4.
In most enterprises, overall governance is the responsibility of
a)
the board of directors, under the leadership of the chairperson
b)
the board of directors, under the leadership of the managing director
c)
the executive management, under the leadership of the chief executive officer (CEO)
d)
the executive management, under the leadership of the chief information officer (CIO)
5.
These are the elements of IT Governance, EXCEPT?
a)
Organizational Structures
b)
Value
c)
Processes
d)
Leadership
6.
IT governance and management is needed to answer the following problems, EXCEPT?
a)
The increase in IT investment is not worth the increase in value
b)
High failure rate of IT projects
c)
Misalignment between IT plans and organizational strategy
d)
Enhanced transparency of IT performance
7.
Which of the following statements about business governance is NOT TRUE?
a)
Support the achievement of enterprise governance
b)
Focusing on performance processes
c)
Focusing on IT as reporting and data delivery
d)
Supported by the enterprise key assets
8.
Which term describes the mechanism used to translate the stakeholders’ needs into customized enterprise goals, alignment goals, and governance and management objectives?
a)
Enterprise strategy
b)
Governance system
c)
Goal cascade
d)
Governance framework
9.
Enterprise goals cascade to ?
a)
Alignment goals
b)
Governance objectives
c)
Management objectives
d)
Governance and management goals
10.
Design factors are factors that can ... the design of an enterprise’s governance system and position it for success in the use of I&T
a)
Create
b)
Manage
c)
Influence
d)
Plan
11.
Governance ... are factors that, individually and collectively, contribute to the good operations of the enterprise’s governance system over I&T
a)
Components
b)
Practices
c)
Principles
d)
Objectives
12.
Which governance component identifies the human resource needs that must be met to achieve governance and management objectives?
a)
Organizational structures
b)
Information
c)
Enterprise size
d)
Culture, ethics and behavior
13.
Which of the following COBIT organizational structure roles fulfills the practice and creates the intended outcome?
a)
Accountable (A)
b)
Responsible (R)
c)
Consulted (C)
d)
Informed (I)
14.
Within an organizational structure chart (RACI chart), which role drives a given task or process?
a)
Responsible (R)
b)
Informed (I)
c)
Accountable (A)
d)
Consulted (C)
15.
Innovation and Differentiation is an example of which design factor?
a)
Enterprise strategy
b)
Technology adoption strategy
c)
Enterprise goals
d)
Role of IT
16.
What are the types of Technology adoption strategy?
a)
Follower
b)
Slow adopter
c)
First mover
d)
All correct
17.
Which objectives relate to "Analyze and articulate the requirements for the governance of enterprise I&T"?
a)
EDM01 - Ensured Governance Framework Setting and Maintenance
b)
EDM02 - Ensured Benefits Delivery
c)
EDM03 - Ensured Risk Optimization
d)
EDM04 - Ensured Resource Optimization
18.
Establish the target investment mix is the key governance practice of ...
a)
EDM01 - Ensured Governance Framework Setting and Maintenance
b)
EDM02 - Ensured Benefits Delivery
c)
EDM04 - Ensured Resource Optimization
d)
EDM05 - Ensured Stakeholder Engagement
19.
Ensure that I&T-related enterprise risk does not exceed the enterprise’s risk appetite and risk tolerance is the purpose of ...
a)
EDM03 - Ensured Risk Optimization
b)
EDM04 - Ensured Resource Optimization
c)
APO12 - Managed Risk
d)
APO03 - Managed Enterprise Architecture
20.
Define target skills and competencies is the key management practice of ...
a)
EDM04 - Ensured Resource Optimization
b)
APO01 - Managed I&T Management Framework
c)
APO07 - Managed Human Resources
d)
APO11 - Managed Quality
21.
Strategic road map is one of the input of ...
a)
APO03 - Managed Enterprise Architecture
b)
APO04 - Managed Innovation
c)
APO09 - Managed Service Agreements
d)
APO10 - Managed Vendors
22.
Ensure that I&T products, services and service levels meet current and future enterprise needs is the purpose of ...
a)
APO03 - Managed Enterprise Architecture
b)
APO05 - Managed Portfolio
c)
APO09 - Managed Service Agreements
d)
APO11 - Managed Quality
23.
Which objectives relate to "Maintain an awareness of I&T and related service trends and monitor emerging technology trends"?
a)
APO04 - Managed Innovation
b)
APO07 - Managed Human Resources
c)
APO12 - Managed Risk
d)
APO13 - Managed Security
24.
SWOT analysis is one of the input of ...
a)
APO02 - Managed Strategy
b)
APO07 - Managed Human Resources
c)
APO10 - Managed Vendors
d)
APO12 - Managed Risk
25.
Which one is accountable in all key management practice of APO03 - Managed Enterprise Architecture?
a)
Chief Information Officer
b)
Chief Technology Officer
c)
Architecture Board
d)
Head Architect
26.
Which one is accountable in all key management practice of APO13 - Managed Security?
a)
Chief Information Officer
b)
Chief Information Security Officer
c)
Head IT Operations
d)
Information Security Manager
27.
Realize desired business value and reduce the risk of unexpected delays, costs and value erosion is the purpose of ...
a)
APO06 - Managed Budget and Costs
b)
APO12 - Managed Risk
c)
BAI01 - Managed Programs
d)
BAI11 - Managed Projects
28.
