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Chemistsry S1 Comprehensive Final Exam Review

Total questions: 220

Worksheet time: 11hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Physical properties....

a)

change the matter when studied

b)

can be observed and measured without changing the matter being studied

c)

include the ability to burn and rust

d)

are useless unless studied in a lab

2.

______________________ can only be recognized when substances react or do not react chemically with one another.

a)

Physical properties

b)

Chemical properties

c)

Flammable properties

d)

Colorful properties

3.

Flammability means the ability to _______ and is a _________ property.

a)

melt; chemical

b)

rust; physical

c)

change; physical

d)

burn; chemical

4.
Which of the following is not a chemical property? 
a)
rusting 
b)
boiling 
c)
rotting 
d)
burning 
5.
Which one of these is a chemical property?
a)
melting point
b)
boiling point
c)
color
d)
flammability
6.
Which is an example of a physical property?
a)
ability to react with acid
b)
 state of matter
c)
flammability
d)
ability to react with oxygen
7.

All of the following are examples of physical properties EXCEPT

a)

Density

b)

Heat conductivity

c)

pH (acidic or basic)

d)

Boiling point

8.

Which of the following is a chemical property of water?

a)

Reacts with pure sodium

b)

Boils at 100 oC

c)

Is liquid at room temperature

d)

Has a density of 1 gm/mL

9.

Choose the one that is a chemical property

a)

Magnetism

b)

Size

c)

Color

d)

Reactivity with water

10.

A student breaks a piece of glassware. What should their lab partner do?

a)

Pick up the glass by hand and place it in the broken glass container.

b)

Leave the glassware for the student who broke the glass to clean up.

c)

Alert your teacher and keep other students away from the glass pieces.

d)

Sweep up the glass with a broom and dustpan and place it in the trash.

11.

During a lab experiment, an unknown substance splashed into a student's eye. What should their next step be after telling the teacher?

a)

Wipe their eyes with a damp paper towel.

b)

Put their head under the faucet at the lab sink.

c)

Carefully walk to the eyewash station and flush their eyes for 20 minutes.

d)

Carefully walk to the restroom and flush their eyes in the sink for 20 minutes.

12.

Why is the graduated cylinder MOST appropriate for measuring the volume of a liquid instead of a beaker?

a)

because it estimates large volumes of liquid better than a beaker

b)

because the meniscus is easier to see and read compared to a beaker

c)

because it can hold acids and bases more safely compared to a beaker

d)

because there are more markings on the graduated cylinder compared to a beaker

13.

The process of distillation is used to separate substances in a mixture with different...

a)

...densities.

b)

...solubilities.

c)

...particle sizes.

d)

...boiling points.

14.

What could be used to separate substances of different densities from a mixture?

a)

distillation

b)

centrifuge

c)

paper chromatography

d)

column chromatography

15.

Much like its household namesake, a molecular sieve utilizes differences in what property of substances to separate the components of mixtures?

a)

freezing point

b)

particle size

c)

solubility

d)

desnity

16.

In chemistry class, you are given a density column with 3 liquids. A piece of wax with a mass of 1.8 grams and a volume of 2.0 mL is added to the column. Where would the wax be located in a density column? (density=mass/volume)

a)

above A

b)

below C

c)

below A but above B

d)

below B but above C

17.

Two students were conducting an experiment. Each student had a test tube filled with 25.0 mL of a clear liquid. The students drop a penny into each test tube and measure the rate at which the penny falls. The penny takes 10.0 sec to reach the bottom of the Test Tube A while the penny takes 4.0 sec to reach the bottom of Test Tube B Which test tube contains the more viscous clear liquid?

a)

Test Tube A, because it took a longer time to reach the bottom of the test tube.

b)

Test Tube B, because it took a longer time to reach the bottom of the test tube.

c)

Test Tube A, because it took a shorter time to reach the bottom of the test tube.

d)

Test Tube B, because it took a shorter time to reach the bottom of the test tube.

18.

A cup of metal beads was measured to have a mass of 13.29 grams. By water displacement, the volume of the beads was calculated to be 1.5 mL. What is the identity of the unknown metal? Justify your claim.

a)

copper, because mass is divided by volume to determine the density

b)

gold, because mass is divided by volume to determine the density

c)

copper, because mass and volume are multiplied to determine the density

d)

gold, because mass and volume are multiplied to determine the density

19.

In the science lab, students were given a piece of iron and asked to test for a chemical property. Which students performed a test for the chemical properties of iron?

a)

1 and 5

b)

2 and 4

c)

3 and 5

d)

4 and 1

20.

In the science lab, students were asked to make a statement as to whether Mentos (candy) to Coke (soda pop) is a chemical or physical change. Which of the foloowing gives the BEST evidence to classify this reaction as a chemical or physical change?

a)

Physical change; becaue matter is not lost in the reaction of Coke and Mentos

b)

chemical change, because whneever a gas is given off a chemical change has occurred

c)

Physical change, because no new products is produced, aqueous carbon dioxide is change to gaseous carbon dioxide

d)

Chemical change, because the Mentos candy dissolves in the Coke producing a new product.

21.

In a fume hood, students took a 50.0 mL beaker of nitric acid and dropped a penny into the beaker. The students observed the following: a strong metallic smell, violent bubbling, and a brownish-green gas is given off. The students also observed that the penny became shiny and then completely disappeared. which of the following is the BEST indicator that a chemica lreaction has occurrred between these two reactants (nitric acid and penny)?

a)

The nitric acid begins to boil.

b)

A brownish-green gas is given off.

c)

The penny becomes shiny when it comes in contact with nitric acid.

d)

The volume of the solution increased after the addition of the penny.

22.

A student is trying to identify an unknown substance by finding its density. The student finds the mass of the substance to be 15.32 g and the volume of the substance is 6.6 mL. What is the identity of the substance?

a)

Halite

b)

Gypsum

c)

Quartz

d)

Fluorite

23.

