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HESI Review: Procedures

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

What must be done after contrast is injected into a joint during arthrography?

a)

Patient must return the following day for advanced imaging.

b)

Patient must remain as still as possible to prevent contrast displacement.

c)

Patient must have the contrast removed using a spinal needle following fluoroscopy.

d)

Patient must put the joint through range of motion to distribute the contrast.

2.

The AP axial projection of the sacrum requires tube angulation in the cephalad direction of how many degrees? 

a)

10°   

b)

15°  

c)

20° 

d)

25° 

3.

Projections that are generally included in an acute abdomen survey include which of the following?

a)

AP supine abdomen

b)

Dorsal decubitus abdomen

c)

Erect or lateral decubitus abdomen

d)

PA chest 

e)

Ventral decubitus abdomen

4.

Which positioning line should b perpendicular to the IR when performing a PA Axial (Caldwell) projection?

a)

IOML

b)

OML

c)

GML

d)

MML

5.

Which of the following is not a standard projection for the wrist?

a)

Lateral

b)

AP

c)

PA

d)

External oblique

6.

Where should the petrous pyramids be projected in the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull using a 15° caudal tube angle?

a)

In the upper two-third of the orbits. 

b)

Below the maxillary sinuses. 

c)

In the lower one third of the orbits. 

d)

Filling the orbits. 

7.

The xiphoid/ensiform process is at what vertebral level? 

a)

T2-3   

b)

L4   

c)

T9-10   

d)

S1-2   

8.

Which of the following projections of the elbow will show the radial head, neck, and tuberosity free of superimposition by the ulna?

a)

Lateral projection (lateromedial) 

b)

AP medial oblique (internal rotation) 

c)

AP lateral oblique (external rotation) 

d)

Acute flexion projection 

9.

The only saddle joint in the body is formed by the:

a)

trapezium and 1st metacarpal

b)

scaphoid and trapezium

c)

navicular and 1st metacarpal

d)

trapezium and 1st metatarsal

10.

The intervertebral foramina are best demonstrated in which projections of the spine?

a)

Lateral sacrum/coccyx 

b)

Lateral lumbar spine 

c)

Lateral thoracic spine 

d)

Lateral cervical spine 

11.

What is the relationship of the epicondyles to the IR in an AP projection of the humerus or elbow?

a)

Vertical 

b)

Parallel 

c)

Perpendicular 

d)

Diagonal 

12.

In an AP external rotation projection of the shoulder, the __________ should be seen in profile laterally.

a)

humeral head 

b)

greater tubercle

c)

lesser tubercle

d)

glenoid fossa

13.

 

Which foramina are demonstrated with a left posterior oblique (LPO) position of the cervical spine?

a)

The left intervertebral foramina (downside)

b)

The right intervertebral foramina (downside)

c)

The right intervertebral foramina (upside)

d)

The left intervertebral foramina (upside)

14.

A broad shouldered patient comes to the radiology department for a routine cervical spine series. The lateral projection demonstrates only the C1-C5 region. The radiologist needs to see C6-T1. What additional projection can be obtained to demonstrate this region?

a)

LAO

b)

RPO

c)

AP Axial Oblique Projection (Pillars)

d)

Cervicothoracic (Swimmer’s) lateral projection

15.

The appropriate centering point for an AP projection of the lumbosacral region is

a)

midpoint between the xiphoid tip and sternal notch

b)

2 inches superior to the public symphysis

c)

at the level of the iliac crest

d)

1 inch superior to the iliac crest and 2 inches medial to the ASIS

16.

Which of the following is the usual way of obtaining a lateral projection of the proximal humerus in cases of trauma? 

a)

Transthoracic or Lawrence method 

b)

Grashey method 

c)

Lateromedial recumbent 

d)

Stetcher method 

17.

Which of the following is true regarding the Towne method?

a)

The dorsum sellae is projected within the foramen magnum.

b)

The zygomatic arches are free of superimposition.

c)

The anatomy of interest is the frontal bone and maxilla.

d)

The petrous ridges are projected in the lower 1/3 of the orbits.

18.

A patient cannot flex their head and neck sufficiently to place the OML perpendicular to the IR for the AP axial view.  What should the technologist do?

a)

perform the Caldwell method

b)

use the AML and increase the CR angle by 10 degrees

c)

use the IOML and increase the CR angle by 7 degrees

d)

perform a SMV projection in place of the AP axial

19.

How many posterior ribs should be visualized above the diaphragm in order for a PA chest to be evaluated for adequate inspiration? 

a)

6

b)

9

c)

10

d)

12

20.

