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Earth Science Exam Review

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 3hrs 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
This sphere includes the continents, the ocean floor, all the rocks on the surface, and all of the sand in the deserts. 
a)
Hydrosphere 
b)
Biosphere 
c)
Atmosphere 
d)
Geosphere 
2.
Composed of all the water on or near the earth
a)
Hydrosphere 
b)
Biosphere 
c)
Atmosphere 
d)
Geosphere 
3.
This sphere is composed of all the living things 
a)
Hydrosphere 
b)
Biosphere 
c)
Atmosphere 
d)
Geosphere 
4.
Body of air surrounding our planet. 
a)
Hydrosphere 
b)
Biosphere 
c)
Atmosphere 
d)
Geosphere 
5.
Water evaporating from the surface of a lake moves from the...
a)
Atmosphere to the geosphere 
b)
Geosphere to the hydrosphere 
c)
Hydrosphere to the atmosphere 
d)
Atmosphere to the hydrosphere 
6.
When living things breathe, they interact with which of Earth's spheres? 
a)
Geosphere 
b)
Hydrosphere 
c)
Atmosphere 
d)
Biosphere 
7.

Which layer is composed mostly of iron?

a)

Z

b)

Y

c)

V

d)

X

8.

Which layer is the densest?

a)

Z

b)

X

c)

W

d)

V

9.

Which layer is the thinnest?

a)

V

b)

Z

c)

Y

d)

X

10.

Which layer is the liquid outer core?

a)

Y

b)

Z

c)

V

d)

W

11.

Are layers X and Z cooler than V?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

They are the same temperature.

12.

What layer of Earth contains the plates that cause earthquakes and volcanic eruptions?

a)

The asthenosphere which is solid with the core.

b)

The asthenosphere which contains the crust and mantle.

c)

The lithosphere which contains the crust and outer core.

d)

The lithosphere which contains the crust and upper mantle.

13.

How can you describe the “heat flow” or convection currents in the Earth’s mantle?

a)

When magma is heated by the core, it becomes dense and sinks. When magma cools, it becomes dense and rises.

b)

The heat flow in the mantle bubbles up under the surface causing the surface to be warm.

c)

When magma is heated by the core, it becomes less dense and rises. When magma cools, it becomes dense and sinks.

d)

Heat flow comes up through volcanoes making the Earth warm enough to sustain life.

14.

What creates both solid and liquid parts in the Earth’s core?

a)

Strong pressure and temperature

b)

The crust and mantle holding the heat inside the Earth

c)

Low pressure and temperature

d)

Strong pressure and low temperature

15.

Which layer is represented by the number 1?

a)

outer core

b)

inner core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

16.

Which best describes the Asthenosphere?

a)

molten metal

b)

dense, solid metal ball

c)

solid that flows

d)

dry land and ocean floor

17.

What is the rigid layer of the Earth's surface made up of the Crust and Upper Mantle called?

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Lithosphere

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Continental Crust

18.

Is the Outer Core a liquid or solid?

a)

Liquid

b)

Solid

19.
Which layer is the thinnest, least dense and most brittle?
a)
Mantle
b)
Inner Core
c)
Crust
d)
Outer Core
20.

Which layer of Earth is characterized by rock that is plastic, or soft enough to flow?

a)

Asthenosphere

b)

Crust

c)

Lithosphere

d)

Inner Core

21.

This layer of Earth is the thickest part

a)

Crust

b)

Core

c)

Mantle

d)

Lithosphere

22.

Which layer is the least dense?

a)

Inner Core

b)

Outer Core

c)

Mesosphere

d)

Asthenosphere

23.

What is the correct order (starting from the surface) of Earth's Mechanical layers?

a)

Lithosphere, Mesosphere, Asthenosphere, Inner core, Outer core

b)

Mesosphere, Lithosphere, Inner Core, Outer Core, Asthenosphere

c)

Inner Core, Outer Core, Mesosphere, Lithosphere, Asthenosphere

d)

Lithosphere, Asthenosphere, Mesosphere, Outer Core, Inner Core

24.

