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Unit 4 Econ Review

Total questions: 136

Worksheet time: 2hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
To focus on producing one thing to improve productivity is known as:
a)
Specialization
b)
International trade
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Supply and Demand
2.
When determining comparative advantage one must determine 
a)
Opportunity cost
b)
Specialization
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Embargos 
3.
If I am better at all types of production, I have the ______ in all forms of production.
a)
Comparative advantage
b)
Specialization
c)
Absolute advantage
d)
developed nation
4.

A trade agreement between 27 countries with the same currency and open trade between those nations.

a)

NAFTA

b)

EU

c)

WTO

d)

ABC

5.
A trade agreement between Canada, Mexico, and the US
a)
NAFTA
b)
EU
c)
WTO
d)
ABC
6.
This trade barrier limits the number of products that can be brought into a country.
a)
Tariff
b)
Quota
c)
Embargo
d)
Subsidy
7.
This is a tax on imports that is used to increase price of foreign products and raise government revenue. 
a)
tariff
b)
quota
c)
subsidy
d)
embargo
8.
This is the most restrictive of the trade restrictions a nation can use to close off all importation of a product.
a)
tariff
b)
quota
c)
subsidy
d)
embargo
9.
Infant industries can be helped in the world market by giving those industries a 
a)
subsidy
b)
quota
c)
embargo
d)
tariff
10.
The main justification for an embargo on foreign goods is to
a)
Punish a nation
b)
raise revenue
c)
Increase consumption or the good
11.

What is an exchange rate?

a)

The rate at which goods are exchanged between two countries

b)

The price of one nation's currency in terms of another's

c)

How many US dollars you can exchange for RMB at Travelex

d)

The price of goods in terms of a foreign currency

12.

According to the table, what is the Euro equivalent of 1 USD?

a)

1.32 Euros

b)

0.53 Euros

c)

.76 Euros

d)

1.59 Euros

13.

According to the table, what is the USD equivalent of 1 Australian?

a)

0.97 USD

b)

1.32 USD

c)

1.28 USD

d)

1.03 USD

14.

If the US $ were to appreciate in relation to the Euro, what effect would this have?

a)

European consumers would have more purchasing power in US

b)

US consumers can buy more European goods and services for fewer $$

c)

US consumers can buy more English goods and services for fewer $$

d)

European tourists to the US will spend more $$

15.

If the Mexican Peso depreciates in relation to the Chinese Yuan, how is Mexico affected?

a)

Mexico has less purchasing power in Chinese currency

b)

Mexico benefits from increased purchasing power

c)

Mexico would have more Chinese investors

d)

They would be invaded by China

16.
The diagram shows the production possibilities curve for Country Y. Which of the following statements is true?
a)
If Country Y is producing at point C, it is using all its resources efficiently
b)
The opportunity cost of producing more machines is constant
c)
Country Y cannot produce at point E
d)
The most efficient point of production is point D
17.
Labor, human capital, entrepreneurship, natural resources, and capital are all examples of which of the following?
a)
Outputs
b)
Substitutes in Production
c)
Absolute Advantage
d)
Factors of Production
18.
Based on the table provided, which one of the following statements is correct?
a)
Japan has the absolute advantage in producing cars
b)
Japan has the comparative advantage in producing cars
c)
The United States has the absolute advantage in producing both cars and computers
d)
The opportunity cost of producing a car in Japan is 1/2 a computer
19.
Improvements in technology for producing all goods must result in:
a)
An inward shift in the production possibilities curve 
b)
A flatter production possibilities curve 
c)
An outward shift in the production possibilities curve 
d)
A steeper production possibilities curve 
20.

Who has the comparative advantage in cars?

a)

Peru

b)

neither

c)

U.S.

d)

not enough info

21.
In this type of economy, the people decide the supply, demand, and price.  
a)
Market 
b)
Traditional
c)
Command 
d)
Mixed
22.
This type of economy is passed down through family traditions. They learn from their parents. 
a)
Traditional 
b)
Market 
c)
Mixed 
d)
Command 
23.

