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Biology Midterm Review

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Biology is the study of__________

a)

land, water and air on Earth

b)

all living things

c)

the environment

d)

animals and plants

2.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of living things?

a)

growth and development

b)

responding to environment

c)

ability to reproduce

d)

ability to move

3.

Which organelle would you expect to find in plant cells but not animal cells?

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

ribosome

d)

nucleus

4.

What type of cells have a cell membrane?

a)

animal cells only

b)

plant cells only

c)

plant and animal cells only

d)

all cells

5.

Scientists do not consider viruses to be living things, however they do have some characteristics of living organisms. What characteristics of living things do viruses have?

a)

ability to evolve

b)

growth and development

c)

ability to reproduce on their own

d)

living things all use a universal genetic code

6.

Which of the following characteristics of living things best explains why birds fly south for the winter?

a)

Living things respond to the environment

b)

Living things have a metabolism

c)

living things are made up of units called cells

d)

living things all use a universal genetic code

7.

Which organic molecule is depicted above?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

8.

Which of the following is a function of proteins?

a)

quick energy

b)

waterproof covering

c)

long term energy

d)

building blocks of muscles

9.

When your body gets too hot you sweat and when you get too cold you shiver. Which characteristic of living things would this fall under?

a)

Living things have a metabolism.

b)

Living things maintain an internal balance.

c)

Living things are made up of units called cells.

d)

Living things all use a universal genetic code

10.

Plant and animal cells have several similar characteristics however they also have several differences as well. Which option below shows how plant cells are different than animal cells?

a)

Plant cells have a cell wall and a large central vacuole and animal cells do not.

b)

Plant cells have chloroplast and a ribosomes and animal cells do not.

c)

Plant cells have a nucleus and a nucleus and animal cells do not.

d)

Plant cells have a large central vacuole and cytoplasm and animal cells do not.

11.

Many different factors influence the rate of evolution. The table lists several factors affecting four populations.

Which population will most likely experience the fastest rate of evolution?

a)

Pop 1

b)

Pop 2

c)

Pop 3

d)

Pop 4

12.

The Canyon spotted whiptail and the Sonoran spotted whiptail are lizard species that live in the same desert. The Canyon spotted whiptail is composed of males and females that reproduce sexually. The Sonoran spotted whiptail is an all-female species that reproduces asexually.

Which lizard species is most likely to survive a drastic sudden change in their environment?

a)

The Sonoran spotted whiptail because all members of the species can reproduce.

b)

The Sonoran spotted whiptail because their genetic similarities will keep the species stable.

c)

The Canyon spotted whiptail because species that reproduce sexually reproduce at a faster rate than asexual species.

d)

The Canyon spotted whiptail because their genetic differences improve their chances of adapting to the new environment.

13.

What evidence is supported by the alligator and mouse embryos sharing similarities during development?

a)

These organisms have a related ancestor.

b)

Development of organisms is unique to each species.

c)

Development is unrelated to the physical features of an organism.

d)

The female parent determines the physical features of the offspring.

14.

The table shows the number of similar amino acid residues in the beta chain of hemoglobin of different species as compared to human beta chain hemoglobin amino acids.

a)

Frogs are more closely related to humans than humans are to mice.

b)

Chickens are more closely related to humans than dogs are to mice.

c)

Mice are more closely related to humans than mice are to chickens.

d)

Dogs are more closely related to humans than dogs are to chickens.

15.

During the industrial revolution in Europe many of the native trees in the area became covered in soot from the nearby factories. The peppered moths in this area had two distinct colorings, white and black. Before the industrial revolution the number of white peppered moths in the area significantly outnumbered the amount of black peppered moths. After five years of the industrial revolution the number of white peppered moths showed a decrease, but the number of black peppered moths showed a major increase in numbers.