Which type of wave cannot travel through the outer core?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

25.

The discontinuity that separates the crust from the mantle is

a)

MOHO

b)

LAB

c)

Gutenberg

26.

The discontinuity that separates the lithosphere from the asthenosphere is the

a)

MOHO

b)

LAB

c)

Gutenberg

27.

The cryosphere is

a)

all dead things

b)

all frozen water

c)

the clouds in the atmosphere

d)

all fresh water

28.
The ability of a mineral to reflect light is called _____. 
a)
Streak
b)
Luster
c)
Hardness
d)
Crystalline Structure
29.
The hardest mineral on the Mohs Hardness Scale ______. 
a)
Talc
b)
Gypsum
c)
Diamond
d)
Halite
30.
FeCO3 would be considered a/an _______________. 
a)
Oxide
b)
Silicate
c)
Sulfide
d)
Carbonate
31.
The powdery residue a mineral leaves when dragged across a porcelain tile _____________________. 
a)
Hardness
b)
Cleavage
c)
Streak
d)
Fracture
32.
The ability of a mineral to break into smooth even surfaces__________. 
a)
Fracture
b)
Cleavage
c)
Streak
d)
Hardness
33.
The most common elements in the earth's crust are _________ and _________. 
a)
Silicon & Nitrogen
b)
Silicon & Oxygen
c)
Oxygen & Nitrogen
d)
Oxygen & Helium
34.
SiO2 would be considered a/an _________
a)
Sulfate
b)
Sulfide
c)
Oxide
d)
Silicate
35.
The ability of a mineral to resist scratching is called ___________
a)
Streak
b)
Hardness
c)
Cleavage
d)
Fracture
36.
 A mineral that is 1 on the hardness scale, fractures, white and powdery is called ______.
a)
Talc
b)
Diamond
c)
Gypsum
d)
Halite
37.

Which of the following statements about minerals is FALSE?

a)

Minerals have a crystalline structure.

b)

Humans can create minerals to suit specific needs.

c)

Minerals are inorganic materials.

d)

Minerals cannot be liquids or gases.

38.
A rock which contains a useful mineral is call a/an
a)
gem
b)
quarry
c)
ore
d)
alloy
39.
By definition, a mineral has which of the following characteristic(s)?
a)
definite chemical composition
b)
crystal structure
c)
naturally occuring
d)
all of the above
40.
The solid, geometric form of a mineral produced by a repeating pattern of atoms
a)
crystal
b)
density
c)
element
d)
fracture 
41.
A valuable, rare mineral
a)
ore
b)
gem
c)
rock
d)
bling
42.
Breakage along smooth, flat planes
a)
fracture
b)
cleavage
c)
streak
d)
ore
43.

Your group is to identify a mineral. You noticed that your mineral fell apart into thin layers or sheets. What mineral did you have?

a)

gypsum

b)

mica

c)

quartz

d)

talc

44.

You and your group have been handed five mineral samples to identify. First, you sort the minerals by color. All five minerals are white! Two are glassy and transparent. You have identified two minerals. They are calcite and quartz. Compare and contrast the properties of the two minerals. How can you EASILY tell them apart?

a)

check if one is shiny

b)

check if one scratches glass

c)

check to see which has bands

d)

check to see if one splits into sheets

45.

The Duluth Complex, one fo the world's largest undeveleoped mineral deposits, stretches across northeastern Minnesota and contains an estimated 4.4 billion tons of valuable metallic minerals. This particular mineral has a hardness of 3. It has a reddish color but the color can change to gray or black when exposed to air and/or water. It has luster and is malleable and ductile. What is this mineral?

a)

cinnabar

b)

copper

c)

lead

d)

silver

46.

According to the Moh's Scale of Mineral Hardness, the sample mineral that will scratch gypsum but not apatite is MOST LIKELY

a)

calcite

b)

quartz

c)

talc

d)

topaz

47.