Which type of economy has central ownership, the government, and lack of individual choice?

a)

Market

b)

Mixed

c)

Command

d)

Traditional

24.

Capitalism is in what type of economy?

a)

Traditional

b)

Command

c)

Market

d)

Authortarian

25.
Which two groups of people are represented in the circular flow model?
a)
Buyers and Sellers
b)
Producers and Consumers
c)
Government and Private Individuals
d)
Households and Businesses
26.

The amount of money a business makes after its expenses are paid

a)

profit

b)

supply

c)

demand

d)

scarcity

27.

Focusing on a narrow range of products/services that can be produced most efficiently and cost-effectively.

a)

subsistence

b)

specialization

c)

scarcity

d)

bartering

28.

Competition and profit motive are important characteristics of a:

a)

command economy

b)

traditional economy

c)

market economy

d)

socialist economy

29.

Point B represents

a)

Product Market

b)

Factor Market

c)

Individuals

d)

Businesses

30.

What does point A represent on the Circular flow diagram?

a)

Households

b)

Businesses

c)

Factor Market

d)

Product Market

31.

Where are factors of production (land, labor, etc) exchanged in the circular flow model?

a)

Factor Market

b)

Product Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

32.

In the circular flow diagram firms pay wages for which factor of production?

a)

Land

b)

Labor

c)

Entrepreneurship

d)

Raw materials

33.

The exchange of money for goods/services to consumers is represented in which part of the circular flow diagram?

a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 4

c)

5 and 6

d)

7 and 8

34.

The delivery of finished products for sale in exchange for revenue is represented in which arrows?

a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 4

c)

5 and 6

d)

7 and 8

35.

A person stocks shelves at a grocery store and receives a wage. They have completed an exchange in which part of the circular flow model?

a)

Individuals

b)

Businesss

c)

Factor Market

d)

Product Market

36.

Someone buys a car in exchange for a large amount of money. They have completed an exchange in which part of the circuclar flow model?

a)

Product Market

b)

Factor Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

37.

Money exchanged between businesses and individuals for labor.

a)

wages

b)

revenue

c)

spending

d)

profit

38.

Money exchanged between an individual and a store for a good or service.

a)

Revenue

b)

Wages

c)

Rent

d)

Donation

39.

Money exchanged between an individual and a store for a good or service.

a)

Revenue

b)

Wages

c)

Rent

d)

Donation

40.
The opportunity cost of increasing production from 7 to 9 trucks is
a)
Scarcity
b)
2 boats
c)
2 trucks
d)
3 boats
41.
The opportunity cost of increasing production from 4 to 7 boats is
a)
1 boat
b)
2 boats
c)
2 trucks
d)
3 trucks
42.
If a natural disaster strikes, the production possibilities curve can shift
a)
No shift
b)
To the left
c)
To the right
d)
Outward on one axis only
43.
What can cause a production possibilities curve to move to the right?
a)
thousands of people move out of the country
b)
an epidemic kills thousands of young men and women
c)
a new invention lowers the cost of production
d)
the population is growing increasingly old
44.
What is the production possibilities curve?
a)
a graph that shows how much an economy can produce between 2 goods
b)
how much money something is
c)
the opportunity one has to give up in order to gain something else
d)
land, labor, capital, entrepreneurs
45.
What does point Y represent on the PPC?
a)
Efficiency
b)
Unattainable / impossible
c)
Inefficency
d)
Nothing
46.
What is opportunity cost?
a)
a graph that shows how much an economy can produce between 2 goods
b)
how much money something is
c)
the opportunity one has to give up in order to gain something else
d)
land, labor, capital, entrepreneurs
47.
An incentive is:
a)
the option to select or make a decision when faced with two or more possibilities
b)
a conclusion or resolution reached after consideration
c)
a circumstance that contributes to a result or outcome
d)
a benefit or cost that influences a person's decision
48.

Land includes...

a)

The "gifts of nature" or natural resources not created by human effort.

b)

the tools, equipment, and factories used in production of goods and services

c)

people with all their efforts and abilities

d)

individuals who start a new business or bring a product to market.

49.

