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Chem in the Earth System Fall Final Exam Review (2023)

Total questions: 211

Worksheet time: 8hrs 2mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two REACTANTS in a combustion reactions?

a)

Methane and Carbon Dioxide

b)

Fuel and Oxygen

c)

Carbon Dioxide and Water

d)

Fuel and Carbon Dioxide

2.

What are the two PRODUCTS in a complete combustion reaction?

a)

Carbon Dioxide and Water

b)

Carbon Monoxide and Methane

c)

Carbon and Water

d)

Fuel and Oxygen

3.
Combustion is when a __________ reacts with oxygen
a)
petrol
b)
fuel
c)
fire triangle
d)
carbon dioxide
4.

Hydrocarbon fuel + oxygen ----> ___+____

(Select 2)

a)

CO2

b)

O2

c)

H2O

d)

CxHy

5.
What is essential for a combustion reaction to begin?
a)
Carbon dioxide
b)
Fuel 
c)
Fuel, oxygen and heat
d)
Water and oxygen
6.
Which of the following chemical reactions involve combustion?
a)
A forest fire
b)
Human digestion
c)
A car using gasoline
d)
All of the above
7.

Which is non combustible substance?

a)

Wood

b)

Paper

c)

Straw

d)

Iron nails

8.

When burning a fire, if I remove Oxygen, then the fire will...

a)

no longer burn

b)

keep burning

c)

EXPLODE

9.

Combustion is needed for __________________ inside your body.

a)

photosynthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

mitosis

10.

Exothermic reactions release heat into the surroundings, so you observe a...

a)

temperature increase

b)

temperature decrease

c)

no temperature change

11.

What are the products of cellular respiration?

a)

Sugar and Oxygen

b)

Carbon Dioxide, Water, and Energy

12.
An explosion that occurs when oxygen is introduced to an area that has heated gases?
a)
Flashover
b)
Backdraft
c)
Ignition
13.

Which states of matter count as a fluid? [Select all that apply.]

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gasses

14.

Solids are a state of matter with ​ (a)   shape and ​ (b)   volume

Choose from the below words
definite
indefinite
15.

Liquids are a state of matter with ​ (a)   shape and ​ (b)   volume

Choose from the below words
indefinite
definite
16.

Which state of matter has the most energy?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gasses

17.

Freezing is the phase change that goes from the ​ (a)   state to the ​ (b)   state.

Choose from the below words
liquid
solid
gas
18.

Which state of matter expands to fill its container?

a)

Solids

b)

Liquids

c)

Gasses

19.

Charles's Law states that a gas's​​ (a)   and volume are ​ (b)   proportional.

Choose from the below words
temperature
directly
pressure
inversely
20.

If you increase the pressure on a gas, its volume will...

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

21.

If you decrease the pressure on a gas, its volume will...

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

22.

If you decrease the temperature of a gas, its volume will...

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

23.

If you increase the temperature of a gas, its volume will...

a)

increase

b)

stay the same

c)

decrease

24.

What is a conductor?

a)

a material that heat moves through easily

b)

a material that heat does not move through easily

c)

a material that turns cold when heated

d)

a tool for measuring temperature

25.

Which of these is a better conductor?

a)
b)
26.

Stir frying vegetables is an example of

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

27.

Hot water rises and cold water sinks. Is this:

a)

Convection

b)

Conduction

c)

Radiation

28.
The sun shines down on this family as the play on the beach.
a)
conduction
b)
convection
c)
radiation
29.

Cold Pack on Person

a)

Heat is transferred from the cold pack to the person.

b)

Heat is transferred from the person to the cold pack

c)

The cold pack is getting colder. The person is getting warmer.

30.

Convection currents occur in...

a)

fluids

b)

solids

31.

When air is heated it becomes...

a)

More dense

b)

Less dense

c)

Heavier

d)

Moist

32.

Air sinking down toward the Earth's surface causes a...

a)

High Pressure area

b)

Low Pressure area

33.

Air rising up above the Earth's surface causes a...

a)

High pressure area

b)

Low pressure area

34.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
35.