What is the density of a substance that has a mass of 2.0 g, and when placed in a graduated, the volume rose from 70. mL to 75 mL?

a)

0.40 g/mL

b)

2.5 g/mL

c)

7.0 g/mL

d)

10.0 g/mL

24.

What volume of liquid is found in the graduated cylinder?

a)

35 mL

b)

36 mL

c)

36.5 mL

d)

37.0 mL

25.

What is the outcome of observing a chemical property?

a)

Nothing

b)

A new substance is formed with different properties

c)

NaCl

d)

A rise in thermal conductivity

26.

The density of aluminum is 2.70 g/mL. A student finds the volume of the sample to be 0.400 mL. What is the mass of aluminum?

a)

0.148 g

b)

1.08 g

c)

3.10 g

d)

6.75 g

27.

Two students measure and record the volume of the same sample of water in the graduated cylinder as shown. The first student recorded the volume as 16.0 mL and the second student recorded the volume as 16 mL. Which statement BEST identifies and explains the correct measurement?

a)

16.0 mL, because all graduated cylinders have three digits in order to have a precise measurement

b)

16 mL, because the final number indicates the estimated digit and since it is a zero, it can be ignored

c)

16.0 mL, because the last digit has to be estimated within the space between the smallest two markings

d)

16 mL, because measurement should be simplified to make calculations using lab data clear and easy to use

28.

How should you measure the mass of a powder?

a)

place the powder on the balance, then push zero (tare)

b)

place the beaker on the balance, then add the powder

c)

place the powder in a beaker, then place on the balance, next push zero (tare)

d)

place the beaker on the balance, then push zero (tare), next add the powder

29.
All matter is made of what?
a)
energy 
b)
atoms 
c)
electrons 
d)
compounds 
30.

Who stated that all atoms of the same element are exactly alike?

a)

Democritus

b)

Dalton

c)

Thomson

d)

Bohr

31.
What scientist is best known for his "Plum Pudding" model of the atom?
a)
J.J. Tomson
b)
Ernest Rutherford
c)
John Dalton
d)
Democritus
32.

What is the smallest particle of an element?

a)

an atom

b)

a proton

c)

an electron

d)

a neutron

33.
An atom's overall charge is ________.
a)
positive 
b)
depends
c)
neutral 
d)
negative 
34.

What is the amu of a neutron?

a)

almost zero

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

35.

Which scientist disagreed with the idea that atoms existed?

a)

Democritus

b)

Aristotle

c)

Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

36.

Who was the first person to ever talk about an atom?

a)

Democritus

b)

Rutherford

c)

Dalton

d)

J.J. Thomson

37.

What is the weighted average of the masses of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element?

a)

Atomic number

b)

Average Atomic Mass

c)

Atomic weight

d)

Protons

38.

What contains most of the mass of an atom?

a)

Electron Cloud

b)

Nucleus

c)

Electron

d)

Isotope

39.

What is the mass of an electron in amu?

a)

Almost zero

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

40.

Who came up with this model of an atom pictured?

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

Neils Bohr

d)

James Chadwick

41.
Which word would closely define the term "atomos"?
a)
Incredible
b)
Indivisible
c)
Indelible
d)
Independent
42.

Neon has an atomic number of 10 and an average atomic mass of 20.180 amu. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons will the most common isotope have?

a)

P=10 E=10 N=11

b)

P=5 E=5 N=10

c)

P=10 E=10 N=10

d)

P=10 E=5 N=5

43.

If two atoms have the same atomic number, but different numbers of neutrons, they are called...

a)

Ions of that element

b)

Different elements

c)

Isotopes of the same atom

d)

Isotopes of different elements

44.
The atomic number for Oxygen is 8, so
a)
there are 8 protons in the atom
b)
the atomic mass is less than 8
c)
the mass of the atom is 8
d)
the atom is decaying
45.
What element is pictured?
a)
Hydorgen
b)
Boron
c)
Beryllium
d)
Arsenic
46.
Rutherford's gold foil experiment provided evidence that...
a)
negative and positive charges are spread evenly throughout the atom.
b)
alpha particles have a positive charge.
c)
gold is not a dense as previously thought.
d)
there is a dense positively charged nucleus at the center of an atom.
47.
Place the following scientists in order, from earliest to latest: 
Rutherford, Dalton, Bohr, Thomson
a)
Dalton, Rutherford, Bohr, Thomson
b)
Thomson, Dalton, Rutherford, Bohr
c)
Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford, Bohr
d)
Bohr, Dalton, Rutherford, Thomson
48.

How many neutrons does this isotope of lithium have?

a)

8

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

49.

If X is the symbol for an element, which of the following two symbols represent isotopes of the same element?

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

I and IV

d)

I and III

50.

Four isotopes of lead include lead-204, lead-206, lead-207, and lead-208. The average atomic mass of lead is 207.2 amu. Which isotope of lead is likely to be the most abundant?

a)

204

b)

206

c)

207

d)

208

51.

Calculate the average atomic mass of silver.

a)

106.38649 amu

b)

111.91896 amu

c)

107.8677 amu

d)

121 amu

52.

Calculate the average atomic mass of element X when 34% of element X exists as X-272 and the remainder exists as X-274.

a)

185.64 amu

b)

273.32 amu

c)

272.68 amu

d)

27.33 amu

53.

Which model recognizes the merit of an atom having a dense, positive nucleus that is surrounded by mostly empty space?

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Rutherford

c)

Bohr

d)

Current Model

54.

24.1% of all the isotopes of an element have a mass of 75.23 amu, 48.7% have a mass of 74.61 amu, and 27.2% have a mass of 75.20 amu. What is the average atomic mass of this element?

a)

74.92 amu

b)

24.97 amu

c)

75.01 amu

d)

74.51 amu

55.

Which model shows electrons circling the nucleus in orbits at different energy levels but has limitations in the probable location of electrons?

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Rutherford

c)

Bohr

d)

Current Model

56.