Capital refers to...

a)

The "gifts of nature" or natural resources not created by human effort.

b)

people with all their efforts and abilities

c)

the tools, equipment, and factories used in production of goods and services

d)

individuals who start a new business or bring a product to market.

50.

Labor refers to...

a)

people with all their efforts and abilities

b)

individuals who start a new business or bring a product to market.

c)

the tools, equipment, and factories used in production of goods and services.

d)

The "gifts of nature" or natural resources not created by human effort.

51.

Entrepreneurs are...

a)

people with all their efforts and abilities

b)

individuals who start a new business or bring a product to market.

c)

The "gifts of nature" or natural resources not created by human effort.

d)

the tools, equipment, and factories used in production of goods and services

52.
A herd of cattle is an example of ...
a)
Land
b)
Labor
c)
Entrepreneur
d)
Capital
53.
A bulldozer is an example of...
a)
Land
b)
Labor
c)
Entrepreneurs
d)
Capital
54.
Your garbage man is an example of
a)
Land
b)
Labor
c)
Entrepreneurs
d)
Capital
55.
A steel factory is an example of
a)
Land
b)
Labor
c)
Entrepreneurs
d)
Capital
56.
The four types of economic systems are: 
a)
Traditional, Command, Mixed, & Market
b)
Traditional, Command, Combined, & Market
c)
Communism, Capitalism, Free Market, and Macroeconomics
d)
Microeconomics, Macroeconomics, Individual, and Traditional.
57.
What are the 3 economic questions?
a)
What to produce? How To Produce? For whom to produce?
b)
Who to produce? Why you produce? Like to produce?
c)
Why to produce? Tell who to produce? Things to produce?
d)
What to produce? How to produce? When to produce?
58.

If operators are fired and replaced with computer technology, the operators would be considered

a)

frictionally unemployed

b)

structurally unemployed

c)

cyclically unemployed

d)

dissatisfiededly unemployed dissatisfiededly unemployed

59.

Cyclical unemployment

a)

Describes recent college graduates

b)

Lasts longer than 6 months

c)

Describes employees moving from one job to another

d)

Increases inflation Increases inflation

60.

Seasonal unemployment

a)

Describes recent college graduates

b)

Is predictable

c)

Is a result of changes in technology

d)

Slows the economy Slows the economy

61.

Which of these people is officially unemployed

a)

A secretary who took 6 months off for maternity leave

b)

An aspiring actress who waits tables but would rather act

c)

Maid who got fired and will start a new job in 2 weeks

d)

A student who only works 4 hours a week in the library

62.

Farm helpers are unemployed when the cropping season is over.

a)

frictional

b)

cyclical

c)

structural

d)

seasonal

63.

Which of the following best defines unemployment?

a)

The state of being able to work and actively seeking work, but unable to find employment

b)

The state of being able to work, but choosing not to

c)

The percentage of the labour force that is able and actively seeking work, but cannot find employment

d)

The total number of people who do not work

64.

When individuals lose jobs due to fall in aggregate demand, often during an economic recession.

a)

Structural Unemployment

b)

Cyclical Unemployment

c)

Frictional Unemployment

d)

Seasonal Unemployment

65.

What type of unemployment is a person experiencing when they are laid off during a recession?

a)

Frictional

b)

Seasonal

c)

Cyclical

d)