In this image, the VOLUME of A is _____ the volume of B

a)

equal to

b)

greater than

c)

less than

36.

Calculate the density of the rectangular prism

a)

2 g/cm3

b)

4 g/cm3

c)

6 g/cm3

d)

8 g/cm3

37.

What happens to the density of the balloon if volume is doubled?

a)

The density is cut in half.

b)

The density stays the same.

c)

The density doubles.

d)

Not enough information to tell.

38.

As a substance is COOLED its VOLUME...

a)

increase

b)

decreases

c)

remains equal

39.

As a substance is COOLED it's DENSITY...

a)

increase

b)

decreases

c)

remains equal

40.

As a substance is HEATED it's DENSITY...

a)

increase

b)

decreases

c)

remains equal

41.

Three liquids and two solids are placed in a graduated cylinder. The substances arrange themselves in the cylinder according to their densities. Use the information to identify the liquids and solids in the graduated cylinder. start with the top solid as substance 1, and the top liquid as substance 2, and so on

a)

Gold

b)

Mercury

c)

water

d)

Gasoline

e)

Cork

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
42.

Which box has a higher density?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

They are the same

43.
Which liquid is the least dense?
a)

oil

b)

water

c)

syrup 

44.
How is Kinetic Energy different from Potential Energy?
a)
Kinetic Energy is stored energy while Potential Energy is motion energy.
b)
Potential Energy is much stronger than Kinetic Energy
c)
Potential Energy is stored energy within an object while Kinetic Energy is energy in motion.
45.
TRUE or FALSE: An object has ZERO energy when it is not moving.
a)
True: Objects only have energy when they are in motion.
b)
False: Objects have both stored energy and motion energy.
46.

Moving a book to a lower shelf ________ its potential energy.

a)

increaes

b)

decreases

47.

A kite stuck in a tree has ______ energy due to its position.

a)

potential

b)

kinetic

c)

chemical

d)

thermal

48.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

potential energy is the hightest

1.

A

b)

kinetic energy is the highest

2.

B

c)

losing kinetic energy; gaining potential energy

3.

C

d)

losing potential energy; gaining kinetic energy

4.

D

49.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

Potential Energy is minimum

1.

A

b)

50% KE, 50% PE

2.

B

c)

Maximum Potential Energy

3.

C

d)

Kinetic Energy is maximum

4.

E

50.
In which region(s) does temperature remain constant?
a)
Region 1, 3, & 5
b)
Region 2 & 4
c)
Region 1 only
d)
Region 1 & 2
51.
In which region(s) does temperature increase?
a)
Region 1, 3, & 5
b)
Region 2 & 4
c)
Region 1 only
d)
Region 1 & 2
52.
This curve indicates what about the heat energy?
a)
heat energy is being added or absorbed
b)
heat energy is being removed
53.
In which region(s) of the graph does a phase change occur?
a)
Region 1, 3, & 5
b)
Region 2 & 4
c)
Region 1 only
d)
Region 1 & 2
54.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance only be in one phase?
a)
Region 1, 3, & 5
b)
Region 2 & 4
c)
Region 1 only
d)
Region 1 & 2
55.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be a solid only?
a)
Region 1
b)
Region 2
c)
Region 3
d)
Region 4
56.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be a solid and a liquid?
a)
Region 1
b)
Region 2
c)
Region 3
d)
Region 4
57.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be a liquid only?
a)
Region 1
b)
Region 2
c)
Region 3
d)
Region 4
58.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be a liquid and a gas?
a)
Region 2
b)
Region 3
c)
Region 4
d)
Region 5
59.
In which region(s) of the graph would the substance be a gas only?
a)
Region 2
b)
Region 3
c)
Region 4
d)
Region 5
60.
In which region(s) of the graph does boiling take place?
a)
Region 2
b)
Region 3
c)
Region 4
d)
Region 5
61.
In which region(s) of the graph does melting take place?
a)
Region 2
b)
Region 3
c)
Region 4
d)
Region 5
62.
Between which points is the substance changing its state of matter?
a)
A-B only. 
b)
A-B, C-D, E-F
c)
B-C only. 
d)
B-C, D-E
63.

