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Fall Final Exam Anatomy and Physiology 21-22

Total questions: 212

Worksheet time: 4hrs 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

All of the following are characteristics of all living things EXCEPT

a)

Respond to stimulus

b)

Grow and develop

c)

Made of cells

d)

Movement

2.

What is the meaning of Gratitude?

a)

Being kind to people

b)

Letting others know you see how they've helped you

c)

Being truthful and honest in what you say

d)

Loving other people

3.

What is the job of the mitochondria?

a)

Makes Energy

b)

Uses Sunlight in Plants

c)

Creates Protein

d)

Protects the cell

4.

This organelle digests dead cell parts and contains enzymes

a)

lysosome

b)

golgi body

c)

smooth ER

d)

Rough ER

5.

What organelle is represented by this image?

a)

rough endoplasmic reticulum

b)

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

6.

Which organelle contains DNA and controls the cell?

a)

Cell membrane

b)

nucleus

c)

nucleolus

d)

lysosme

7.

What function does this organelle carry out in the cell?

a)

detoxification

b)

packaging materials for release from the cell

c)

breaking down old cellular components

d)

storing genetic material

8.

Proteins are produced at this organelle.

a)

golgi body

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoskeleton

d)

cilia

9.

This organelle makes useable energy for the cell

a)

chloroplast

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleolus

10.

Which organelle is this?

a)

Golgi Apparatus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Chloroplast

11.

This organelle makes lipids for the cell.

a)

Rough ER

b)

Smooth ER

c)

Golgi body

d)

nucleus

12.

What organelle controls and regulates cellular activity?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Mitochondria

d)

Lysosome

13.

The ____________ packages and processes material before it exports out of the cell.

a)

Vacuoles

b)

mitochondria

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nucleus

14.

What am I? I'm a real "powerhouse". I break down glucose to make ATP.

a)

Cell membrane

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondria

d)

lysosome

15.

which of the following transports material within the cell?

a)

Golgi apparatus

b)

Endoplasmic reticulum

c)

cell wall

d)

ribosomes

16.

Rough endoplasmic reticulum has ________________ attached to it.

a)

ribosomes

b)

chromosomes

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

nucleolus

17.

packages and distributes proteins

proteins may be modified here

a)

golgi body

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosomes

d)

lysosome

18.

What is cell differentiation?

a)

Process by which cells produce more cells

b)

Process by which cells become specialized

c)

Process by which cells become unspecialized

d)

Process by which cells die

19.

What is one goal of cellular differentiation/specialization?

a)

To create specialized cells to help organism maintain homeostasis.

b)

To many cells.

c)

To make stem cells

d)

to make single celled organisms

20.

Stem cells are

a)

cells that grow uncontrollably

b)

undifferentiated and can be any type of cell

c)

never go through cell division

d)

only found in embryos

21.

what is the role of stem cells in the body

a)

fight against infection

b)

provide specialized roles in the body

c)

used for fertility treatment

d)

they produce new specialized cells in the body to replace old cells that are used up

22.

Name the cellular process responsible for repair, growth, and development in living organisms.

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

transcription

d)

translation

23.

This type of cell sends messages throughout the body in the form of electrical impulse.

a)

nerve cell

b)

sperm cell

c)

muscle cell

d)

skin cell

24.

This type of cell carries oxygen throughout the body.

a)

gamete

b)

platelet

c)

white blood cell

d)

red blood cell

25.

This type of cell carries oxygen throughout the body.

a)

gamete

b)

platelet

c)

white blood cell

d)

red blood cell

26.

This type of cell fights infection.

a)

red blood cell

b)

platelet

c)

white blood cell

d)

antibacterial cell

27.

This type of cell is found in males and is responsible for reproduction.

a)

sperm cell

b)

egg cell

c)

muscle cell

d)

nerve cell

28.

In what way is the DNA of a nerve cell different from the DNA of a muscle cell?

a)

The DNA is the same but each cell contains different genes

b)

The DNA is the same but different genes are turned on and turned off in each cell

c)

The DNA is different, but the same genes are turned on and off in each cell

d)

The DNA is different, but each cell contains the same genes

29.

