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Quiz Anticancer Drugs, Haematinics & Plasma Expanders

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy is

a)

chemotherapy drug given prior to the surgical procedure or radiation therapy

b)

therapy that does not involve any drugs

c)

chemotherapy drug given after the surgery or radiation therapy

d)

chemotherapy drug administered as the only treatment

2.

Which of the following drug acts as an alkylating agent?

    

a)

5-fluorouracil

b)

Cyclophosphamide

c)

Doxorubicin

d)

Vincristine

3.

The anticancer agent that causes cell death due to deprivation of thymidine is

  

a)

Actinomycin-D

b)

6-mercatopurine

c)

5-fluorouracil

d)

Ifosphamide

4.

The drug corresponding to letter ‘O’ in the CHOP regimen used for chemotherapy of lymphocytic leukemia is

a)

        Omalizumab         

      

b)

Ondansetron

c)

   Vincristine

d)

Prednisone

5.

Given below are the anticancer drug and their important and specific side effect. Choose the WRONG combination.

a)

Bleomycin, Pulmonary fibrosis

b)

Methotrexate, Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion

c)

Doxorubicin, Cardiotoxicity

d)

Cyclophosphamide, Haemorrhagic cystitis

6.

The vinca alkaloids are a useful type of anti-cancer agents. Which of the following is true about these agents?

a)

They are tyrosine kinase inhibitors

b)

Paclitaxel and docetaxel are examples of vinca alkaloids

c)

They do not cause myelosuppression or peripheral neuropathy

d)

They all function by targeting the microtubules

7.

  In general, one should always consider that anthracycline drugs can cause myelosuppression and cardiotoxicity.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Dexrazoxane is useful to protect against cardiotoxicity caused by doxorubicin.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The anticancer drug that can completely cure choriocarcinoma is

    

a)

Bleomycin

b)

Carboplatin

c)

Methotrexate

d)

Vincristine

10.

Which of the following drugs can be used most effectively against chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

a)

Omeprazole

b)

Ondansetron

c)

Allopurinol

d)

Leucovorin

11.

Which of the following are Cell Cycle Non-Specific Anticancer Drugs?

a)

Actinomycin D

b)

Alkylating Agents

c)

Platinum compounds

d)

All of the answers

12.

Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening oncological emergency. It is caused by the death, or lysis, of large numbers of cancer cells. Which drug can be used to treat this syndrome?

a)

Ondansetron

b)

Mesna

c)

Allopurinol

d)

L-Asparaginase

13.

Which drug is used in the management and treatment of hemorrhagic cystitis associated with chemotherapy?

a)

Allopurinol

b)

Methotrexate

c)

Mesna

d)

Oncovin

14.

A 42-year-old man with stage III Hodgkin’s disease received six courses of chemotherapy with the ABVD regimen. Which of the following drugs of this regimen acts mainly in the G2 phase of the tumor cell cycle?

a)

Doxorubicin

b)

Bleomycin

c)

Vinblastine

d)

Dacarbazine

15.

A 6-year-old girl with acute lymphoblastic leukemia completed her induction therapy with a multidrug regimen. Now she is scheduled for maintenance therapy with a regimen that includes a cell cycle-specific anticancer drug. Which of the following is the drug she is about to receive?

a)

Cisplatin

b)

Doxorubicin

c)

Mercaptopurine

d)

Cyclophosphamide

16.

The sources of drug information shown is a _______________ of drug information.

a)

primary source

b)

secondary source

c)

tertiary source

17.

The source of drug information in the picture is a _________________ source.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

18.

Which of the following is a secondary source of drug information?

a)

WHO Model List of Essential Medicines

b)

Indexing and abstracting systems

c)

British Medical Journal

19.

The picture shows ___________ source of drug information.

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

20.

Primary sources for drug information refer to

a)

bibliographic databases that provide abstract or full text of studies

b)

unpublished studies and original articles published in reputed peer-reviewed journals

c)

review articles published in reputed peer-reviewed journals

d)

short indention of information with an adequate bibliographical citation

21.