Structural

66.
What type of GDP is calculated with the current year's prices?
a)
Nominal GDP
b)
Real GDP
c)
GDP per capita
67.
High levels of GDP per capita indicate...
a)
Higher levels of happiness 
b)
Higher standard of living
c)
Equal levels of wealth 
d)
Self-sufficient communities
68.
Expectant parents buy supplies for the nursery.  Would this be included in GDP? 
a)
Yes - Consumer Spending
b)
Yes - Investment 
c)
No - Intermediate goods
d)
No - Non-market activity
69.
The trade in exotic animals being illegally sold as pets is a multi-billion-dollar-a-year industry.  Is this included in GDP?
a)
Yes - Consumer spending
b)
Yes - Government Spending
c)
No - Underground Economy 
d)
No - Non-market activity 
70.
GDP is calculated by
a)
adding up the cost of goods used in producing the item
b)
subtracting all costs from total revenue
c)
adding consumption + investment +government spending+ (exports sold - imports bought)
71.
Which is an example of investment in human capital?
a)
trucks
b)
factories
c)
education
d)
highways
72.
Mark always changes his own oil.  Is this effort counted in GDP?
a)
No - Black Market
b)
No - Non-market Activity
c)
No - Unreported Income
d)
No - Purely financial transaction 
73.
Each individual on food stamps in Delaware can receive up to $194 a month.  Is this included in government spending?
a)
Yes - Government spending
b)
Yes - Consumer Spending
c)
No - Intermediate Goods
d)
No - Purely financial Transaction 
74.
What is the 1st economic goal of each country?
a)
Limit Inflation
b)
Limit Unemployment
c)
Promote Economic Growth
d)
Measure expenditures
75.
What does Per Capita Mean?
a)
Per Household
b)
Per Object
c)
Per Worker
d)
Per Person
76.

Most countries try to maintain an inflation rate of ______ per year.

a)

One percent or less

b)

Two to three percent

c)

Four to five percent

d)

Six to seven percent

77.

Which of the following terms is also known as total output?

a)

Price index

b)

Price level

c)

Aggregate demand

d)

Aggregate supply

78.

The _______ considers the weighted averages of a group of consumer goods and services.

a)

Consumer price index

b)

Aggregate supply

c)

Producer price index

d)

Aggregate demand

79.

__________ refers to a decrease in price level.

a)

Hyperinflation

b)

Disinflaation

c)

Deflation

d)

Stagflation

80.

__________ occurs in the economy when unemployment and inflation are both high.

a)

Hyperinflation

b)

Disinflation

c)

Deflation

d)

Stagflation

81.

Which of the following causes of inflation is often described as “too much money chasing too few goods”?

a)

Demand-pull inflation

b)

Cost-push inflation

c)

Demand-push inflation

d)

Cost-pull inflation

82.

Thousands of people leave a small town due to a factory closing down. Sales at the local grocery store are reduced. What causes this change?

a)

Prices or availability of substitutes

b)

Prices or availability of complementary goods

c)

Change in the weather or season

d)

Change in the number of buyers

83.

New technology advances the rate at which furniture can be assembled. Why does this change the supply?

a)

There is a change in cost of production.

b)

The number of producers changes.

c)

The expectations of consumers changes.

d)

The output rate declines.

84.

Which of the following best refers to the market equilibrium price?

a)

Surpluses depress the number of goods supplied.

b)

Shortages and surpluses will have no effect on the market.

c)

The government will not intervene in the market.

d)

The quantity demanded is the same as the quantity supplied.

85.

Mr Coyote goes to the ticket booth to buy tickets for a Spurs game. Mr. Coyote is told that the game is sold out and no tickets are available. Which best explains why there are no basketball tickets available?

a)

The arena forgot to print enough tickets.

b)

The supply of tickets was greater than the demand.

c)

The arena charged too much money for each ticket.

d)

The demand for tickets was greater than the supply.

86.

Which statement expresses a central idea of how the laws of supply and demand work?

a)

The government sets the prices for goods and services.

b)

Prices are determined by the interaction of producers and consumers.

c)

Consumers alone determine the prices for goods and services.

d)

Technology dictates the prices charged for goods and services.

87.
Which situation is most likely to lead to the lowest prices?
a)
There is only one producer making the good.
b)
Businesses secretly agree to share their profits.
c)
Competition between businesses is prohibited.
d)
Several producers compete to sell goods to the public.
88.
When companies compete in a market economy, what is usually the result?
a)
Consumers are able to buy goods for the best available price.
b)
People pay much higher prices for goods.
c)
There are frequent shortages of goods on the market.
d)
Producers refuse to sell some of their products.
89.

If the price of a substitute to good X increases, then

a)

The demand for good X will increase.

b)

The market price of good X will decrease.

c)

The demand for good X will decrease.

d)

The demand for good X will not change.

90.