All our cells, except sex cells like eggs or sperm, have ___________ DNA

a)

different

b)

similar

c)

exactly the same

d)

half the amount of

30.

A group of similar cells that come together to perform a specific function is a/an

a)

organ

b)

organism

c)

organ system

d)

tissue

31.

Which of the following is the correct order of organization in living things from most basic (simple) to most complex?

a)

a. Organism, cell, tissue, organ, organ system

b)

a. Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organism

c)

a. Cell, tissue, organ, organ system, organism

d)

a. Cell, organ, tissue, organ, organism, organ system

32.

This is a example of ........

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

33.

Most of the cell membrane is made of...

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbs

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic acids

34.

Hydrophobic region of the cell membrane?

a)

E

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A

35.

The cell membrane is made up of ????

a)

proteins

b)

atp

c)

adp

d)

proteins and lipids

36.

During what phase of Mitosis do the chromosomes line up in the Middle

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

37.

PMAT helps us remember the correct order of the phases of Mitosis. Which of the following has the phases of Mitosis in the correct Order

a)

Interphase, Mitosis, Cytokinesis

b)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Prophase

c)

Anaphase, Telophase, Prophase, Telophase

d)

Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, Telophase

38.

In which phase of Mitosis do the Chromosomes pull Apart

a)

Metaphase

b)

Prophase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

39.

_____________ deals with the FORM or STRUCTURE (morphology) of the body and its ORGANIZATION.

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Body composition

d)

BMI

40.

__________________ studies the FUNCTION of these the parts/structures of the body.

a)

Physiology

b)

Anatomy

c)

Body composition

d)

BMI

41.

_________________ is a condition of a stable internal environment

a)

body composition

b)

gross anatomy

c)

homeostasis

d)

radiographic anatomy

e)

physiology

42.

Axillary is also know as ________

a)

back of the head

b)

between the hips

c)

armpit

d)

belly button

43.

Lumbar is also known as ________.

a)

back of the knee

b)

lower back

c)

cheek

d)

chest

44.

Carpal is also known as ___________.

a)

upper arm

b)

around the eye

c)

chest

d)

wrist

45.

Orbital is also known as _______.

a)

around the mouth

b)

around the eye

c)

cheek

d)

back of the head

46.

Femoral is also known as _______.

a)

the foot

b)

thigh

c)

back of the knee

d)

ankle

47.

The abdominal region is ______ to the pelvic region.

a)

superior

b)

inferior

48.

The skin is _______ to the muscle.

a)

deep

b)

superficial

49.

The ______ plane divides the body into left and right halves.

a)

transverse

b)

frontal

c)

sagittal

50.

The fingers are _____ to the wrist.

a)

proximal

b)

distal

51.

What is the proper order for a negative feedback loop?

a)

Sensor, control, effector, stimulus

b)

control, effector, stimulus, sensor

c)

stimulus, sensor, control, effector

d)

effector, sensor, control, stimulus

52.

Which of the following best describes the anatomical position?

a)

sitting

b)

standing erect with palms facing backward

c)

standing erect with palms facing forward

d)

curled up like a fetus

53.

Which picture below best represents the anatomical position?

a)
b)
c)
d)
54.

Which term best completes the sentence:

The thigh is ___________ to the pelvis (hip)?

a)

deep

b)

superficial

c)

inferior

d)

medial

55.

Which term best completes the sentence:

The heel is ________ to the toes.

a)

lateral

b)

posterior

c)

inferior

d)

anterior

56.

Which term best completes the sentence:

The ears are ___________ to the nose.

a)

distal

b)

superior

c)

lateral

d)

superficial

57.

Which term best completes the sentence:

The ankle is __________ to the knee.

a)

distal

b)

deep

c)

superior

d)

medial

58.

Which term best completes the sentence:

The muscles are ______ to the skin.

a)

anterior

b)

proximal

c)

lateral

d)

deep

59.