All the following statements regarding hand hygiene and skin care are correct except:

a)

hands should be cleansed before and after each patient examination. 

b)

any cracks or abrasions should be left uncovered to facilitate healing. 

c)

faucets should be opened and closed with paper towels. 

d)

hands should be smooth and free from chapping. 

21.

When examining the contrast-filled bladder, how many degrees caudad is the X-ray tube angled in order to project the symphysis pubis inferior to the urinary bladder?   

a)

10 to 15

b)

20 to 25

c)

30 to 35

d)

40 to 45

22.

During an IVU images taken 30 seconds - 1 minute post injection will demonstrate:

a)

kidneys (nephrogram phase)

b)

kidneys (contrast in collecting tubules)

c)

ureters

d)

urinary bladder

23.

Where is the central ray (CR) placed for a PA projection of the third digit?

a)

At the distal interphalangeal joint

b)

At the metacarpo-phalangeal joint

c)

At the head of the third metacarpal

d)

At the proximal interphalangeal joint

24.

The central ray (CR) for an anteroposterior (AP) supine, adult chest projection, should be centered:

a)

to the level of T4.

b)

3 to 4 inches (8 to 10 cm) below the jugular notch.

c)

at the vertebra prominens.

d)

at the xiphoid process.

25.

At what level should the central ray (CR) be placed for a left lateral decubitus projection of the abdomen?

a)

Iliac crest

b)

2 inches (5 cm) above iliac crest

c)

ASIS

d)

Umbilicus

26.

The hepatic portal vein carries blood from the abdominal digestive track to the:

a)

inferior vena cava.

b)

spleen.

c)

kidneys.

d)

liver.

27.

Which of the following arteries is found at the level of the knee?

a)

Popliteal

b)

Anterior

c)

Deep femoral

d)

Dorsalis pedis

28.

What type of CR angle is required for the AP lordotic projection for the lung apices?

a)

None. CR is perpendicular to IR.

b)

10- to 15-degree caudad.

c)

15- to 20-degree cephalad.

d)

25- to 35-degree caudad.

29.

How does the central ray location vary on an AP Scapula and an AP Shoulder radiograph?

a)

The CR for the AP scapula is one inch lower

b)

The CR for the AP scapula is 3 inches lower

c)

The CR for the AP scapula is 1 inch higher

d)

The CR is in the same location for both views

30.

How many projections are required for the AP-acute flexion study of the elbow?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

31.

Why is the supine AP projection rarely taken during a thoracic spine myelogram?

a)

Patient discomfort at puncture site

b)

Contrast media may leak from puncture site

c)

Contrast media tend to pool near the midthoracic region

d)

Excessive radiation exposure to anterior chest structures

32.

Which part of the large intestine is located between the rectum and the descending colon?

a)

Left colic flexure

b)

Right colic flexure

c)

Sigmoid colon

d)

Cecum

33.

How much rotation of the body is required for an LAO projection of the thoracic spine (from the plane of the table)?

a)

20 degrees

b)

45 degrees

c)

50 to 60 degrees

d)

70 degrees

34.

How much obliquity of the body is required for posterior oblique (LPO/RPO) positions for the sacroiliac joints?

a)

45 degrees

b)

10 to 15 degrees

c)

60 to 70 degrees

d)

25 to 30 degrees

35.

A patient comes to radiology with possible diverticulosis. Which of the following studies is most diagnostic for detecting this condition?

a)

Single-contrast barium enema

b)

Double-contrast barium enema

c)

Evacuative proctogram

d)

Small bowel series

36.

An AP projection of the foot should have a central ray angle of

a)

15 degrees posterior

b)

15 degrees anterior

c)

5 degrees anterior

d)

10 degrees posterior

37.

A young child comes to radiology with an elbow injury. The basic elbow projections demonstrate a possible nondisplaced fracture of the coronoid process. Beyond the medial oblique projection, what additional projection(s) can be performed to demonstrate the coronoid process in profile?

a)

Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle toward shoulder

b)

Radial head lateral projections

c)

Coyle method with 45-degree CR angle away from shoulder

d)

Acute flexion projection

38.

A patient comes to radiology for an evaluation of the longitudinal arch of the foot. Which of the following projections would provide the best information about the arch?

a)

Routine foot series

b)

Plantodorsal (axial) projection

c)

AP and lateral weight-bearing projections of foot

d)

Sesamoid bone series projection

39.

A radiograph of a plantodorsal (axial) projection of the calcaneus reveals foreshortening. The technologist used 60 kVp, 6 mAs, 40-inch (100-cm) SID, and a 25-degree cephalad CR angle from the long axis of the foot. Which of the following modifications will produce a more diagnostic image of the calcaneus?

a)

Plantarflex the foot.

b)

Increase CR angulation.

c)

Decrease CR angulation.

d)

Increase kVp to 70.