Suppose you like banana cream pie made with vanilla pudding. Assuming all other things are constant, you notice that the price of bananas is higher. How would your demand for vanilla pudding be affected by this?

a)

It would decrease.

b)

It would increase.

c)

It would be unaffected.

d)

There is insufficient information given to answer the question.

91.

What will happen in the rice market if buyers are expecting higher prices in the near future?

a)

The demand for rice will increase.

b)

The demand for rice will decrease.

c)

The demand for rice will be unaffected.

d)

The supply of rice will increase.

92.

Refer to Graph 4-1. The movement from point A to point B on the graph shows

a)

a decrease in demand.

b)

an increase in demand.

c)

an increase in quantity demanded.

d)

a decrease in quantity demanded.

93.

Other things equal, when the price of a good rises, the quantity supplied of the good also rises. What best refers to this situation?

a)

The law of increasing costs.

b)

The law of diminishing returns.

c)

The law of supply.

d)

The law of demand

94.

Refer to Graph 4-4. On the graph, what could most likely cause the movement from S to S1?

a)

A decrease in the price of the good.

b)

An increase in income.

c)

An improvement in technology.

d)

An increase in input prices.

95.

Refer to Graph 4-5. According to the graph, what are the equilibrium price and quantity?

a)

$7, 20.

b)

$7, 60.

c)

$5, 40.

d)

$3, 60.

96.

Refer to Graph 4-5. According to the graph, What occurs at a price of $7?

a)

there would be a shortage of 40 units.

b)

there would be a surplus of 40 units.

c)

there would be a surplus of 20 units.

d)

the market would be in equilibrium.

97.
Legal maximum that can be charged for a good.
a)
price ceiling
b)
excess demand
c)
equilibrium
d)
disequilibrium
98.
What is the government controlled price ceiling on apartment prices called?
a)
floor pricing
b)
rent control
c)
equilibrium level
d)
rent monitoring
99.
When the government sets a price floor on earned income, it is called which of the following?
a)
market equilibrium rate
b)
base-level wage
c)
minimum wage
d)
employment guarantee
100.
Why does the government place price ceilings on some "essential" goods?
a)
to prevent inflation during to reduce supply for these goods
b)
to keep business people from making large profits
c)
to keep the goods from becoming too expensive
d)
to reduce demand for these goods
101.
When quantity demanded exceeds quantity supplied at a certain cost
a)
shortage
b)
fad
c)
search costs
d)
surplus
102.
This part of the market determines DEMAND
a)
buyers
b)
sellers
c)
suppliers
d)
store owners
103.
This part of the market determines SUPPLY
a)
buyers
b)
sellers
c)
consumers
d)
us
104.
For the law of demand, as price rises, what happens to quantity demanded?
a)
it goes up
b)
it goes down
c)
it stays the same
d)
it is not effected
105.
Goods that are bought and used together are 
a)
complementary goods
b)
substitute goods
c)
income goods
d)
unrelated goods
106.

All​ ​of​ ​these​ ​are​ ​functions​ ​of​ ​money​ ​​EXCEPT

a)

Medium of exchange

b)

Store of value

c)

Commodity money

d)

unit of measurement

107.
Money loses its value when it
a)
It becomes too plentiful
b)
becomes too portabale
c)
is divisible
d)
is durable
108.

Jack saves his money in a piggy bank. He is using money as a

a)

medium of exchange

b)

store of value

c)

unit of measurement

d)

bartering tool

109.

When a bank makes a loan of $1,000, then

a)

the money supply increases by $1,000

b)

the money supply decreases by $1,000

c)

nothing

d)

the bank owes the FED $1,000

110.

It is the study of the nations economy as a whole.

a)

Microeconomics

b)

National economy

c)

National output

d)

Macroeconomics

111.

This happens when there is an increase in the production of goods and services.

a)

Economic Development

b)

Economic Progress

c)

Economic Growth

d)

Economic efficiency

112.

It is the list all final goods and services sold within an economy for a period of time.

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

Gross National Product

c)

Consumer Price Index

d)

Market Basket of Goods

113.

Point A on the graph is:

a)

trough

b)

period of contraction

c)

peak

d)

recovery

114.