When crystals form, they can form in different sizes. What contributes the most to the resulting size of the crystal during formation?

a)

pressure

b)

rate of cooling

c)

surface composition

d)

chemical composition

48.

Minerals that are not elemental are usually

a)

covalent bonds

b)

ionic bonds

c)

metallic bonds

49.

Which of the following is not a way to form minerals?

a)

cooling of magma

b)

crystallization from a supersaturated solution

c)

evaporation of a solvent leaving the solute

d)

polishing rock

50.

Which of the following properties is generally the least useful in identifying minerals?

a)

color

b)

cleavage

c)

streak

d)

hardness

51.

The Table below shows the hardness of six minerals.

Using the table, which mineral will scratch Alabaster but will NOT scratch Ekanite?

a)

Creedite

b)

Boracite

c)

Moissanite

d)

Spectrolite

52.

This rock is formed in layers.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

53.

Fossils are often found in this rock.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

54.

Sometimes the heat just changes the size of the mineral crystals in this type of rock.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

55.

This rock may be formed from magma that hardens.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

56.

This rock may be formed from lava.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

57.

What kind of rock is "Granite"?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

58.

What kind of rock is "Marble"?

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

59.

This rock is usually made up of pieces of rock called sediments that have been pressed and cemented together.

a)

Sedimentary

b)

Igneous

c)

Metamorphic

60.

Describe the texture of the following igneous rock.

a)

smooth

b)

coarse

c)

vesicular

d)

glassy

61.

Describe the texture of the following igneous rock.

a)

glassy

b)

rough

c)

vesicular

d)

coarse

62.

Describe the mineral composition of the following igneous rock.

a)

felsic

b)

mafic

63.

Describe the mineral composition of the following igneous rock.

a)

felsic

b)

mafic

64.

Describe the environment of formation for the following igneous rock.

a)

intrusive

b)

extrusive

65.

Describe the environment of formation for the following igneous rock (grain size > 10 mm).

a)

intrusive

b)

extrusive

66.
This rock is made of large bits of gravel cemented together. What type of sedimentary rock is it?
a)
Clastic
b)
Chemical
c)
Organic
67.
This rock is made of the remains of dead sea creatures (which have turned into oil). What type of sedimentary rock is it?
a)
Clastic
b)
Chemical
c)
Organic
68.
The process in which dissolved minerals crystallize and glue sediment together.
a)
cementation
b)
deposition
c)
organic rock
69.
Small pebbles, pieces of other rock, and sand are called?
a)
weathering
b)
sediment
70.

Which formation process do most sedimentary rocks follow?

a)

cementation, compaction, deposition, erosion

b)

erosion, compaction, cementation, deposition

c)

erosion, deposition, compaction, cementation

71.
Metamorphic rocks form from ___.
a)
igneous rocks
b)
other metamorphic rocks
c)
sedimentary rocks
d)
all types of rocks
72.
What are the two main types of metamorphic rocks and how are they different?
a)
intrusive and extrusive; intrusive rocks are formed inside the earth and extrusive rocks are formed on the surface
b)
foliated and nonfoliated; foliated rocks do not have visible bands/layers and nonfoliated rocks do have visible bands/layers
c)
intrusive and extrusive; intrusive rocks are formed on the earth's surface and extrusive rocks are formed in the Earth
d)
foliated and nonfoliated; foliated rocks have visible bands/layers and nonfoliated rocks do not have visible bands/layers
73.
The difference between regional metamorphism and contact metamorphism is that regional metamorphism is caused by _____ from __________ and contact metamorphism is caused by _________ from _______ intruding into other rock.
a)
heat, tectonic plates, pressure, magma
b)
pressure, tectonic plates, heat, magma
c)
heat, magma, pressure, tectonic plates
d)
pressure, magma, heat, tectonic plates
74.
Metamorphic Rocks are classified by
a)
Mineral Composition
b)
Texture (foliated / non foliated)
c)
Grain Sizes
d)
How they formed.
75.
Which of the following best describes the type of environment a metamorphic rock forms in
a)
High heat, low pressure
b)
Low heat, high pressure
c)
High heat, high pressure
d)
Low heat, low pressure
76.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
77.