Perform a feasibility study and formulate alternative solutions is the key management practice of ...
a)
BAI02 - Managed Requirements Definition
b)
BAI03 - Managed Solutions Identification and Build
c)
DSS02 - Managed Service Requests and Incidents
d)
DSS03 - Managed Problems
29.
Assess business impact is the key management practice of ...
a)
BAI04 - Managed Availability and Capacity
b)
BAI06 - Managed IT Changes
c)
BAI07 - Managed IT Change Acceptance and Transitioning
d)
DSS06 - Managed Business Process Controls
30.
Identify and classify sources of information for governance and management of I&T is the key management practice of ...
a)
EDM01 - Ensured Governance Framework Setting and Maintenance
b)
APO01 - Managed I&T Management Framework
c)
APO14 - Managed Data
d)
BAI08 - Managed Knowledge
31.
Which one is accountable in all key management practice of BAI06 - Managed IT Changes?
a)
Chief Information Officer
b)
Chief Technology Officer
c)
Head Development
d)
Head IT Operations
32.
Knowledge transfer plans is one of the input of ...
a)
APO07 - Managed Human Resources
b)
APO14 - Managed Data
c)
BAI08 - Managed Knowledge
d)
DSS01 - Managed Operations
33.
Post-implementation review report is one of the input of ...
a)
APO06 - Managed Budget and Costs
b)
BAI07 - Managed IT Change Acceptance and Transitioning
c)
BAI06 - Managed IT Changes
d)
BAI11 - Managed Projects
34.
Manage outsourced I&T services is the key management practice of ...
a)
APO10 - Managed Vendors
b)
DSS01 - Managed Operations
c)
DSS05 - Managed Security Services
d)
MEA03 - Managed Compliance With External Requirements
35.
Achieve increased productivity and minimize disruptions through quick resolution of user queries and incidents is the purpose of ...
a)
DSS02 - Managed Service Requests and Incidents
b)
DSS03 - Managed Problems
c)
DSS04 - Managed Continuity
d)
MEA02 - Managed System of Internal Control
36.
Maintain information integrity and the security of information assets handled within business processes in the enterprise is the purpose of ...
a)
APO13 - Managed Security
b)
APO14 - Managed Data
c)
BAI08 - Managed Knowledge
d)
DSS06 - Managed Business Process Controls
37.
Which one is accountable in all key management practice of DSS03 - Managed Problems?
a)
Chief Information Officer
b)
Chief Technology Officer
c)
Head IT Operations
d)
Service Manager
38.
Backup plan is one of the input of ...
a)
APO14 - Managed Data
b)
BAI04 — Managed Availability and Capacity
c)
DSS04 - Managed Continuity
d)
DSS05 - Managed Security Services
39.
Establish a monitoring approach is the key management practice of ...
a)
BAI06 - Managed IT Changes
b)
MEA01 - Managed Performance and Conformance Monitoring
c)
MEA02 - Managed System of Internal Control
d)
MEA03 - Managed Compliance With External Requirements
40.
Which one is accountable in all key management practice of MEA02 - Managed System of Internal Control?
a)
Chief Information Officer
b)
Chief Technology Officer
c)
Business Process Owner
d)
Privacy Officer
41.
Compliance audit results is one of the input of ...
a)
MEA01 - Managed Performance and Conformance Monitoring
b)
MEA02 - Managed System of Internal Control
c)
MEA03 - Managed Compliance With External Requirements
d)
MEA04 - Managed Assurance
42.
Which of the following is NOT the steps in implementing IT governance program?
a)
Creating the appropriate environment
b)
Identify the pain point and trigger event
c)
Applying the program management life cycle approach
d)
Recognizing stakeholders' interest
43.
What component of the Implementation Life Cycle refers to the behavioural and cultural aspects?
a)
Form implementation team
b)
Continual Improvement life cycle
c)
Program management
d)
Change Enablement
44.
What term is used to describe how a governance implementation should not be perceived as an isolated project?
a)
Continual improvement life cycle
b)
Change enablement
c)
Sustain
d)
Program management
45.
Which phases that identifies current change drivers and creates at executive management levels a desire to change?
a)
What are the drivers?
b)
Where are we now?
c)
Where do we want to be?
d)
What needs to be done?
46.
Which phases that sets a target for improvement followed by a gap analysis to identify potential solutions?
a)
What are the drivers?
b)
Where are we now?
c)
Where do we want to be?
d)
What needs to be done?
47.
Which one is considered as a Pain Point used to launch the change program?
a)
Supplier failing to meet agreed service levels
b)
New regulatory or compliance requirements
c)
Significant technology change
d)
External audit or consultant assessments
48.
Which stakeholders that interested in obtaining maximum business benefits from the implementation program?
a)
Board and Executives Management
b)
Business Management and Business Process Owners
c)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
d)
IT Management and IT Process Owners
49.
Which stakeholders that interested in attaining IT Governance objectives from the implementation program?
a)
Board and Executives Management
b)
Business Management and Business Process Owners
c)
Chief Information Officer (CIO)
d)
IT Management and IT Process Owners
50.
Which one is not the external IT Governance Stakeholders?
a)
IT service provider
b)
Regulators
c)
Implementation Team
d)
Business Partners
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