What plane is this?

a)

sagittal

b)

frontal

c)

transverse

d)

coronal

60.

What plane is this?

a)

midsagittal

b)

frontal

c)

transverse

d)

parasagittal

61.

What plane is this?

a)

parasagittal

b)

oblique

c)

transverse

d)

frontal

62.

Finish this sentence:

Homeostasis is the ability to maintain a __________ internal environment.

a)

stable

b)

fluctuating

c)

an elevated

d)

decreased

63.

What type of feedback loop is this if it is showing blood sugar levels rising and then decreasing over time?

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

medial feedback

d)

homeostasis

64.

If this graph is showing homeostasis at approx 100 W/n, then what type of feedback is this showing?

a)

negative feedback

b)

positive feedback

c)

neutral feedback

d)

binary feedback

65.

The key to negative feedback is that the correction is __________ the deviation. Example: the way a thermostat works

a)

amplified

b)

eliminated

c)

opposite

d)

there is no correction

66.

Ventral cavity that houses the lungs.

a)

Thoracic

b)

Abdominal

c)

Pelvic

d)

Cranial

67.

Which cardinal plane is highlighted in green?

a)

Transverse

b)

Sagital

c)

Midsagital

d)

Coronal

68.

What type of view is this?

a)

Midsagital

b)

Transverse

c)

Coronal

69.
a)

Cranial Cavity

b)

Pleural Cavity

c)

Pericardial Cavity

d)

Vertebral Canal

70.

The cavity surrounded by a box is?

a)

Abdominal Cavity

b)

Pelvic Cavity

c)

Pleural Cavity

d)

Cranial Cavity

71.

The cavity surrounded by a box is?

a)

Cranial Cavity

b)

Abdominal Cavity

c)

Pelvic Cavity

d)

Abdominopelvic Cavity

72.

The cavity surrounded by a box is?

a)

Abdominal Cavity

b)

Pelvic Cavity

c)

Thoracic Cavity

d)

Pericardial Cavity

73.

The cavity surrounded by a box is?

a)

Pericardial Cavity

b)

Pleural Cavity

c)

Abdominal Cavity

d)

Pelvic Cavity

74.

This type of tissue lines the internal organs and covers the outside of the body as skin

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscular

d)

nervous

75.

This type of tissue includes ligaments, tendons, and cartilage

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscular

d)

nervous

76.

Epithelial tissue is

a)

Bone, cartilage,dense connective tissue, loose connective tissue, and blood

b)

Highly specialized tissue that contracts or shortens to produce movement

c)

Lining and covering tissue of the body such as skin

77.

Which of the following is a type of muscle tissue

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

d)

All of the above

78.

Blood is an example of what type of tissue?

a)

muscle

b)

epithelial

c)

nervous

d)

connective

79.

Adipose tissue, cartilage, and ligaments are what type of tissue?

a)

muscle

b)

connective

c)

nervous

d)

epithelial

80.

This type of tissue covers the internal organs and also makes up the skin

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscular

d)

nervous

81.

This type of tissue includes ligaments, tendons, and cartilage

a)

epithelial

b)

connective

c)

muscular

d)

nervous

82.

The shaft of the bone is also called the

a)

epiphysis

b)

diaphysis

c)

endosteum

d)

periosteum

83.

The hardest, most dense part of the bone tissue is the

a)

periosteum

b)

spongy bone

c)

osteoblast

d)

compact bone

84.

What are functions of the skeleton?

a)

Protection

b)

Blood cell production

c)

Movement

d)

All of these

85.

This type of bone is solid throughout except for the central canals and lacunae.

a)

Compact Bone

b)

Spongy or Cancellous Bone

86.

Which of the following is filled with yellow marrrow?

a)

medulary cavity

b)

spongy bone

c)

periosteum

d)

compact bone

87.

If cartilage remains in this "specific" area, then growth is still occurring; it is located at the end of long bone

a)

Epipyseal plate

b)

Medulary Cavity

c)

Diaphysis

d)

Endosteum

88.