40.

A longitudinal plane that divides the body into equal anterior and posterior parts is the _____ plane.

a)

midcoronal

b)

midsagittal

c)

horizontal

d)

oblique

41.

Why is the right kidney usually lower in the abdomen than the left kidney?

a)

Presence of right colic flexure

b)

Presence of the liver

c)

Presence of the stomach

d)

Presence of right suprarenal gland

42.

Which of the following projections best produces an unobstructed view of the fibular head and neck?

a)

Medial oblique knee

b)

External oblique knee

c)

Medial oblique ankle

d)

Mortise ankle

43.

How much rotation from an AP position of the ankle will typically produce an AP mortise projection?

a)

No rotation is necessary

b)

45- to 60-degree lateral

c)

15- to 20-degree medial

d)

25- to 30-degree medial

44.

In which of the four major quadrants of the abdomen would the cecum be found?

a)

Right upper quadrant

b)

Left lower quadrant

c)

Left upper quadrant

d)

Right lower quadrant

45.

Which of the following muscles should be demonstrated on a properly exposed abdomen projection on an average-size patient?

a)

Latissimus dorsi

b)

Erector spinae

c)

Psoas major

d)

Quadratus lumborum

46.

Which radiographic landmark is most reliable to evaluate the posteroanterior (PA) projection of the abdomen for rotation?

a)

Xiphoid process

b)

Symphysis pubis

c)

Ala of ilium

d)

ASIS

47.

The centering point “2.5 in distal and perpendicular to the midpoint of a line between the ASIS and the pubic symphysis” identifies correct centering for the AP projection of what body part?

a)

Hip

b)

Pelvis

c)

Knee

d)

Elbow

48.

Ribs 1–10 articulate with thoracic vertebrae at which of the following locations?

a)

Vertebral body

b)

Lamina

c)

Pedicle

d)

Transverse processes

49.

Which of the following are the synarthrodial sutures of the skull?

a)

Coronal 

b)

Occipital 

c)

Sagittal 

d)

Squamosal 

e)

Lambdoidal 

50.

What term is used to describe turning of the body or arm so that the palm faces backward, with the thumb toward the midline of the body? 

a)

Abduction

b)

Circumduction

c)

Pronation

d)

Eversion

e)

Supination

51.

A fracture of the orbit would be best demonstrated by the:

a)

Modified parietoacanthial (Modified Waters)

b)

PA Axial (Caldwell)

c)

AP Axial (Towne)

d)

Parietoacanthial

(Waters)

52.

The most effective means of reducing voluntary motion is

a)

expediting the exam. 

b)

good communication.

c)

using the shortest possible exposure time. 

d)

using immobilization devices/restraints. 

53.

Select the three correct statements:

a)

Long bone measurement examinations are usually performed to detect limb length differences between left and right sides.

b)

An AP projection of the knee should be centered to a point 0.5 in distal to the patellar base.

c)

If both femoral articulations cannot be recorded on one IP, the radiographer should include the joint nearest the injury/pathology OR make two images: one from the hip down, the other from the knee up.

d)

The two evaluation criteria for correct positioning of the lateral knee are femoral condyles superimposed and patellofemoral joint space open.

e)

The CR should be directed midway between the malleoli for the AP projection of the wrist.

54.

If the distance between the ASIS and tabletop is less than 19 cm, the correct tube angle for an AP knee is:

a)

5 degrees caudad 

b)

5 degrees cephalad 

c)

perpendicular 

d)

0 degrees caudad 

55.

The AP medial oblique projection of the foot requires what degree of obliquity? 

a)

20°

b)

30°

c)

45°

d)

60°

56.

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

a)

Scapular Y 

b)

AP scapula 

c)

Medial oblique elbow 

d)

Lateral oblique elbow 

57.

The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of

a)

pulmonary markings 

b)

heart shadow 

c)

posterior ribs 

d)

costal cartilages 

58.

Which of the following is the most distal portion of the bronchial tree?

a)

Alveoli

b)

Primary bronchus

c)

Tertiary bronchi

d)

Bronchioles

59.

During a myelogram procedure the needle is inserted into the _______ space.

a)

subdural

b)

subarachnoid

c)

subthecal

d)

epidural

60.

Which describes the correct positioning for a PA chest radiograph?

a)

the chin is extended

b)

the clavicles are elevated

c)

the shoulders are depressed

d)

the shoulders are rolled posteriorly

e)

the shoulder are equal distance from the IR