Given the heating curve of a solid being heated at a constant rate, what is the boiling point of this substance?

a)

20°C

b)

50°C

c)

110°C

d)

170°C

64.

Given the heating curve of water, what is happening to potential and kinetic energy during segment CD?

a)

the potential energy and kinetic energy both increase

b)

the potential energy increases while the kinetic energy decreases

c)

the potential energy is constant while the kinetic energy increases

d)

the potential energy increases while the kinetic energy is constant

65.

NaCl(s) was heated up starting at an initial temperature of 0°C. The heating curve is shown in the picture. What is the melting point of this substance?

a)

0°C

b)

801°C

c)

1000°C

d)

1465°C

66.

Given the heating curve of a solid being heated at a constant rate, how much total time was required to boil this substance after it reached its melting point?

a)

3 minutes

b)

4 minutes

c)

10 minutes

d)

14 minutes

67.

This curve indicates what about the heat energy?

a)

Heat energy is being added or absorbed

b)

Heat energy is being released

68.
Which type of wave is the first to arrive after an earthquake occurs?
a)
P Wave
b)
Rayleigh Wave
c)
S Wave
d)
Shear Wave
69.
Which body waves cause particles of rock material to move at right angles to the direction in which the waves are traveling?
a)
Body Waves
b)
P Waves
c)
S Waves
d)
Surface Waves
70.
P Waves can move through which of the following?
a)
Gas
b)
Liquid
c)
Solid
d)
All of these
71.
S Waves can move through which of the following?
a)
Gas
b)
Liquid
c)
Solid
d)
All of these
72.

Earthquakes most often occur

a)

in the middle of plates

b)

near plate boundaries

c)

where thunderstorms are

d)

along the coast

73.

Around what time did the first P wave get detected?

a)

100 sec

b)

120 sec

c)

150 sec

d)

160 sec

74.

Which location is farther from the epicenter?

a)

Seismogram B (top)

b)

Seismogram C (bottom)

75.

Which portion of the Earth can S waves NOT travel through?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Core

76.

Which station was closest to the earthquake's epicenter?

a)

Station A

b)

Station B

c)

Station C

77.

Scientists are able to create an image like this by studying

a)

electromagnetic waves

b)

P and S waves

c)

P and Surface waves

d)

S and Surface waves

78.

This model represents a

a)

P wave shadow zone

b)

S wave shadow zone

c)

Surface wave shadow zone

d)

Convection currents

79.

A seismic station recorded the P-waves, but no S-waves, from an earthquake because S-waves were

a)

absorbed by Earth's outer core

b)

transmitted only through liquids

c)

weak and detected only at nearby locations

d)

not produced by this earthquake

80.

Which statement best explains why only one type of seismic wave was recorded at location B?

a)

S-waves cannot travel through the liquid inner core

b)

P-waves cannot travel through the solid outer core

c)

P-waves cannot travel through the solid inner core.

d)

S-waves cannot travel through the liquid outer core

81.

What layer of the Earth is labeled A?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

82.

Which layer is liquid?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

83.

Which layer is the HOTTEST?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Outer Core

d)

Inner Core

84.

What state of matter is the inner core?

a)

Solid

b)

Solid but flexible

c)

Liquid

85.

What layer has convection currents?

a)

Crust

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Outer Core

86.

What layer is liquid and makes a magnetic field?

a)

Outer Core

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Crust

87.

In what layer of the Earth do people live?

a)

Outer Core

b)

Mantle

c)

Inner Core

d)

Crust

88.

How many major earth layers are there?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

3.5

89.

What layer of the Earth is labeled B?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

90.

What layer of the Earth is labeled C?

a)

inner core

b)

outer core

c)

mantle

d)

crust

91.

Match the layer with its temperature.

a)

Crust

1.

0-70 C

b)

Mantle

2.

1800-6700 C

c)

Outer Core

3.

8000-9000 C

d)

Inner Core

4.

9300 C

92.

Which layer is made (mostly) of LIQUID iron and nickel?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

93.