Point D on the graph is a period of:

a)

contraction

b)

expansion

c)

recession

d)

decline

115.

The natural rate of unemployment is between:

a)

3% and 6%

b)

2% and 4%

c)

4% and 7%

d)

4% and 6%

116.

GPD that is adjusted for inflation is called:

a)

nominal GDP

b)

real GDP

117.

A period of macroeconomic expansion or growth, followed by a period of contraction, or decline.

a)

Business Cycle

b)

Circular Flow

c)

Equilibrium

d)

GDP

118.

The actions the Federal Reserve System takes to influence the level of real GDP and the rate of inflation in the economy.

a)

Fiscal Policy

b)

Monetary Policy

c)

Congressional Policy

d)

Executive Policy

119.

The buying and selling of government securities in order to alter the supply of money.

a)

Open Market Operations

b)

Expansion

c)

Discount Rate

d)

Trough

120.

What is macroeconomic policy objective?

a)

to increase employment

b)

to increase the output of the car industry

c)

to reduce the price level

d)

to reduce economic growth

121.

Which change is most likely to reduce total demand ?

a)

an increase in investment

b)

an increase in savings

c)

a reduction in government tax revenue

d)

a reduction in imports

122.

How may fiscal policy increase total (aggregate) demand?

a)

by cutting the rate of interest

b)

by cutting the rate of taxation

c)

by increasing the budget surplus

d)

by increasing the money supply

123.

Which policy measure is an example of monetary policy designed to reduce total (aggregate) demand?

a)

a limit placed on bank lending

b)

a reduction in interest rates

c)

a rise in income tax

d)

a switch in government spending from consumer to capital goods

124.

What is meant by a regressive tax ?

a)

one designed to create a more even distribution of income

b)

one which is impossible to evade

c)

one which is earning less tax revenue than previously

d)

one which takes a larger percentage of tax from the poor than the rich

125.

The expansionary fiscal policy involves

a)

only an increase in taxes

b)

a decrease in government spending and/or an increase in taxes

c)

only a decrease in government spending

d)

an increase in government spending and/or a decrease in taxes

126.

Acting as a banker to the commercial bank and establishing an effective monetary policy are the basic functions of

a)

central bank

b)

commercial banks

c)

merchant banks

d)

clearing house

127.

An increase in the price of raw materials causes a __________________ inflation

a)

cost push

b)

profit push

c)

import push

d)

demand pull

128.
"The Fed" refers to the....
a)
Federal Bureau of Investigation
b)
Federal Government
c)
Federal Reserve System
d)
Federal Income Tax
129.
Influencing the economy by changing the reserve requirement is called:
a)
Fiscal policy
b)
Monetary policy
c)
Tight Money
d)
Easy Money
130.
What does Inflation do to the value of money?
a)
Makes it go up.
b)
Makes it go down.
c)
Makes it stay the same.
131.
The primary role of the Federal Reserve Bank is to steer the economy by
a)
controlling the budget
b)
setting spending levels.
c)
controlling the money supply.
d)
loaning out money.
132.
If the economy is expanding too quickly, the Federal Reserve will institute which type of monetary policy?
a)
Expansionary
b)
Contractionary
c)
Equanimitous
d)
Whole Dollar
133.
The Fed ______________ banks to ensure the soundness of the banking system.
a)
regulates
b)
closes
c)
opens
d)
runs
134.

In this tax structure a single tax rate (percentage) is applied to all levels of income. Some states use this as structure for State Income tax, and our FICA taxes are collected in this way.

a)

Progressive Tax

b)

Regressive Tax

c)

Proportional or Flat Tax

d)

Excise Tax

135.

An example of contractionary fiscal policy would be

a)

raise taxes

b)

raise government spending

c)

raise production of consumer goods

d)

increase unemployment payments

136.

The difference between representative money and fiat money is that

a)

representative money is worth more than fiat money.

b)

fiat money is counted in coins; representative money is counted in paper dollars.

c)

fiat money is more durable than representative money.

d)

representative money is backed by silver or gold, ; fiat money is not.