Which of the following parenteral iron is not given intravenously?

a)

Iron dextran

b)

Iron-sorbitol-citric acid complex

c)

Iron-sodium gluconate complex

d)

Iron- sucrose complex

22.

Why is iron dextran given intramuscularly using Z track technique?

a)

To avoid pain

b)

To avoid anaphylactic reaction

c)

To prevent staining of skin

d)

To avoid joint pain

23.

Which of the following increases absorption of iron from intestine?

a)

Cyanocobalamin      

      

b)

Folic acid

c)

Ascorbic acid

d)

Erythropoietin

24.

Pernicious anaemia occurs due to deficiency of:

a)

Erythropoietin

b)

Vitamin B12

c)

Iron

d)

Folic acid

25.

Which of the following is used to treat thrombocytopenia?

a)

Filgrastim

b)

Sargramostim

c)

Erythropoietin

d)

Oprelvekin

26.

What is the requirement of folic acid in pregnant women?

a)

0.8mg/day

b)

0.5mg/day

c)

0.3 mg/day

d)

1gm/day

27.

An adverse effect of parenteral iron therapy is

a)

Blackening of stool

b)

Constipation

c)

Gastric irritation

d)

Pigmentation of skin

28.

Dextran is a good plasma expander, but it has disadvantage of:

a)

interfering in blood group matching

       

b)

causing thrombocytopenia

c)

decreasing microcirculation

d)

promoting roleaux formation

29.

Albumin is commonly used as plasma expander.

Which of the following is not true about albumin?

a)

Used without regard to patient’s blood group

b)

Carries the risk of hepatitis

c)

Doesn’t interfere with coagulation

d)

Causes hypersensitivity

30.

Aromatase inhibitor is used to treat breast cancer because it

a)

interferes with the action of estrogen once it has entered a cell

b)

decreases the concentration of estrogen receptors

c)

causes changes in shape of estrogen receptors

d)

prevents the formation of estrogen

31.

A patient if given 200 mg of a drug IV, and 100mg was eliminated during first two hours, how much will remian after 6 hours if the drug follows first-order kinetics?

a)

25 mg

b)

50 mg

c)

75 mg

d)

100 mg

32.

Drugs that are highly bound to albumin:

a)

effectively cross BBB

b)

have large Vd

c)

are easily filtered at the glomerulus

d)

competes with other drugs for albumin binding drugs

33.

If a drug is distributed into total body water, what dose is needed to obtain plasma level of 5mg/L in a 70 kg patient?

a)

210 mg

b)

50 mg

c)

150 mg

d)

35 mg

34.

A woman is taking oral contraceptives. Which of the following drugs is unlikely to reduce the effectiveness of OC pills?

a)

Carbamazepine

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Ketoconazole

d)

Rifampicin

35.

A 500mg of a drug has efficacy for 6 hours. If the half life of the drug is 8 hours, how long would a 1 gram be effective?

a)

8 hours

b)

12 hours

c)

14 hours

d)

16 hours

36.

With IV infusion, a drug reaches 50% of its final steady state in 6 hours. The plasma half-life of the drug must be:

a)

2 hours

b)

6 hours

c)

12 hours

d)

24 hours

37.

Which of the following is a phase II drug metabolism reaction associated with genetic polymorphism?

a)

acetylation

b)

oxidation

c)

glucuronidation

d)

glutathione conjugation

38.

A sudden physical and neurophysiological change produced to abrupt stoppage of a drug with addiction liability is:

a)

drug addiction

b)

psychological dependence

c)

withdrawal reactions

d)

drug toxicity

39.

If the effect of the combination of two drugs is more than the sum of their individual effects, the two drugs exhibit:

a)

additive effect

b)

cross tolerance

c)

potentiation

d)

synergism

40.

The antidotal action of desferoxamine in iron poisoning is based on:

a)

physical antagonism

b)

chemical antagonism

c)

physiological antagonism

d)

pharmacological antagonism