Which layer is made (mostly) of SOLID iron and nickel?

a)

crust

b)

mantle

c)

outer core

d)

inner core

94.

Which of the following correctly lists the layers from innermost to outermost?

a)

inner core, outer core, lower mantle, upper mantle, crust

b)

lower mantle, upper mantle, crust, inner core, outer core

c)

lower mantle, inner core, upper mantle, outer core, crust

d)

crust, inner core, lower mantle, upper mantle, outer core

95.

As you travel from the crust to the core, how would temperature, pressure and density of the material change?

a)

They would all increase

b)

They would all decrease.

c)

Nothing, the layers are made of the same material throughout

d)

Temperature would decrease, but pressure and density would increase

96.
Scientists determine what Earth’s interior looks like by using:
a)
Volcanoes
b)
Seismic Waves
c)
Continental Drift
d)
Convection Currents
97.
Which layer of the earth is under the highest pressure?
a)
Crust
b)
Mantle
c)
Outer Core
d)
Inner Core
98.

Earth’s crust can only be____________ or _______________.

a)

Volcanic & Seismic

b)

Oceanic & Continental

99.

The area of magnetic force around a magnet is known as its _____________.

a)

magnetic field

b)

magnetic declination

c)

magnetic fan lines

d)

magnetic tan lines

100.
Which layer of the Earth is responsible for Earth's magnetic field?
a)
outer core
b)
inner core
c)
mantle
d)
crust
101.
How is Earth's magnetic field similar to that of a magnet?
a)
It is hundreds of miles long
b)
It has north and south poles
c)
It is made in Earth's core
d)
It is shaped like a horseshoe
102.
What is our best evidence that Earth has a magnetic field?
a)
All things fall toward Earth's center
b)
A compass needle lines up with it
c)
Winds blow from east to west
d)
Earth's oceans all have currents
103.
Why does a compass needle point north?
a)
The compass is a bar magnet
b)
Because north is up
c)
Because it's magic
d)
It lines up with the Earth's magnetic field
104.
Earth acts like a giant magnet because its center is made up MOSTLY of
a)
granite
b)
limestone
c)
iron
d)
nickel
105.
What is an electromagnet?
a)
a magnet that creates an electric current
b)
a magnet created by an electric current
c)
a magnet that has an electric charge
d)
an electric charge that is magnetic
106.
Earth's magnetic poles are in the same place as the geographic poles.
a)
True
b)
False
107.

Oceanic crust is made of ______

a)

Granite

b)

Basalt

c)

Cookies

d)

Water

108.

Continental crust is made of _______

a)

Flowers and grass

b)

Basalt

c)

Granite

d)

Crust

109.

What is the rising of hot liquid and the sinking of cooled liquid called?

a)

Confection current

b)

Convention current

c)

Convection current

d)

Lava lamp

110.

Movement of the liquid metal of the outer core causes

a)

Volcanic eruptions

b)

Earthquakes

c)

Convection Currents

d)

Earth's magnetic field

111.

What would happen to convection currents if the inner Earth Cooled down

a)

They would continue at the same speed

b)

They would move faster

c)

They would move slower

d)

They would stop

112.

Heat transfer by convection is caused by differences in what two things:

a)

Thickness and material

b)

Weight and electricity

c)

Temperature and density

113.
Warm air is __________ dense than cold air and rises creating convection currents.
a)
more
b)
less
114.

Convection currents happen inside the Earth. Magma is heated by ______ and rises towards the crust.

a)

the sun

b)

the core

c)

plate tectonics

115.

Convection currents happen inside the Earth. Hot magma from the mantle cools as it touches the ______ and transfers heat. Then it sinks back down again.

a)

crust

b)

core

c)

mantle

116.

A trench is formed when a tectonic plate carrying land meets a tectonic plate carrying ocean. How does density cause the trench to form?

a)

The water the is heavy and forces the plate below the land.

b)

The ocean plate is more dense and sinks under the less dense land plate.

c)

The land plate lifts up and slides upover the ocean plate.