How does the current model show improvement over the previous models of the atom?

a)

The current model shows protons inside the nucleus.

b)

The current model shows electrons outside the nucleus.

c)

The current model shows protons have a positive charge.

d)

The current model shows electrons in s,p,d,f energy levels.

57.

Which atoms in the table are the same element and with what reasoning?

a)

Atoms 1 and 2, because they have the same number of protons

b)

Atoms 2 and 3, because they have the same number of electrons

c)

Atoms 1 and 3, because the sum of all subatomic particles are equal

d)

All atoms are the same because they have the same number of neutrons.

58.

How are elements distinguished from one another?

a)

the mass number

b)

the number of protons

c)

the number of valence electrons

d)

the reaction that occurs with water

59.

Based on the percent abundance, what is the identity of the unknown substance?

a)

Technetium, because the average atomic mass is close to 99 amu

b)

Vanadium, because 16, 17, and 18 add together for a total mass of 51 amu

c)

Chlorine, because the average of 16, 17, and 18 is 17 which is the atomic number of Chlorine

d)

Oxygen, because the isotope with the greatest percent abundance is close to its average atomic mass

60.

Based on the data, which statement BEST explains why the average atomic mass of the isotopes is 31.14 amu?

a)

When the masses of 29. 31, and 32 are added and divided by 3, the average is closest to 31.

b)

Phosphorus-31 has the greatest percent abundance, so the average atomic mass should be 31.

c)

The mass of phosphorus-31 is between phosphorus-29 and phosphorus-32. The average atomic mass is in the middle of the isotope's masses.

d)

All isotopes of phosphorus have 15 protons and 16 neutrons. When protons and neutrons are added together, the average mass would be 31.

61.

The element copper (Cu) has two naturally occurring isotopes, copper-63 (62.930 amu) and copper-65 (64.928 amu). The average atomic mass of copper listed on the periodic table of the elements is 63.55 amu. Which naturally occurring isotope, copper-63 or copper-65, is the MOST abundant?

a)

Copper-63, because it has a lower mass

b)

Copper-65, because it has a greater mass

c)

Copper-63, because the average atomic mass of the element is closer to its mass

d)

Copper-65, because the average atomic mass of the element is closer to its mass

62.

What is the average atomic mass of element X?

a)

23.52 amu

b)

28.08 amu

c)

29.00 amu

d)

32.43 amu

63.

A group of students is given the following information about three isotopes of Uranium and tasked to estimate the average atomic mass.


Student I: The average atomic mass is greater than 239 amu because it is the highest mass.


Student II: The average atomic mass is greater than 238 because it is between the lowest and highest mass.


Student III: The average atomic mass is close to 235 because it has the highest abundance.


Student IV: The average atomic mass is close to 237 because it is the average of all 3 masses.


Which student correctly estimates the average atomic mass of Uranium?

a)

Student I

b)

Student II

c)

Student III

d)

Student IV

64.

In which step did the student make a mistake in the average atomic mass calculation?


Step Procedure


1. Change 99.27 to a decimal by dividing by 100. This does not need to be done for 0.72 and 0.0059 because they already have a decimal in the front of the number.


2. Multiply the mass of each isotope by the abundance of the isotope.


3. Add the answers from step 2 together to get the average atomic mass.


4. The answer should be labeled with the units amu.

a)

Step 1

b)

Step 2

c)

Step 3

d)

Step 4

65.

True or False: The ground state is the highest energy state of an atom.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

For an electron to change from ground state to an excited stated it must...

a)

Absorb energy

b)

Release energy

67.

Colored fire in a flame test happens when...

a)

Electron transitions from lower to higher energy level.

b)

Electron transitions from higher to lower energy level.

c)

Electron exists in fixed energy states

d)

Electron transitions between different energy levels.

68.

Emission of light from an atom occurs when an electron...

a)

drops from a higher to a lower energy level.

b)

jumps from a lower to a higher energy level.

c)

moves within its atomic orbital.

d)

falls into the nucleus.

69.

If an electron moves from n=4 to n=2 it ____

a)

absorbs energy

b)

releases energy

70.

Look carefully at the picture. It shows an electron in the excited state on the left, and the electron returning to its ground state on the right. When the electron return to the ground state it emits a_______________________.

a)

blast of cold air

b)

electrostatic charge

c)

proton

d)

photon (light)

71.

The picture shows an atom in the ground state absorbing energy and the electron jumps to the excited state. Which state has higher energy?

a)

Ground State

b)

Excited State

72.
In nuclear fusion, smaller atoms are forced together to create larger atoms. Does this process release, absorb or maintain energy?
a)
Absorb energy
b)
Maintain energy
c)
Release energy
73.

The smallest particles of matter that still retain the characteristics of that element are called...

a)

atoms

b)

nuclei

c)

dust

d)

molecule

74.

When hydrogen is "fused" together on the Sun, what new element is created?

a)

Helium

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Light

75.

In fusion, lower mass elements are used to create... (Check all that apply.)

a)

Higher mass elements

b)

Lots of energy

c)

Cookies

d)

Low energy amounts

e)

Smaller elements

76.

An atom that has a different number of neutrons than protons is called a/an...

a)

valence electron

b)

isotope

c)

different element

d)

ion

77.

What electron configuration matches an oxygen (O) atom?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5

b)

1s2 2s2 2p4

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

78.

The electron configuration of an atom is 1s2 2s2 2p6. The number of electrons in the atom is...

a)

3

b)

6

c)

8

d)

10

79.

Which electron configuration belongs to an atom of chlorine (Cl)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p7

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p6

80.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s2s2p3s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
81.
How many valence electrons are represented here?
a)
7
b)
5
c)
2
d)
8
82.

How many valence electrons does an atom of chlorine (Cl) have?

a)

5

b)

2

c)

7

d)

5

83.

What is the electronic configuration of an atom of iron (Fe)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d8

c)

1s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1 3d6

84.
What do you start electron configuration with?
a)
1s2
b)
1d10
c)
1f14
d)
1p6
85.

Identify the Electron Configuration for a neutral atom of aluminum (Al).