Which substance is a mixture of organic matter & weathered rock?

a)

Schist

b)

Soil

c)

Limestone

d)

Granite

78.

What is located beneath soil layers?

a)

Bedrock

b)

Humus

c)

Lava

d)

Tundra

79.

Which layer of soil has the most humus?

a)

A horizon

b)

Bedrock

c)

Subsoil

d)

Regolith

80.

Which layer in a soil profile would be most affected by weathering & erosion

a)

C horizon

b)

B horizon

c)

R horizon

d)

A horizon

81.

The 4 agents of erosion are________

a)

air, fire, water, & metamorphism

b)

wind, water, gravity, & ice

c)

topographic, sedimentary, igneous, & deposition

d)

igneous, sedimentary, metamorphic, & gravity

82.

The 2 types of weathering are _________

a)

alpha & beta

b)

physical & conventional

c)

conduction & convection

d)

chemical & physical

83.

What most likely would cause a sinkhole to form?

a)

Collapse of the roof of a limestone cave

b)

Abrupt movement of two tectonic plates

c)

Thinning of topsoil due to forest clearing

d)

Impact of meteorite striking the surface of Earth

84.

The Valley & Ridge province of VA has karst geologic features. Which best describes karst features?

a)

Physical weathering of igneous rocks

b)

Chemical weathering of metamorphic rocks

c)

Physical weathering of foliated gneiss rock layers

d)

Chemical weathering of limestone rock layers

85.

Rivers, springs, & aquifers are all _________

a)

frozen in winter

b)

located above ground

c)

sources of fresh water

d)

human-made structures

86.
The growth of plant roots and animal activity may result in ________________.
a)
erosion
b)
mechanical weathering
c)
chemical weathering
d)
abrasion
87.
The definition of weathering is _______________________.
a)
the carrying away of rock
b)
the leaching of rock
c)
the breaking down of rock
d)
the permeability of rock
88.
The agent of mechanical weathering in which rock is worn away by the grinding action of other rock particles is called _______________.
a)
plant growth
b)
oxygen
c)
abrasion
d)
ice wedging
89.
What kind of weathering causes the mineral composition of rock to change?
a)
mechanical weathering
b)
permeable weathering
c)
chemical weathering
d)
general weathering
90.
Which of the following is a type of mechanical weathering?
a)
abrasion
b)
plant growth
c)
freezing and thawing
d)
all of the above
91.
In the fall, Winston noticed a small crack on a boulder where he played in his backyard. The following spring, he saw that the small crack was much larger than he remembered. What most likely caused the change?
a)
gravity had caused the rock to shift
b)
acid rain had caused the crack to erode
c)
winds had caused the rock to break down
d)
water had frozen and thawed inside the rocks
92.
What is the relationship between wind erosion and plant cover?
a)
More plants means less erosion
b)
More plants means more erosion
c)
There is no relationship
d)
Less plant cover means less erosion
93.
What force causes all types of mass movement?
a)
convection
b)
temperature
c)
gravity
d)
compaction
94.
Humus is.....
a)
the dead parts of plants and animals in soil.
b)
A food we eat with pretzels.
c)
The tiny particles inside of soil
d)
The roots that come off of a plant and live in soil.
95.
Layers of soil are also known as:
a)
Soil Profiles
b)
Soil Horizons
c)
Soil sheets
d)
Soil cores
96.
Substances that fill the spaces between soil particles are...
a)
water and air
b)
humus and weathered rock
c)
sand and clay
d)
moss and lichens
97.

Wind can move bigger pieces of rock than water can.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Wind can carry sand and dust farther than water can.

a)

True

b)

False

99.

What is deflection?

a)

wind erosion that removes surface soil

b)

wind erosion that removes surface rocks

c)

wind erosion that removes underground soil

d)

wind erosion that removes everything from the surface

100.