117.
Tectonic plates are made up of continental crust and ________ crust.
a)
continental
b)
oceanic
c)
plates
d)
mantle
118.

What type of plate boundary creates new sea floor?

a)

Divergent

b)

Convergent

c)

Transform

d)

Subduction

119.

What type of plate boundary is represented in the picture?

a)

Athensphere

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Convergent

120.

Which crust subducts because it is denser than other crust?

a)

pizza crust

b)

oceanic crust

c)

continental crust

d)

new crust

121.

What is the source of energy that drives plate movement?

a)

the subducton of the sea floor

b)

the different densities of the oceanic and crustal plates

c)

convection currents in the asthenosphere

d)

the friction force between the plates that move past each other

122.
A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other is called
a)
Divergent Boundary
b)
Convergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Subduction
123.
A Plate Boundary where two plates move toward each other is called
a)
Convergent Boundary
b)
Divergent Boundary
c)
Transform Boundary
d)
Subduction
124.
During sea floor spreading, molten material rises up from the mantle...
a)
along the continents
b)
at the mid ocean ridges
c)
deep ocean trenches
d)
at north and south poles
125.
Which of the following is where one plate slides under another plate?
a)
submarine zone
b)
divergence zone
c)
subduction zone
d)
lower zone
126.

What term describes the sinking of the oceanic plate?

a)

subduction

b)

high density

c)

asthenosphere

d)

viscosity

127.

Why does the oceanic plate sink?

a)

high viscosity magma forces it to happen

b)

convection currents in the mantle

c)

oceanic plates are lighter and are pushed under by the continental

d)

oceanic plates are more dense and are forced to sink

128.

What happens in the upper mantle when the oceanic plate has subducted?

a)

The oceanic plate melts due to heat and friction creating high viscosity magma

b)

The oceanic plate melts due to heat and friction creating low viscosity magma

c)

The plate is cycled round to a constructive plate margin.

129.

What happens to the magma when it has been created?

a)

erupts from the volcano

b)

get's stuck in the main vent

c)

Rises through cracks in the continental crust

d)

remains in the mantle, as the mantle is made of magma

130.

What geologic feature/event would you most likely to find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?

a)

Rift Valley

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Island Arc

d)

Flat land

131.
Where would the oldest rock be found?
a)
L
b)
M
c)
O
132.
In the Atlantic ocean, where is the youngest seafloor located?
a)

Towards the edges

b)

Youngest seafloor is in the middle of the ocean

133.

Where do most earthquakes and volcanoes take place?

a)

in the oceans

b)

at plate boundaries

c)

on land only

134.

Which statement best explains plate tectonics

a)

The movement of crustal plates over the mantle prevents continental drift

b)

Crustal plates move away from each other at tectonic boundaries

c)

The movement of crustal plates over the mantle often results in earthquakes and volcanic eruptions

135.

Where does the energy from an earthquake originate?

a)

from rocks under stress shifting deep below Earth's surface

b)

weight from rocks pushing down on bedrock

c)

from convection currents

136.

A plate boundary where two plates move away from each other.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

d)

Normal fault

137.

Oceanic crust sinks beneath a deep-ocean trench and back into the mantle at a convergent plate boundary.

a)

Folding

b)

Subduction

c)

Sea-floor spreading

d)