The ENDS of the long bone are anatomically referred to as the:

a)

Epiphyseal plate

b)

Medulary Cavity

c)

Periosteum

d)

Epiphysis

89.

Identify 1:

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

90.

Identify 2

a)

Proximal Epiphysis

b)

Diaphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

91.

Identify 4

a)

Articular Cartilage

b)

Proximal Epiphysis

c)

Distal Epiphysis

d)

Epiphyseal Line

92.

Identify 5, the type of bone tissue with trabeculae is called

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Articular Cartilage

d)

Epiphyseal Line

93.

Identify the thin plate labeled #6.

a)

Spongy Bone

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Articular Cartilage

d)

Epiphyseal Line

94.

Structure 7 is the outer covering of the bone made up of fibrous connect tissue called

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

95.

Identify 9, the hollow cavity inside the shaft of the bone.

a)

Medullary Cavity

b)

Compact Bone

c)

Yellow Marrow

d)

Periosteum

96.

Structure #4 is a single unit of bone, called a/an

a)

osteon

b)

osteocyte

c)

lacuna

d)

osteoblast

97.

Mature bone cells that live in tiny cavities within the bone are called?

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteoclasts

d)

osteons

98.

Which of these is a long bone?

a)

Femur

b)

Patella

c)

Scapula

d)

Carpal

99.

Structure #3 is a/n

a)

osteon

b)

perforating (Volkmann's) canals

c)

Central (Haversian) canals

d)

canaliculi

100.

Structures #5, which are situated within structures #8, are

a)

osteons

b)

lamellae

c)

lacunae

d)

osteocytes

101.

Structures #6 are

a)

osteons

b)

lamellae

c)

lacunae

d)

canaliculi

102.

Structures #8, the cavities surrounding structures #5, are the

a)

osteons

b)

lamellae

c)

lacunae

d)

osteocytes

103.

Structure #7 is the

a)

medullary cavity

b)

periosteum

c)

epiphysis

d)

diaphysis

104.

In adults, the substance at #6 would be

a)

red marrow

b)

yellow marrow

c)

spongy bone

d)

clotted blood

105.

Number 8 is the

a)

maxilla

b)

mandible

c)

frontal bone

d)

parietal bone

106.

Number 1 is the

a)

parietal bone

b)

occipital bone

c)

frontal bone

d)

temporal bone

107.

Number 19 is the

a)

fibula

b)

tibia

c)

patella

d)

phalanges

108.

Number 21 is the

a)

fibula

b)

tibia

c)

femur

d)

phalanges

109.

Number 18 is the

a)

fibula

b)

tibia

c)

femur

d)

phalanges

110.

Number 11 is the

a)

radius

b)

ulna

c)

humerus

d)

femur

111.

Number 10 is the

a)

scapula

b)

sternum

c)

pelvis

d)

frontal bone

112.

Number 25 is the

a)

scapula

b)

sternum

c)

clavical

d)

mandible

113.

Bones 4, 5, and 6 are all

a)

phalanges

b)

metacarpals

c)

carpals

d)

tarsals

114.

Bones numbered 3 are

a)

carpals

b)

metatarsals

c)

metacarpals

d)

phalanges

115.

A, B, C & D are

a)

tarsals

b)

metatarsals

c)

phalanges

d)

carpals

116.

E represents

a)

Phalanges

b)

tarsals

c)

metatarsals

d)

fibula

117.

The number of bones in the human skeleton is

a)

260

b)

206

c)

266

d)

602

118.

mandible

a)

cheek bone

b)

jaw bone

c)

ankle bone

d)

shoulder bone

119.

clavicle

a)

collar bone

b)

cheek bone

c)

shoulder bone

d)

tail bone

120.

patella

a)

cheek bone

b)

tail bone

c)

hip bone

d)

kneecap

121.

scapula

a)

collar bone

b)

shoulder bone

c)

hip bone

d)

tail bone

122.

carpal

a)

breast bone

b)

ankle bone

c)

wrist bone

d)

tail bone

123.

frontal bone

a)

forehead

b)

cheek bone

c)

back of the head

d)

neck bone

124.