What are two kinds of wind erosion?

a)

Physical and chemical

b)

Deflation and abrasion

101.
Water that flows over the ground surface rather than soaking into the ground.
a)
rill
b)
rain
c)
runoff
d)
ground water
102.

What is a glacier?

a)

A slow moving river of ice.

b)

A fast moving river of ice.

c)

A walking ice berg.

d)

A huge piece of ice that doesn't move.

103.

How can ice cause weathering?

a)

Water gets smaller when it freezes, so it helps rocks break.

b)

Ice can not cause weathering.

c)

Water expands when it turns into ice. When water goes into a crack in a rock and freezes, it makes that crack even bigger.

d)

Ice can only cause weathering when it is a glacier.

104.
Which measures the water's ability to flow through rock and sediment?
a)
fluidity
b)
viscosity
c)
porosity
d)
permeability
105.

Which force is more powerful?

a)

abrasion

b)

deflation

c)

deposition

d)

mirgration

106.

Select the correct types of glaciers

a)

continental

b)

landscape

c)

valley

d)

cirque

107.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
108.
Name the boundary
a)
convergent boundary
b)
divergent boundary
c)
transform boundary
d)
sergent boundary
109.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
strike slip
110.
What kind of plate boundary is shown here?
a)
divergent
b)
convergent
c)
transform
d)
strike slip
111.
A subduction zone is formed...
a)
when one tectonic plate sinks below another
b)
at every type of convergent plate boundary
c)
at every type of divergent plate boundary
d)
at transform boundaries
112.
What happens when two oceanic plates move apart from each other?
a)
A mid-ocean ridge forms
b)
An underwater volcano forms
c)
An underwater trench forms
d)
An oceanic plate subducts a continental plate
113.
What is this a picture of?
a)
plate tectonics
b)
continental drift
c)
pangea
d)
glacier scaring
114.
This is a picture of glacier scars found in Africa.  What are these evidence for?
a)
Africa has always been near the equator
b)
Africa was once in an area of the Earth that had a very cold climate
c)
The continents have not moved
d)
sea floor spreading
115.
What evidence did Wegener use in his theory?
a)
Continents and fossils fitting together/matching-up like puzzle pieces 
b)
glacier scars and other climate evidence from temperature
c)
mountain ranges and rocks line up across continents
d)
all of the above
116.

The evidence is in ______________________, where coastlines and mountain ranges appear to fit together like a puzzle all over the world

a)

Continental drift

b)

Plate Tectonics

c)

The Rock Cycle

d)

Divergent boundaries

117.

Other evidence include __________________ that plate tectonics does occurr in the crust of the Earth.

a)

Rock formation, weather, fossils

b)

Mountain formation, fossils, climate

c)

Land features, fossils, climate

d)

Valleys, Ocean trenches, climate

118.

The __________________ are chains of undersea mountains.

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridges

b)

Ocean Trench

c)

Divergent boundary

d)

Transform boundary

119.

______________________ continually adds materials to the ocean floor creating ocean floor.

a)

Sea-floor spreading

b)

Ocean trenches

c)

Divergent mid-ocean ridges

d)

Convergent mid-ocean ridges

120.

Oceans plates sink back into the mantle at _______________ zones, keeping the crust the same size.

a)

Mid-ocean ridges

b)

Ocean trenches

c)

Subduction

d)

Transforming

121.

_____________________ are undersea that are the deepest part of the ocean.

a)

Divergent trenches

b)

Ocean trenches

c)

Transform trenches

d)