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 4p1

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1 3p2

86.

Each row on the periodic table represents:

a)

an energy level

b)

a sublevel

c)

an electron

d)

an orbital

87.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
88.

What is a valence electron?

a)

electrons in the second energy level

b)

electrons in the outermost energy level

c)

the atomic number

d)

electrons in the first level

89.
What is the charge of an atom that has gained one electron?
a)
-1
b)
-2
c)
+1
d)
+2
90.

What is the ion configuration of the chlorine ion, Cl1-?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

91.

What electron configuration matches an oxygen ion (O2-)?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p5

b)

1s2 2s2 2p4

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d1

92.

An aluminium ion (Al3+) would have which electron configuration?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p1

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6

93.

Sodium catches on fire when it reactants with water. Which electron configuration represents an element that will react with water in a similar way?

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p5

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6

c)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s1

94.

Which of the following explanations are TRUE regarding the mass number and identity of Element C?

a)

Element C has only a different identity than elements A and B.

b)

Element C has only a different mass number than elements A and B.

c)

Element C has the same mass number and identity as elements A and B.

d)

Element C has both a different mass number and identity than elements A and B.

95.

Which of the following statement must be TRUE regarding nuclear fusion?

a)

The mass of the produced atom is less than the mass of the original nuclei and the identity is the same.

b)

The mass of the produced atom is less than the mass of the original nuclei and the identity is different.

c)

The mass of the produced atom is greater than the mass of the original nuclei and the identity is different.

d)

The mass of the produced atom is greater than the mass of the original nuclei and the identity is the same.

96.

What is the identity of the unknown element and what is the color emitted?

a)

Strontium, because electrons move from ground state to excited state to emit light

b)

Strontium, because as electrons fall back from excited state to ground state, they emit light

c)

Potassium, because electrons move from ground state to excited state to emit light

d)

Potassium, because as electrons fall back from excited state to ground state, they emit light

97.

Which is the correct model and explanation for the emission of light?

a)

Model A, because electrons absorb energy, release a photon of light, and jump to a higher energy level before falling back down

b)

Model B, because electrons absorb energy, release a photon of light, and jump to a higher energy level before falling back down

c)

Model A, because electrons absorb energy and jump to a higher energy level; as they fall back down, that energy is released as a photon of light

d)

Model B, because electrons absorb energy and jump to a higher energy level; as they fall back down that energy is released as a photon of light

98.

Which of the following explanations BEST describes how an atom emits color?

a)

Electrons jump to higher energy levels and specific wavelengths are emitted as the electrons return to the ground state.

b)

Electrons jump to higher energy levels and specific wavelengths are emitted as the electrons move to the excited state.

c)

Protons jump to higher energy levels and specific wavelengths are emitted as the electrons return to the ground state.

d)

Protons jump to higher energy levels and specific wavelengths are emitted as the electrons move to the excited state.

99.

Which of the following models would represent the MOST reactive nonmetals?

a)

Models 1 and 3

b)

Models 4 and 5

c)

Models 1, 2, and 3

d)

Models 1, 3, and 4

100.

How did Dimitri Mendeleev arrange the elements?

a)

alphabetical

b)

density

c)

melting point

d)

atomic mass

101.
The horizontal row on the periodic table is called a
a)
group
b)
family
c)
period
d)
atomic number
102.

Dimitri Mendeleev found that there was a pattern of properties that repeated every ____ elements.

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

7

103.
A vertical column is called...
a)
group
b)
tower
c)
period
d)
crew
104.
Which of the following is the most metallic element in period 3?
a)
Boron (B)
b)
Sodium (Na)
c)
Argon (Ar)
d)
Silicon (Si)
105.

Which of these elements is the least metallic?

a)

Potassium (K)

b)

Carbon (C)

c)

Sulfur (S)

d)

Neon (Ne)

106.

The number at the bottom of each square on the periodic table is the ...

a)

atomic number

b)

average atomic mass

c)

chemical symbol

d)

element name

107.
The number at the top of each square on the periodic table is the ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
Chemical Symbol
d)
Element Name
108.
What is the chemical symbol for Lithium?
a)
H
b)
He
c)
Li
d)
N
109.
The months of the year are __________ because they repeat in the same order every 12 months.
a)
periodic
b)
group
c)
period
d)
halogens
110.
How many elements follow the periodic law?
a)
7
b)
98
c)
110
d)
All of them
111.
A rule that states that repeating chemical and physical properties of elements change periodically with the atomic number of the elements is the _________.
a)
periodic law
b)
alkaline-earth metals
c)
actinide
d)
group rule
112.

Pure forms of these elements are stored in oil so they will not react with oxygen and water in the air.

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Alkaline-earth metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Noble Gases

113.
Diamonds are a pure form of what element?
a)
Carbon
b)
Oxygen
c)
Silicon
d)
Silver
114.

What larger group of elements do not have individual group names?

a)

Alkaline Earth Metals

b)

Transition Metals

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Halogens

115.
What element is used in light bulbs to help them last longer?
a)
Xenon
b)
Argon
c)
Helium
d)
Krypton
116.
All of the actinides are ___________.
a)
stable
b)
radioactive
c)
shiny
d)
named after scientists
117.
Most of the elements on the periodic table are classified as _____.
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
d)
Periods
118.
This class of elements are sometimes called "semiconductors."
a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
d)
Groups
119.

What is the common oxidation state of the alkaline earth metals (Group 2)?

a)

+2, because they are likely to gain two electrons

b)

+2, because they are likely to lose two electrons

c)

-2, because they are likely to gain two electrons

d)

-2, because they are likely to lose two electrons

120.

What is the common oxidation state of the alkali metals (group 1)?

a)

+1, because they are likely to gain one electron

b)

+1, because they are likely to lose one electron

c)

-1, because they are likely to gain one electron

d)

-1, because they are likely to lose one electron

121.