Mountain formation

138.
Which has the greater EN: 
Cl or Al?
a)
Cl
b)
Al
139.
Which has the greater EN: 
N or C?
a)
C
b)
N
140.
Which has the greater EN: 
H or F?
a)
H
b)
F
141.
Which of the following will have a larger radius than Zinc?
a)
Gallium
b)
Aluminum
c)
Magnesium
d)
Strontium
142.
Which of the following will have a higher electronegativity than arsenic (As)?
a)
Carbon (C)
b)
Neon (Ne)
c)
Antimony (Sb)
d)
Germanium (Ge)
143.
Which of the following will have a lower ionization energy than Scandium (Sc)?
a)
Helium (He)
b)
Titanium (Ti)
c)
Calcium (Ca)
d)
Magnesium (Mg)
144.
As atoms of elements in group 16 are considered in order from top to bottom, the electronegativity of each successive element....
a)
decreases
b)
increases
c)
remains the same
d)
none of the above
145.
Which atom has the largest atomic radius?
a)
potassium
b)
rubidium 
c)
francium
d)
cesium
146.
Atoms that have a high electronegativity, _______________.
a)
give up their electrons more easily.
b)
hold on to their electrons more tightly.
c)
have more electron shells.
147.
Electronegativity is...
a)
how good an atom is at attracting electrons
b)
the ability of an atom to lose electrons
c)
the energy required to remove an electron from a specific atom
d)
how easy it is to make friends. 
148.
Ionization energy is...
a)
the energy required to add an electron to a specific atom
b)
how much energy it takes to remove an electron from an atom
c)
the energy required to shield the outer electrons from the nucleus
d)
a measure of the ability of an atom to attract electrons
149.
The atom with the largest atomic radius in Group 18 is - 
a)
Ar
b)
He
c)
Kr
d)
Rn
150.
Which statement correctly and completely identifies a trend?
a)
Atomic radius decreases across a period and increases down a group.
b)
Electronegativity decreases across a period and decreases down a group.
c)
Ionization energy increases across a period and increases down a group.
d)
Ionic radius increases across a period and increases down a group.
151.
Electronegativity __________ from left to right within a period and __________ from top to bottom within a group.
a)
decreases, increases 
b)
increases, increases
c)
increases, decreases 
d)
stays the same, increases
152.

Put in order from biggest to smallest (decreasing size)

a)

Calcium

b)

Iron

c)

Zinc

d)

Bromine

e)

Krypton

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
153.
Which element has the greater ionization energy?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Phosphorus
c)

Barium

d)

Nitrogen

154.

Select the element with the highest ionization energy

a)

Sodium

b)

Aluminum

c)

Phosphorous

d)

Chlorine

155.

Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chlorine

d)

Argon

156.

Looking at period 3, which element has the smallest atomic radius?

a)

Mg

b)

Cl

c)

Al

157.

How do scientists measure the size of atoms?

a)

by counting energy levels

b)

measuring the distance between 2 nuclei

c)

measuring the nucleus

d)

using the atomic number

158.
Subatomic particle with a charge of 0
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
quark
159.

Subatomic particles with a negative charge

a)

Electrons

b)

Neutrons

c)

Protons

d)

Quarks

160.
Subatomic particles with a positive charge
a)
neutrons
b)
atomic mass
c)
protons
d)
isotopes
161.

The smallest particle of an element.

a)

Element

b)

Molecule

c)

Atom

162.

These are found in the nucleus and have a neutral charge.

a)

proton

b)

electron

c)

neutron

163.
These will determine what element an atom is. 
a)
number of neutrons
b)
number of electrons
c)
number of atoms 
d)
number of protons 
164.

The number 16 for the atomic element sulfur is the

a)

ionic number

b)

isotope

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

165.

How many protons does sulfur have?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

48

d)

12

166.

How many electrons does sulfur have

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

12

167.

In an atom, the number of protons is equal to the number of ____________.

a)

energy levels

b)

neutrons

c)

neurons

d)

electrons

168.
What is the atomic mass of "F"
a)
9
b)
18
c)
17
d)
19
169.
An atom of the element with atomic number 6 always has _____.
a)
six protons in its nucleus
b)
an atomic mass of six
c)
more than six neutrons
d)
six electron clouds
170.
What are subatomic particles? 
a)
the nucleus 
b)
electron cloud
c)
positive charge
d)
electrons, protons, and neutrons
171.
How many protons are in this element?
a)
79
b)
196
c)
117
d)
Cannot be determined
172.
How many electrons does potassium K contain? (click to see image)
a)
19
b)
39
c)
20
d)
40
173.

How many neutrons does a Hydrogen atom have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

174.

How many electrons does an Iodine atom have?

a)

53

b)

126

c)

73

d)

179

175.

How many neutrons does an Oxygen atom have?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

24

d)

7.999

176.