Mid-ocean trenches

122.
Which of the following supports the theory of seafloor spreading?
a)
Correlation of rock layers
b)
Crustal Age
c)
Magnetic Reversal
d)
Continuous Mountain Chains
123.
What causes the crust to move?
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
tension
d)
radiation
124.
The entire cycle of heating occurring in the mantle is called
a)
Convection currents
b)
Compound currents
c)
heat currents
d)
 subcurrents
125.
When looking at mid ocean ridges the oldest rocks are 
a)
In the middle
b)
Found close to the rift zone
c)
Found far from the mid ocean ridges
126.
What technology was used during WWII to detect enemy submarines and produce the first map of the seafloor?
a)
Sonar
b)
Radar
c)
GPS
127.
Why were magnetic patterns found on the ocean floor puzzling?
a)
They showed alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
b)
No rocks were magnetic.
c)
They did not show alternating bands of normal and reversed polarity.
d)
All rocks were magnetic.
128.
What is label G
a)
Trench
b)
Mid ocean ridge
c)
abyssal plain
d)
sea mount
129.
True or False : Sea-floor Spreading adds new material to the ocean floor?
a)
True
b)
False
130.
What feature is marked by letter A?
a)
Continental slope
b)
Continental shelf
c)
Continental rise
d)
continent
131.
What seafloor feature is marked with the letter D?
a)
Deep ocean trench
b)
Submarine Canyon
c)
Mid-ocean Ridge
d)
None of the above
132.
What seafloor feature is marked with the letter G?
a)
Mid-ocean ridge
b)
submarine canyon
c)
abyssal plain
d)
deep ocean trench
133.

Who first proposed the idea of Continental Drift?

a)

Harry Hess

b)

Alfred Wegener

c)

Albert Einstein

d)

Galileo Galilee

134.

Who first proposed the idea of seafloor spreading?

a)

Alfred Wegener

b)

Harry Hess

c)

James Hutton

d)

Nicolaus Copernicus

135.
What is letter A in the picture?
a)
Vent
b)
Crater
c)
Conduit
d)
Tephra
136.
Types of plutons include....
a)
Shields, Cones, and Composites
b)
Vents, Craters, and Calderas
c)
Dust, Ash, and Blocks
d)
Batholiths, Stocks, Sills, Dikes and Laccoliths
137.
What is letter B in the picture?
a)
Magma Chamber
b)
Crater
c)
Vent
d)
Conduit
138.
What is the largest type of pluton?
a)
Batholith
b)
Sill
c)
Laccolith
d)
Block
139.
What is a table like pluton parallel to the rock it intrudes?
a)
Sill
b)
Batholith
140.

A small volcano with steep sides.

a)

cinder cone

b)

composite

c)

strata

d)

shield

141.

A broad volcano with gently sloping sides is a ________________

a)

Shield

b)

Cinder Cone

c)

Fire Fountain

d)

Composite

142.

A steep-sided volcano formed from layers of lava and ash.

a)

Strata or composite

b)

shield

c)

cinder cone

d)

fire fountain

143.

Lava that is very thin and runny probably

a)

has low silica content

b)

is high in silica

144.

Where are volcanoes most likely to form?

a)

along plate boundaries

b)

near the center of continents

c)

near water

d)

on the moon

145.

One major belt of volcanoes that surrounds the Pacific Ocean

a)

Ring of Fire

b)

Ring of Asia

c)

Ring o' earthquakes

d)

Ring a ding ding

146.
What is the definition of dormant?
a)
sleeping
b)
extinct
c)
active
d)
invisible
147.

_________ lava has solidified as rounded masses, characteristic of eruption under water.

a)

Aa

b)

Pillow

c)

Pahoehoe

d)

Blocky

148.

_______ lava moves slowly and has a smooth, billowy or ropey surface.

a)

Aa

b)

Pahoehoe

c)

Pillow

d)

Blocky

149.

__________ is lava that forms a thick, brittle crust as it cools. The crust is torn into sharp pieces as lava moves underneath it.

a)

Aa

b)

Pahoehoe

c)

Pillow

d)

Blocky

150.

What does the movement of tectonics plates cause?

a)

Stress on rocks.

b)

Deposition of sediments

c)

Erosion of rocks

d)

All of the above.

151.

What is deformation?

a)

Process when the rocks break apart or erode.

b)

Process of when rocks melt away.

c)

Process when rocks change shape under pressure.

d)

The way your bedroom looks before you clean it.