Which of the following alkali metals (Group 1) would be more reactive?

a)

Lithium (Li), because it is a larger atom

b)

Lithium (Li), because it is a smaller atom

c)

Rubidium (Rb), because it is a larger atom

d)

Rubidium (Rb), because it is a smaller atom

122.

Would Neon (Ne) normally be expected to form compounds?

a)

No, because neon needs six electrons to fill its outermost level

b)

Yes, because neon needs six electrons to fill its outermost level

c)

No, because neon has eight electrons in its outermost level and is unreactive

d)

Yes, because neon has eight electrons in its outermost level and is unreactive

123.

Which of the following is the more reactive nonmetal?

a)

Fluorine (F), because it has a higher electronegativity

b)

Fluorine (F), because it has a lower electronegativity

c)

Iodine (I), because it has a higher electronegativity

d)

Iodine (I), because it has a lower electronegativity

124.

What is the common oxidation state of the halogens (Group 17)?

a)

+1, because they are likely to gain one electron

b)

+1, because they are likely to lose one electron

c)

-1, because they are likely to gain one electron

d)

+1, because they are likely to lose one electron

125.

Which element, Oxygen (O) or Fluorine (F), has the smaller atomic radius?

a)

O, because the attraction between protons and valence electrons is stronger

b)

O, because the attraction between protons and valence electrons is weaker

c)

F, because the attraction between protons and valence electrons is stronger

d)

F, because the attraction between protons and valence electrons is weaker

126.

Which of the following atoms has the highest ionization energy?

a)

Sodium (Na)

b)

Magnesium (Mg)

c)

Aluminum (Al)

d)

Phosphorous (P)

127.

Which element has the highest electronegativity?

a)

Ww

b)

Xx

c)

Yy

d)

Zz

128.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the trend of the atomic radius across the periodic table of elements?

a)

Atomic radius will increase because the increasing number of electrons occupy more space creating a larger atom.

b)

Atomic radius will increase because the increasing number of electrons overcome the pull of the protons.

c)

Atomic radius will decrease because the increasing number of protons add mass to the outside of the nucleus.

d)

Atomic radius will decrease because the increasing number of protons has a greater pull on the electrons.

129.

Which of the following elements are in order, from smallest to largest, for atomic radius?

a)

S, O, F

b)

S, F, O

c)

F, S, O

d)

F, O, S

130.

Which of the following elements are in order, from lowest to highest, for ionization energy?

a)

S, F, O

b)

S, O, F

c)

F, S, O

d)

F, O, S

131.

Students were asked to determine which element has the higher ionization energy, Se or F. Which statement is correct?

a)

Se is the larger atom so there is a stronger attraction between protons and valence electrons.

b)

Se is the smaller atom so there is a stronger attraction between protons and valence electrons.

c)

F is the larger atom so there is a stronger attraction between protons and valence electrons.

d)

f is the smaller atom so there is a stronger attraction between protons and valence electrons.

132.

Which group of atoms shows the correct trend in electronegativity from low to high?

a)

Al, Cl, P, Si

b)

I, Br, Cl, F

c)

Si, Al, Mg, Na

d)

Be, Mg, Ca, Sr

133.

Which of the following list shows the correct trend for atoms in increasing ionization energy?

a)

Na, Li, F, O, C

b)

Na, Li, C, O, F

c)

F, O, C, Li, Na

d)

Li, Na, C, O, F

134.

Which list shows the atoms in the order of decreasing atomic radii?

a)

S, Cl, F

b)

Cl, F, O

c)

N, C, B

d)

F, Cl, Br

135.

Which of the following statements is true for the ionization energy of the calcium (Ca) atom?

a)

It is lower than that of barium (Ba).

b)

It is lower than that of potassium (K).

c)

It is higher than that of krypton (Kr).

d)

It is higher than that of strontium (Sr).

136.

Which statement is TRUE for Group 1 Alkali Metals Family?

a)

They will have the smallest atomic radii.

b)

They will have the smallest ionization energies.

c)

They will have the largest electronegativity values.

d)

They will have the largest number of valence electrons.

137.

Which halogen from Group 17 is more reactive, chlorine (Cl) or bromine (Br)?

a)

Cl, because it has a smaller atomic radius.

b)

Br, because it has a smaller atomic radius.

c)

Cl, because it has a lower electronegativity value.

d)

Br, because it has a lower electronegativity value.

138.

Which of the following elements has the lowest ionization energy?

a)

Ne, because it is stable with eight valence electrons.

b)

P, because it is a nonmetal that will gain three electrons to obtain an octet.

c)

Ca, because it is a small metal atom and can hold onto its electrons tightly.

d)

Ba, because it is a large metal atom that will easily lose two valence electrons.

139.

Four students are tasked with comparing two atoms using a periodic trend. Which student's statement is correct?

a)

Student 1

b)

Student 2

c)

Student 3

d)

Student 4

140.

A student made the following claim, "It is easier to remove an electron from a nitrogen atom than an oxygen atom." Is the student's claim correct?

a)

Yes, ionization energy increases across a period from left to right.

b)

Yes, ionization energy decreases across a period from left to right.

c)

No, ionization energy increases across a period from left to right.

d)

No, ionization energy decreases across a period from left to right.

141.

How does the size of a metal atom relate to the reactivity of the atom?

a)

Larger atoms are more reactive because valence electrons are farther away from the nucleus.

b)

Larger atoms are more reactive because valence electrons are closer to the nucleus.

c)

Smaller atoms are more reactive because valence electrons are farther away from the nucleus.

d)

Smaller atoms are more reactive because valence electrons are closer to the nucleus.

142.

Which model represents the periodic trend for electronegativity?

a)

I

b)

II

c)

III

d)

IV

143.

Which of the following explains why elements in Group 17 have higher electronegativities than Group 16, across a period?

a)

Group 17 elements have fewer protons, so they are better able to attract electrons.

b)

Group 17 elements have more protons, so they are better able to attract electrons.

c)

Group 17 elements have fewer neutrons, so they are better able to attract electrons.

d)

Group 17 elements have more neutrons, so they are better able to attract electrons.