bone highlighted in green

a)

sphenoid

b)

occipital

c)

parietal

d)

ethmoid

125.

suture highlighted in red

a)

coronal

b)

squamosal

c)

lamboidal

d)

metopic

126.

suture highlighted in red

a)

frontal

b)

sagittal

c)

coronal

d)

squamosal

127.

bone highlighted in green

a)

ethmoid

b)

occipital

c)

coronal

d)

temporal

128.

suture highlighted in red

a)

coronal

b)

lamboidal

c)

sagittal

d)

metopic

129.

suture highlighted in red

a)

lamboidal

b)

frontal

c)

sagittal

d)

squamosal

130.

The following is NOT one of the 3 Joint Classifications..

a)

Cartilaginous

b)

Cartilage

c)

Fibrous

d)

Synovial

131.

The joints that allow the most movement are called

a)

Fixed

b)

Fibrous

c)

Cartilaginous

d)

Synovial

132.

Examples of a Ball & Socket Joint are found in the

a)

Shoulder

b)

Knee

c)

Hip

d)

Ankle

133.

A hinge joint allows

a)

A wide range of movements

b)

Circumduction

c)

Rotation

d)

Movement in only one direction (ie. backwards & forwards)

134.

An example of a Saddle joint is in the

a)

Knee

b)

Hip

c)

Thumb

d)

Vertebral column

135.

When kicking a football the knee

a)

Flexes

b)

Extends

c)

Abducts

d)

Adducts

136.

Identify the joint action being performed.

a)

Extension

b)

Flexion

c)

Abduction

d)

Adduction

137.
Identify the joint action being performed.
a)
Circumduction
b)
Lateral Rotation
c)
Medial Rotation
d)
Eversion
138.

Identify the joint action being performed.

a)

Inversion

b)

Eversion

c)

Plantarflexion

d)

Dorsiflexion

139.

Hip and shoulder have examples of this type of joint

a)

ball and socket

b)

condyloid

c)

hinge

d)

gliding

140.

The elbows, knees and phalanges are examples of this type of joint

a)

ball and socket

b)

condyloid

c)

gliding

d)

hinge

141.

Carpals and tarsals (flat bones) are examples of this type of joint

a)

condyloid

b)

gliding

c)

hinge

d)

saddle

142.

The knee joint is

a)

Hinge

b)

Gliding

c)

Ball and socket

d)

Pivot

143.

Fibrous joints are?

a)

freely moveable

b)

partially moveable

c)

immovable

144.

What are joints

a)

A place where one bone meets

b)

A place where two bones meet

c)

Bones don't meet

d)

A place where three bones meet

145.

Turning the hand so that the palm is upward or facing anteriorly (in anatomical position).

a)

supination

b)

pronation

c)

flexion

d)

dorsiflexion

146.

Joints between skull bones

a)

diarthrotic/synovial

b)

fibrous/suture

c)

amphiarthrotic/epiphyseal disk

147.

joint between atlas and axis (hint: they move more than the rest of the vertebral column)

a)

synovial

b)

cartilaginous

c)

fibrous

148.

all examples are diarthrosis

a)

fibrous

b)

cartilaginous

c)

synovial

149.

Pubic symphysis

a)

fibrous/epiphyseal disk

b)

cartilaginous/suture

c)

cartilaginous/symphysis

d)

synovial/symphysis

150.

Often contains a fluid-filled cushion

a)

fibrous

b)

cartilaginous

c)

synovial

151.

Which type of joint gives you the largest range of motion?

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Ball-and-socket joint

c)

Hinge joint

d)

Gliding joint

152.

What joint is displayed in picture

a)

Hinge Joint

b)

Saddle joint

c)

Ball and socket joint

153.

What type of joint is displayed in the picture?

a)

Pivot joint

b)

Ellipsoid joint

c)

Hinge joint

154.

What joint is displayed in the picture?

a)

Synovial Joint

b)

Pivot joint

c)

Hip joint

155.