152.

What occurs during folding?

a)

Rocks change color.

b)

Rocks form and create a landslide.

c)

Rock layers combine to create a mountain.

d)

Rock layer bend under stress.

153.

What happens in reverse faults?

a)

The hanging wall move upward relative to the footwall.

b)

The hanging wall moves downward relative to the footwall..

c)

The fault causes a reaction having magma rises up and create a mountain.

d)

The blocks move sideways relative to each other.

154.

How do Fault-Block mountains form?

a)

Tension pushes the blocks of lithosphere on top of each other.

b)

Tension makes the lithosphere break into many pieces causing some to fall relative to others.

c)

Shear stress makes the mountains break.

d)

Compression makes the mountains rise up.

155.
The tallest mountains on Earth are formed by _______________.
a)
oceanic to continental convergence
b)
ocean to ocean convergence
c)
continental to continental convergence
d)
hot spots
156.
Stress that stretches rock so that it becomes thinner in the middle!
a)
tension
b)
compression
c)
sheear
d)
rubber-binder
157.
What type of stress is happening to these layers of crust?
a)
Compression
b)
Seperation
c)
Faulting
d)
Tension
158.
What type of fault does the image represent?
a)
Normal Fault
b)
Reverse Fault
c)
Strike Slip Fault
d)
Trench Fault
159.
What type of stress are the fault blocks experiencing?
a)
Compression
b)
Tension
c)
Shear Stress
d)
Cleavage
160.
True or False
Normal faulting occurs where tensional stresses cause the crust to be stretched.
a)
True
b)
False
161.
The cat is standing on the...
a)
foot wall
b)
hanging wall
c)
left
d)
weirdest elevator ever
162.
A downward fold in rock formed by compression in Earth's crust?
a)
anticline
b)
syncline
c)
fracture
d)
strike-slip fault
163.

The place where an earthquake originates inside the Earth's surface is called...

a)

Epicenter

b)

Focus

c)

Underground

d)

Crust

164.

The place on the Earth's surface, above the origin of the earthquake.

a)

Epicenter

b)

Focus

c)

Surface

d)

Crust

165.

What is the instrument used to measure earthquakes?

a)

Seismograph

b)

Seismologist

c)

Scale

d)

Seismogram

166.

Which city is closest to the epicenter?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

167.

5. Which type of wave travels the fastest?

a)

Primary Wave

b)

Secondary Wave

c)

Long Wave

168.

This is created by earthquakes that occur on the ocean floor.

a)

longshore current

b)

gulf stream

c)

tsunamis

d)

high tide

169.

What scale determines the amount of damage an earthquake causes?

a)

Richter scale

b)

Mercalli scale

c)

Moment magnitude scale

d)

seismographic scale

170.

What is the minimum number of seismograph stations needed to locate an earthquake epicenter?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

171.

Which wave can travel through all materials?

a)

P - primary

b)

S - secondary

c)

L - Long

172.

Measures the magnitude or size, of an Earthquake

a)

epicenter

b)

focus

c)

Richter scale

d)

Mercalli Scale

173.

What is the measure of the amount of energy released in an earthquake?

a)

Intensity

b)

Epicenter

c)

Magnitude

d)

Seismogram

174.
The layer of atmosphere closest to the Earth is called the
a)
mesosphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
troposphere
d)
proctosphere
175.
Air in the atmosphere is 78%
a)
Einsteinium
b)
nitrogen
c)
oxygen
d)
carbon dioxide
176.