144.

Ionic Bonding involves:

a)

The transfer of protons

b)

The transfer of neutrons

c)

The transfer of electrons

d)

None Of the above

145.

Covalent compounds:

a)

Share electrons

b)

Transfer electrons

c)

Neither

146.

What is a valence electron?

a)

an electron that is found in the outermost shell of an atom.

b)

an electron found in the innermost shell of an atom.

c)

an electron found in the middle shell.

147.

What is the number of valence electrons for Neon and the other Noble Gases?

a)

5

b)

6

c)

7

d)

8

148.

If an atom transfers an electron to another atom, those atoms form which bond?

a)

Ionic Bond, which is stronger than a covalent bonds

b)

Covalent Bond, which is stronger than ionic bonds

149.

Bonds that form between two metals are called ______________ bonds.

a)

ionic

b)

covalent

c)

metallic

d)

pervasive

150.
How many valence electrons in this structure?
a)
6
b)
5
c)
4
d)
7
151.
What elements generally make a covalent bond?
a)
metal and nonmetal
b)
2 nonmetals
c)
metal
d)
none of the above
152.
In chemical compounds, covalent bonds form when
a)
the electronegativity difference between two atoms is very large.
b)
electrons are completely transferred between two metals.
c)
pairs of electrons are shared between two nonmetal atoms.
d)
two nonmetal atoms are attracted to each other by opposite charges.
153.
How many electrons does Si contain? (click to see image)
a)
14
b)
28
c)
2
d)
4
154.

Typically, atoms are more stable when they are

a)

bonded together

b)

apart from each other

155.

Which is the correct Lewis Structure for oxygen?

a)
b)
c)
d)
156.

What is the correct Lewis structure for BF3?

a)
b)
c)
d)

BF3 (The formula is the Lewis Structure)

157.

CaCl2 is an example of what type of bond?

a)

Covalent

b)

Metallic

c)

Ionic

158.
What ending is used for the names of negative ions formed when atoms gain (steal) electrons?
a)
ade
b)
ate
c)
ion
d)
ide
159.
What are the electrons in the outer most level called?
a)
Outer level electrons
b)
Protons
c)
Neutrons
d)
Valence Electrons
160.
How many more electrons are needed to fill an outermost energy level of a Carbon atom?
a)
its already full, 0 needed
b)
2
c)
4
d)
carbon is a nonmetal, it has no electrons
161.
The atomic number of an element tells you what about that element? 
a)
number of ions
b)
number of valence electrons
c)
number of electrons 
d)
what is an element? 
162.
Which of the following compounds is formed by ionic bonding?
a)
HF
b)
PCl5
c)
MgCl2
d)
CH4
163.

Which of the following atoms is able to make electrovalent bonding with a Calcium (Cl) atom?

a)

Fluorine

b)

Sodium

c)

Iron

d)

Aluminum

164.

Which of the following explanations correctly describes the materials?

a)

Plastic polymers used in bottles are short molecules that create a non-flexible structure.

b)

Plastic polymers used in bottles are long molecules that create a very flexible structure.

c)

Calcium carbonate is a short molecule that creates a very flexible structure.

d)

Calcium carbonate is a long molecule that creates a non-flexible structure.

165.

Which group of nonmetals will react with Group 1 metals to form a compound in a one-to-one ratio?

a)

Group 15

b)

Group 16

c)

Group 17

d)

Group 18

166.

Which substance would be brittle, have a high boiling point, and be a good conductor of heat?

a)

Model A, because it is an ionic compound.

b)

Model B, because it is an ionic compound.

c)

Model A, because it is a polar covalent compound.

d)

Model B, because it is a polar covalent compound.

167.

How does the electronegativity of lithium (Li) compare with that of nitrogen (N)?

a)

These two elements would most likely form an ionic bond by sharing electrons.

b)

These two elements would most likely form a covalent bond by sharing electrons.

c)

These two elements would most likely form an ionic bond by transferring electrons.

d)

These two elements would most likely form a covalent bond by transferring electrons.

168.

Which model represents an ionic compound?

a)

Model A, because there is a transfer of electrons resulting in a cation and anion.

b)

Model A, because there is an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in partial positive and partial negative charges.

c)

Model B, because there is a transfer of electrons resulting in a cation and anion.

d)

Model B, because there is an unequal sharing of electrons resulting in partial positive and partial negative charges.

169.

Which model represents the diatomic molecule F2?

a)

Model A, because it shows charged particles transferring electrons between the Fluorine atoms.

b)

Models A and C, because it is a charged particle so the bonding shows fluorine with a negatively charged anion.

c)

Model B, because it is an equal sharing of electrons since fluorine has an electronegativity difference of zero.

d)

Model C, because it shows a sharing of electrons by making an anion and cation which allows two Fluorines to bond with each other.

170.

What type of bond would you predict to be formed between new elements located at the bottom of columns E and G?

a)

Ionic, because element E is a metal and bonds with G, a nonmetal, to combine in a 1:1 ratio.

b)

Ionic, because element E is a metal and bonds with G, a nonmetal, to combine in a 1:7 ratio.

c)

Nonpolar covalent, because element E is a metal and bonds with G, a nonmetal, to combine in a 1:1 ratio.

d)

Nonpolar covalent, because element E is a metal and bonds with G, a nonmetal, to combine in a 1:7 ratio.

171.

Based on the data, which substance has the strongest intermolecular forces?

a)

Substance 1

b)

Substance 2

c)

Substance 3

d)

Substance 4

172.

Which of the following tests will MOST help them to infer the strength of intermolecular forces between ionic and covalent compounds?

a)

Color

b)

Melting Point

c)

Solubility in water

d)

Texture, grain size

173.