Which is one of the functional ways a joint is classified

a)

Fibrous—tend to be immovable

b)

Amphiarthroses—slightly movable joints

c)

Synovial –tend to be freely movable

156.

Which is one of the structural ways a joint is classified?

a)

Cartilaginous—both immovable and slightly

movable

b)

Synarthroses—immovable joints

c)

Diarthroses—freely movable joints

157.

Where is the lamboidal suture located

a)

between right and left parietal bones

b)

next to the temporal bones

c)

between the parietal and occipital bones

158.

___are thin filaments.

a)

troponin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

actin

d)

myosin

159.

Calcium binds to ___of the troponin-tropomyosin complex.

a)

troponin

b)

tropomyosin

c)

actin

d)

myosin

160.

___are thick filaments.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin

d)

tropomyosin

161.

Calcium is stored in the ___.

a)

sarcoplasm

b)

sarcolemma

c)

sarcoplasmic reticulum

d)

transverse tubules

162.

A ___extends from one Z disc to another Z disc.

a)

Sarcolemma

b)

Neuromuscular junction

c)

Sarcomere

d)

Motor end plate

163.

___forms a crossbridge with actin.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

calcium

d)

ATP

164.

___gets shorter during contraction.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

c)

troponin-tropomyosin

d)

none of these

165.

___provides energy for muscle contraction and relaxation.

a)

cAMP

b)

ADP

c)

ATP

d)

M line

166.

___slides inward during muscle contraction.

a)

actin

b)

myosin

167.

Thick filaments are in a myofibril are

a)

ATPase

b)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

c)

Actin

d)

Myosin

168.

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell is called the:

a)

sarcomere

b)

myofilament

c)

sarcolemma

d)

sarcoplasm

169.

The functional unit of the muscle cell is the:

a)

Sarcomere

b)

Osteon

c)

Myofilament

d)

Muscle fiber

170.

What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?

a)

Niacin and Potassium

b)

Calcium and ATP

c)

Sodium and Potassium

d)

Ach and Potassium

171.

Calcium:

a)

causes ATP binding to actin

b)

increases the action potential along the sarcolemma

c)

binds to proteins on myosin

d)

triggers the binding of myosin to actin

172.

What is a crossbridge?

a)

Where myosin binds to actin

b)

Where the calcium crosses into the cytoplasm

c)

Where calcium binds with troponin

d)

None of the answers are correct.

173.

The energy needed to perform a muscle contraction comes directly from

a)

ATP

b)

Oxygen

c)

Glucose

d)

Calcium

174.

The way in which the structures of the sarcomere work together in order to contract is known as the _______________.

a)

The Sliding Filament Model

b)

Action Potential

c)

Sarcolemme

d)

Muscle Fiber

e)

Rigor Mortis

175.

Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.

a)

Muscle cell

b)

Neuron

c)

Gland

d)

None of the above

176.

The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction says

a)

Actin and myosin filaments condense, thus causing the filament to shorten which in turn shortens the muscle

b)

Myosin rotates and wraps actin around it making the muscle shorter

c)

Friction is reduced between thin and thick filaments causing the thick filaments to move inside the thin

d)

Actin filaments slide over myosin filaments, making the muscle shorter

177.

Which number represents the actin filament?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

178.

Which number represents the myosin filament?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

179.

The neurotransmitter stored in the axon terminal identified as #3

a)

Calcium Ion (Ca2+)

b)

Protein Channel

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Synaptic Cleft

180.

The gap between a neuron and a muscle cell: (#4 in the diagram)

a)

synaptic cleft

b)

sarcolemma

c)

vesicle

d)

Ca2+ ion

181.

Skeletal Muscle contraction is initiated when the ________ sends a message to the muscle cell.

a)

Muscle cell

b)

Neuron

c)

Gland

d)

None of the above

182.