Most of the atmosphere is composed of the following gas

a)

nitrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

argon

e)

flatulence

177.
The ozone layer
a)
is green and purple
b)
absorbs dangerous solar radiation
c)
smells like sulphur
d)
is made of carbon dioxide
178.
The ozone layer occurs in the 
a)
troposphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
stratosphere
d)
exosphere
179.
As altitude increases, the air pressure 
a)
decreases
b)
stays the same
c)
increases
d)
all of the above
180.
Most of Earth's weather occurs in the 
a)
troposphere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesophere
d)
thermosphere
181.
Look up pictures of the Aurora Borealis on google.  The Aurora Borealis occurs in the
a)
troposhere
b)
stratosphere
c)
mesosphere
d)
thermosphere
182.
Which statement most accurately describes the temperature trend in the Troposphere? Temperatures...
a)
rise with increasing altitude above the Earth
b)
rise then fall with increasing altitude above the Earth
c)
decrease with increasing altitude above the Earth
d)
remain constant with increasing altitude above the Earth
183.
The hottest layer.
a)
troposphere
b)
thermosphere
c)
exosphere
d)
mesosphere
184.
This is the layer where meteors, or shooting stars, burn up.
a)
Troposphere
b)
Stratosphere
c)
Mesosphere
d)
Thermosphere
185.
Coriolis effect
a)
caused by Earth's rotation
b)
caused by Earth's revolution
c)
caused by Earth's tilt
d)
caused by Earth's winds
186.
Radiation is transferred by ____
a)
flow of energy
b)
touch
c)
rays and waves 
d)
winds
187.
Convection
a)
transfer of heat by flow
b)
transfer of heat by touch
c)
transfer of heat by waves and rays
d)
transfer of heat by wind
188.
Conduction
a)
transfer of energy by flow
b)
transfer of energy by touch
c)
transfer of energy by waves and rays
d)
transfer of energy by wind
189.
What causes moving air to be deflected to the right in the northern hemisphere
a)
Maritime tropicals
b)
Air masses
c)
Tradewinds
d)
Coriolis effect
190.
Heated air moves which direction
a)
up
b)
down
c)
right
d)
left
191.
These arrows represent what in Earth's atmosphere?
a)
convection
b)
conduction
c)
radiation
d)
winds
192.
What causes wind?
a)
movement of high pressure to low pressure
b)
movement of low pressure to high pressure
193.

Cool, sinking air creates _____ pressure zones.

a)

high

b)

low

c)

curved

d)

severe

194.

Where does the air move in an ANTICYCLONE?

a)

Upwards

b)

Downwards

195.

Where does the air move in a CYCLONE?

a)

Upwards

b)

Downwards

196.

What type of weather does a CYCLONE bring?

a)

Clear and calm

b)

Stormy

197.

What type of weather does an ANTICYCLONE bring?

a)

Clear and calm

b)

Stormy

198.

Does a CYCLONE have low or high pressure?

a)

Low

b)

High

199.

Does an ANTICYCLONE have low or high pressure?

a)

Low

b)

High

200.
Winds are named for the direction they are blowing from?
a)
True
b)
False
201.
High pressure will usually bring what kind of weather?
a)
clear and dry
b)
cloudy and wet
202.
the lines on a weather map connect equal areas of temperature
a)
contour lines
b)
isotherms
c)
isobars
d)
longitude
203.
Which type of image is this? 
a)
Radar
b)
Satellite
c)
Isotherm
d)
Isobar
204.

The closer the contour lines the ________ gradient?

a)

gentler

b)

steeper

c)

ask the penguin sitting next to you

205.

Isobar Lines that are very close indicate

a)

sunny and dry conditions

b)

calm winds

c)

windy conditions

d)

average temperatures

206.
what type of cloud is shown?
a)
cumulus
b)
cirrus
c)
stratus
d)
nimbostratus
207.
What type of cloud is this?
a)
cirrus
b)
cumulus
c)
stratus
d)
fog
208.
Which cloud is this?
a)
cumulus
b)
cumulonimbus
c)
cirrus
d)
stratus
209.

What is the temperature for the following station model?

a)

4 ºF

b)

76 ºF

c)

80 ºF

d)

129 ºF

210.

What is the dewpoint for the following station model?

a)

10 ºF

b)

23 ºF

c)

65 ºF

d)

75 ºF

211.

What is the wind speed for the following station model?

a)

10 knots

b)

15 knots

c)

20 knots

d)

25 knots

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