Students in class argue about whether salt (NaCl) or water (H2O) has stronger intramolecular forces. Which argument is BEST?

a)

Water is a common material, so water has stronger intramolecular forces.

b)

Salt is a solid and water is a liquid, so water has stronger intramolecular forces.

c)

Water is attracted to salt and salt dissociates, so water has stronger intramolecular forces.

d)

Salt never melted and water has a lower boiling point, so salt has stronger intramolecular forces.

174.

Two students are planning an investigation to determine if ionic or covalent bonds have stronger intermolecular forces. Which one of the tests would be relevant to their experiment?

a)

Density

b)

Viscosity

c)

Malleability

d)

Conductivity in water

175.

Based on the boiling point data, which sample has the highest viscosity?

a)

Sample 1

b)

Sample 2

c)

Sample 3

d)

Sample 4

176.

Which substances are gases at room temperature (25oC)?

a)

Substances 1 & 2, because they have weaker intermolecular forces.

b)

Substances 1 & 2, because they have stronger intermolecular forces.

c)

Substances 3 & 4, because they have weaker intermolecular forces.

d)

Substances 3 & 4, because they have stronger intermolecular forces.

177.

Which substance has stronger intermolecular forces?

a)

Substance 1, because it has a lower melting point, so the molecules have a weak attraction to one another

b)

Substance 1, because it has a lower melting point, so the molecules have a strong attraction to one another

c)

Substance 2, because it has a higher melting point, so the molecules have a strong attraction to one another

d)

Substance 2, because it has a higher melting point, so the molecules have a weak attraction to one another.

178.

What is the identity of the unknown powder, KCl or C10H8?

a)

KCl is the identity of the unknown powder because the data shows properties of ionic compounds.

b)

KCl is the identity of the unknown powder because the data shows properties of covalent compounds.

c)

C10H8 is the identity of the unknown powder because the data shows properties of ionic compounds.

d)

C10H8 is the identity of the unknown powder because the data shows properties of covalent compounds.

179.

Which substances should the students use if they are trying to design an electrically conductive material?

a)

Models A and B, because the majority of materials on Earth are made of these

b)

Models A and C, because they contain ions, so they can conduct electricity

c)

Models B and C, because gases and metals can conduct electricity

d)

Models A, B, and C, because all compounds can conduct electricity

180.

An engineer is developing a new material that would allow electricity to flow. Which of the following materials would an engineer choose and why?

a)

Carbon, because it is a good insulator

b)

Copper, because it is a good conductor

c)

Carbon, because it contains ions that have the ability to conduct electricity

d)

Copper, because it contains ions that have the ability to conduct electricity

181.

What type of bond would be formed between hypothetical element X and Y in the compound XY based on their electronegativity difference?

a)

Nonpolar covalent, because the difference in electronegativity is greater than 1.7

b)

Nonpolar covalent, because the difference in electronegativity is greater than 0.4, but less than 1.7

c)

Polar covalent, because the difference in electronegativity is greater than 0.4, but less than 1.7

d)

Ionic, because the difference in electronegativity is greater than 0.4, but less than 1.7

182.

Which model represents a nonpolar molecule?

a)

Model A, because there is a transfer of electrons

b)

Model B, because there is a transfer of electrons

c)

Model A, because there is an equal sharing of electrons

d)

Model B, because there is an equal sharing of electrons

183.

Which of the following BEST describes the conductivity of Model A?

a)

It is not conductive because no ions are formed due to the equal sharing of electrons.

b)

It is not conductive because ions are formed due to the unequal sharing of electrons.

c)

It is conductive because no ions are formed due to the equal sharing of electrons.

d)

It is conductive because ions are formed due to the unequal sharing of electrons.

184.

A forensic scientist collected the following data of an unknown powder from a crime scene. What is the identity of the unknown powder, KCl or C10H8?

a)

KCl, because the data shows properties of ionic compounds

b)

KCl, because the data shows properties of covalent compounds

c)

C10H8, because the data shows properties of ionic compounds

d)

C10H8, because the data shows properties of covalent compounds

185.

What question would a student need to ask to form a compound with Group 16 nonmetals?

a)

Will group 16 elements lose electrons to bond with Group 1 in an X2Y format?

b)

Will group 16 elements lose electrons to bond with Group 2 in an XY format?

c)

Will group 16 elements lose electrons to bond with Group 2 in an XY format?

d)

Will group 16 elements lose electrons to bond with Group 1 in an XY2 format?

186.

Which of the following questions should a student ask before naming a covalent compound?

a)

Does the compound contain a cation?

b)

Does the compound contain a polyatomic ion?

c)

Should there be a prefix on the first element?

d)

What is the oxidation number of each element?

187.

When magnesium chloride is formed, what question will the student need to ask prior to writing the formula?

a)

What period does magnesium belong to?

b)

What are the oxidation numbers of each atom?

c)

What is the total number of electrons for each atom?

d)

What is the state of matter of each element in the formula?

188.

Which of the following compounds has the general formula X3Y2?

a)

Al3O2, because the cation has a +2 charge and bonds ionically with Group 16 in a 2:3 ratio

b)

Al3O2, because the cation has a +3 charge and bonds ionically with Group 16 in a 3:2 ratio

c)

Mg3N2, because the cation has a +3 charge and bonds ionically with Group 15 in a 2:3 ratio

d)

Mg3N2, because the cation has a +2 charge and bonds ionically with Group 15 in a 3:2 ratio

189.

What type of bond is formed by the elements and what is the formula?

a)

Ionic bond; the formula is Mg2Cl

b)

Ionic bond; the formula is MgCl2

c)

Covalent bond; the formula is Mg2Cl

d)

Covalent bond; the formula is MgCl2

190.

Use the periodic table to answer the following question. What is the formula for iron (II) chloride?

a)

Fe2Cl

b)

I2Cl

c)

Fe2Cl2

d)

FeCl2

191.

Which statement BEST describes how many chlorine atoms are needed when making calcium chloride?

a)

1 chlorine atom is needed because chlorine donates one valence electron to calcium

b)

1 chlorine atom is needed because chlorine accepts one valence electron from calcium

c)

2 chlorine atoms are needed because each chlorine accepts one valence electron from calcium

d)

2 chlorine atoms are needed because each chlorine donates one valence electron to calcium

192.