Please select the correct order

a)

1. Muscle cell releases calcium

2. Neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine

3. Sodium & Potassium pump opens

4. Acteylcholine signals cell membrane gates to open

b)

1. Neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine

2. Acteylcholine signals cell membrane gates to open

3. Sodium & Potassium pump opens

4. Muscle cell releases calcium

c)

1. Sodium & Potassium pump opens

2. Acteylcholine signals cell membrane gates to open

3. Muscle cell releases calcium

4. Neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine

d)

1. Neurotransmitter releases acetylcholine

2. Acteylcholine signals cell membrane gates to open

3. Muscle cell releases calcium

4.Sodium & Potassium pump opens

183.

Identify the muscle.

a)

Rectus femoralis

b)

Biceps brachii

c)

Pectoralis major

d)

Gastrocnemius

184.

a)

Abdominal

b)

External Oblique

c)

Erectors

d)

Satorius

185.

a)

Buccinator

b)

Occuli

c)

Pectorals

d)

Soulius

186.

a)

Hamstring

b)

Quadriceps

c)

Bicep

d)

Satorius

187.

a)

Biceps Brachii

b)

Triceps Brachii

c)

Occuli

d)

Trapezius

188.

What muscle is highlighted in the picture?

a)

Triceps Brachii

b)

Biceps Brachii

c)

Quads

d)

Deltoids

189.

Involuntary

a)

skeletal

b)

cardiac

c)

smooth

d)

smooth and cardiac

190.

Trapezius

a)

2

b)

1

c)

18

d)

8

191.

Latissimus dorsi

a)

2

b)

1

c)

14

d)

3

192.

What is the name of this muscle?

a)

Pectoralis major

b)

Deltoid

c)

Pectoralis minor

d)

Triceps brachii

193.

What is the name of this muscle?

a)

Gluteus maximus

b)

Gluteus medius

c)

Gluteus minimus

d)

Piriformis

194.

What is the name of this muscle?

a)

Infraspinatus

b)

Supraspinatus

c)

Subscapularis

d)

Teres minor

195.

What is the name of this muscle?

a)

Semitendinosus

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

Semimembranosus

d)

Rectus femoris

196.

Identify the muscle

a)

Sartorius

b)

Biceps femoris

c)

semitendinousus

d)

Gracilis

197.

Identify the muscle

a)

Gluteus Maximus

b)

Gracilis

c)

Vastus Lateralis

d)

Rectus Femoris

198.
a)

occipitalis

b)

temporalis

c)

frontalis

d)

orbicularis oris

199.

a)

Mastoid

b)

Sternocleidomastoid

c)

Trapezius

d)

Sternohyoid

200.

a)

semimembranosus

b)

semitendinosus

c)

biceps femoris

d)

gluteus medius

201.

a)

Orbicularis Oris

b)

Orbicularis Oculi

c)

Corrugator

d)

Frontalis

202.

a)

Orbicularis Oris

b)

Orbicularis Oculi

c)

Corrugator

d)

Occipitals

203.

a)

Buccinator

b)

Zygomaticus Major

c)

Zygomaticus Minor

d)

Masseter

204.

Bright Red

a)

Occipitalis

b)

Frontalis

c)

Corrugator

d)

Zygomaticus Minor

205.

#10?

a)

orbicularis oculi

b)

zygomaticus

c)

buccinator

d)

orbicularis oris

206.
a)

biceps brachii

b)

triceps brachii

c)

pronator

d)

extensor digitorum

207.

a)

vastus medialis

b)

vastus lateralis

c)

rectus femoris

d)

gracilis

208.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

semitendinosus

b)

vastus medialis

c)

biceps femoris

d)

rectus femoris

e)

vastus lateralis

209.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

semitendinosus

b)

vastus medialis

c)

biceps femoris

d)

rectus femoris

e)

vastus lateralis

210.
a)

rhomboid minor

b)

trapezius

c)

rhomboid major

d)

serratus posterior

211.

What muscle is this?

a)

Deltoid

b)

Masseter

c)

Brachialis

d)

Brachioradialis

212.

What muscle is this?

a)

palmaris longus

b)

flexor carpi ulnaris

c)

pronator teres

d)

extensor carpi ulnaris

e)

extensor digitorum

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