How many electrons does a Copper atom have?

a)

63

b)

29

c)

92

d)

34

177.
How many protons are in Beryllium?
a)
4
b)
9
c)
5
d)
2
178.
Which electron configuration belongs to Chlorine (Cl)?
a)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5
b)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6
c)
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7
179.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s2
a)

Neon (Ne)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Aluminum (Al)

d)

Potassium (K)

180.

Write the configuration for Phosphorus (P)

a)

2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s3 2p6 3p3

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

d)

1s2 2s2 2p5 3s2 3p3

181.

Choose the correct configuration for Neon (Ne).

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6

d)

1s2 2s1 2p6

182.

How many electrons go in the first shell (ring) ?

a)

6

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

183.

This is a Bohr Diagram of Aluminum. How many valence electrons does Aluminum have?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

184.

How many valence electrons does Lithium (Li) have?

a)

8

b)

1

c)

5

d)

2

185.

How many valence electrons does Bromine (Br) have?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

186.
What is a valence electron?
a)
an electron that is found in the outermost shell of an atom. 
b)
an electron found in the innermost shell of an atom.
c)
an electron found in the middle shell.
187.

Which element is this?

a)

Nickel

b)

Neon

c)

Sodium

d)

Nitrogen

188.

Name this element.

a)

Argon

b)

Chlorine

c)

Aluminum

d)

Boron

189.

Name this element.

a)

Neon

b)

Magnesium

c)

Sodium

d)

Manganese

190.

How many valence electrons?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

191.

What is the reactivity series of metals based on?

a)

The number of outer shell electrons

b)

The number of positive ions formed

c)

The number of bubbles produced

d)

The temperature change of the reactions

192.

Which group of metals is the most reactive?

a)

Group 1 metals

b)

Group 2 metals

c)

Transition metals

d)

Carbon and hydrogen

193.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is most reactive?

a)

Be

b)

Mg

c)

Sr

d)

Ca

194.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is the least reactive?

a)

K

b)

  • Li

c)

  • Rb

d)

  • Na

195.

  • Using the reactivity trend, which element is least reactive?

a)

  • Cs

b)

  • Mg

c)

  • Ba

d)

  • Rb

196.

  • Using the reactivity trend, which element is most reactive?

a)

  • Ca

b)

  • Ba

c)

  • Mg

d)

  • Be

197.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is most reactive?

a)

  • F

b)

  • I

c)

  • Cl

d)

  • Br

198.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is least reactive?

a)

  • O

b)

  • N

c)

  • F

d)

  • C

199.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is least reactive?

a)

  • As

b)

  • N

c)

  • P

d)

  • Bi

200.

  • Using the reactivity trend, which element is most reactive?

a)

  • Si

b)

  • S

c)

  • Cl

d)

  • P

201.

Using the reactivity trend, which element is the least reactive?

a)

  • S

b)

  • Ar

c)

  • P

d)

  • Cl

202.

  • Using the reactivity trend, which element is the most reactive?

a)

  • Cl

b)

  • At

c)

  • I

d)

  • Br

203.
Which of these is not a noble gas?
a)
Helium
b)
Argon
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Krypton
204.

6.15: Which of these is not a property of noble gases?

a)

Colourless

b)

Odourless

c)

Flammable

d)

Gas at room temperature

205.
True or false: Noble gases react with water
a)
True
b)
False
206.
Where are the nonmetals located on the periodic table?
a)
top left corner
b)
bottom left corner
c)
top right corner
d)
bottom left corner
207.
Name the group that contains inert (nonreactive) elements.
a)
noble gases
b)
halogens
c)
alkali metals
d)
alkaline earth metals
208.
________ are the COLUMNS on the periodic table and are organized by similar properties.
a)
Classifications
b)
Groups
c)
Periods
d)
Elements
209.
The blue atoms are called 
a)
metals
b)
nonmetals
c)
metalloids
d)
noble gases
210.

Which of the following has the highest density?

a)

Argon

b)

Krypton

c)

Xenon

d)

Helium

e)

Neon

211.

Which of the following has the lowest density?

a)

Argon

b)

Krypton

c)

Xenon

d)

Helium

e)

Neon

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