Two students are planing to carry out an experiment to infer the strength of intramolecular forces. Which experiment would BEST accomplish this goal?

a)

Measure the mass of each substance

b)

Compare the viscosity of each substance

c)

Determine the melting point of each substance

d)

Compare the state of matter at room temperature

193.

Which of the following are physical properties of substances with strong intermolecular forces?

a)

High boiling point and low viscosity

b)

High boiling point and high viscosity

c)

Low boiling point and high viscosity

d)

Low boiling point and low viscosity

194.

Which substance has the strongest intermolecular forces?

a)

Unknown 1

b)

Unknown 2

c)

Unknown 3

d)

Unknown 4

195.

An unknown substance dissolves in water, but separates and floats in oil. What is the identity of the unknown substance and why?

a)

Ammonia, because polar substances dissolve in water, and the density must be less than 0.9 g/mL for it to float in the oil.

b)

Chloroform, because polar substances dissolve in water, and the density must be greater than 0.91 g/mL for it to float in the oil

c)

Gasoline, because nonpolar substances dissolve in water, and the density must be less than 0.91 g/mL for it to float in the oil

d)

Polyethylene, because nonpolar substances dissolve in water, and the density must be greater than 0.91 g/mL for it to float in the oil

196.

Which type of chemical reaction is defined by this equation: AB A + B

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

197.

Which type of chemical reaction is defined by this equation: AB + C A + CB

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

198.

Which type of chemical reaction is defined by this equation:

AB + CD AD + CB

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Displacement

d)

Double Displacement

199.

Which type of chemical reaction is defined by this equation: A + B AB

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

200.

What type of chemical reaction is this equation: 2 H2O 2 H2+ O2

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

201.

What type of chemical reaction is this equation: HCl + NaOH NaCl + H2O

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

202.

What type of chemical reaction is this equation: 2 Al + 3 NiBr2 2 AlBr3+ 3 Ni

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

203.

What type of chemical reaction is this equation: AgNO3+ KI KNO3+ AgI

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

204.

Which type of chemical reaction is this equation: N2 + 3 H2 2 NH3

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

205.

Which type of chemical reaction is this equation: Ag2S 2 Ag + S

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

206.

Which type of chemical reaction is this equation: Zn + 2 HCl ZnCl2+ H2

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

207.

What type of chemical reaction is this equation: 4 Fe + 3 O2 2 Fe2O3

a)

Synthesis

b)

Decomposition

c)

Single Replacement

d)

Double Replacement

208.

The starting materials in a chemical reaction are called the...

a)

Products

b)

Reactants

c)

Starters

d)

Enders

209.

A substance that is formed as the result of a chemical reaction is called the...

a)

Product

b)

Reactant

c)

Starter

d)

Ender

210.

An atom or molecule which has gained or lost one or more of its valence electrons is called a/an...

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Chemical Formula

c)

Ion

d)

Compound

211.

A bond in which one or more electrons from one atom are removed and attached to another atom, resulting in positive and negative ions which attract each other is called a/an...

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Reaction Bond

d)

Null Bond

212.

A bond in which one or more pairs of electrons are shared by two atoms is called a/an...

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

c)

Reaction Bond

d)

Null Bond

213.

A solid that is deposited from a solution is called a...

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Product

d)

Precipitate

214.

In a single displacement reaction between Al2S3 and Li, what products will form and why?

a)

Li2S and Al because metals replace metals and Li2S balances the oxidation numbers (charges)

b)

Li2S3 and Al because metals replace metals and Li2S3 balances the oxidation numbers (charges)

c)

Li3Al and S because metals replace nonmetals and Li3Al balances the oxidation numbers (charges)

d)

Li2Al3 and S because metals replace nonmetals Li2S3 balances the oxidation numbers (charges)

215.

Use the information to answer the following question.

A2B + X2 2 AX + B

a)

A=Ca, B=S, X=F

b)

A=Ca, B=F, X=S

c)

A=K, B=S, X=I

d)

A=K, B=I, X=S

216.

Lithium oxide (Li2O) reacts with an unknown element as shown in the general equation: Li2O + X LiX + O2


What is the identity of element X in the reaction shown?

a)

Fluorine because it has a higher electronegativity than oxygen and an oxidation number of +1.

b)

Fluorine because it has a higher electronegativity than oxygen and an oxidation number of -1.

c)

Fluorine because it has a lower electronegativity than oxygen and an oxidation number of +1.

d)

Fluorine because it has a lower electronegativity than oxygen and an oxidation number of -1.

217.

In a single displacement reaction between CaS and Na, which statement BEST explain the products formed?

a)

Sodium (Na) replaces calcium (Ca) because they are both metals and have positive oxidation numbers.

b)

Sodium (Na) replaces calcium (Ca) because they are both metals and have negative oxidation numbers.

c)

Sodium (Na) replaces calcium (Ca) because they are both nonmetals and have positive oxidation numbers.

d)

Sodium (Na) replaces calcium (Ca) because they are both nonmetals and have negative oxidation numbers.

218.

HCl (aq) + NaOH (aq) NaCl (s) + H2O (l)


Mass of Substance in Grams (g)

HCl 36.5g

NaOH 40.0g

NaCl 58.5g

H2O ?g

Which mass of water is expected to be produced in the reaction?

a)

76.5 g, because mass cannot be created or destroyed

b)

76.5 g, because the mass of the products must equal the mass of the reactants

c)

18.0 g, because mass is created to form the products

d)

18.0 g, because the mass of the products must equal the mass of the reactants

219.

2Li + 2H2O ____ LiOH + H2


When the equation is balanced, what coefficient is needed for LiOH?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

220.

2 MgO + 2X2 2 MgX2 + O2

What are the potential identities of X?

a)

Cl 1-

b)

O 1-

c)

Cl 1+

d)

O 1+