What could be the most likely cause of this major change in the peppered moth population?

a)

White peppered moths migrated to another region.

b)

Black peppered moths were favored due to the change in the coloring of the tree bark.

c)

White peppered moths were favored due to the change in the coloring of the tree bark.

d)

Black peppered moths migrated from neighboring regions at a higher rate than the white moths.

16.

In Florida, mice that live on the white sands of the barrier islands tend to be lighter in color than mice that live in the vegetation on the mainland. Which of the following statements describes how mice on the barrier islands most likely evolved their light coat color through natural selection?

a)

The light-colored mice were easier prey for birds than the dark-colored mice.

b)

The light-colored mice learned to shed more of their fur than the dark-colored mice.

c)

The light-colored mice had a greater reproductive advantage on the barrier islands than the dark-colored mice.

d)

The light-colored mice migrated from the mainland to the barrier islands more recently than the dark-colored mice.

17.

Which statement best explains what is happening at Point A?

a)

Population growth decrease as individual crabs gets older.

b)

The population is stabilizing as it approaches carrying capacity.

c)

Destruction of habitat is causing a decline in the population of the crabs.

d)

The introduction of a new producer is causing a decline in population growth of the crabs.

18.

Which type of population growth is being shown in the graph

a)

exponential

b)

logistic

c)

growth cannot be determined

d)

no growth

19.

Wild red wolves were once common in the southeastern United States. As this area became

more developed, the number of wild red wolves was drastically reduced to about 20 individuals by 1967. These remaining wolves were captured and bred. In 1987, some captive-born red wolves were released into an area of North Carolina. Today, there are more than 50 wild red wolves living in North Carolina.


Using your knowledge of genetic drift, which statement is true for the current population of red wolves.

a)

The are less genetic diversity in the original population than the current population.

b)

The is more genetic diversity in the current population that the original population.

c)

There is less genetic diversity in the current population than the original population.

d)

There is not an allele frequency change in the current and original populations.

20.

Which two layers indicate a dramatic temperature change from cold to warm?

a)

Layer 1 to layer 2

b)

Layer 2 to layer 3

c)

Layer 3 to layer 4

d)

Layer 4 to layer 5

21.

Which statement best describes the DNA molecules made from this process

a)

The new DNA molecules identical to each other but not to the original molecule.

b)

The new DNA molecules are identical to only one strand in the original

c)

The new DNA molecules are identical to each other and to the original molecule.

d)

The new DNA molecules are not identical to or to the original molecule to provide genetic variation.

22.

Lung cancer cells do not respond to the signals that regulate the growth of the normal lung cells. Which of the following processes is not appropriately regulated in cancerous cells?

a)

Transpiration

b)

Fertilization

c)

Mitosis

d)

Meiosis

23.

Cell cycle checkpoints are proteins that monitor and regulate the progress of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells. Which statement best describes what would most likely happed if a cell is permitted to progress to mitosis without this preparation phase?

a)

The new cells would all have the organelles except the nucleus

b)

The number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be the same as the parent

c)

the new cells would have all the organelles except the mitochondria

d)

the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells would be different than the parent

24.

Some specialized cells like nerve cells permanently lose their ability to divide and remain in a phase known as....

a)

S

b)

G0

c)

G2

d)

G1

25.

Semi-Conservative replication of DNA refers to the idea that

a)

each half of the DNA molecule is joined with a new complementary DNA strand

b)

DNA molecules need to unwind before replication begins

c)

the 2 strands of DNA run in opposite directions

d)

each new DNA molecule contains 2 new RNA strands

26.

What does Chargaff's base pair rule state?

a)

Guanine always bonds with adenine and cytosine always bonds with thymine

b)

Guanine always bonds with cytosine and adenine always bonds with thymine

c)

Guanine always bonds with thymine and cytosine always bonds with adenine

d)

The sugar and phosphate bond in the middle

27.

Which best explains why DNA replication in the human body is important?

a)

it is needed for cell division

b)

it is necessary for protein synthesis

c)

it replaces any damaged DNA in cells

d)

it produces RNA strands

28.

Which phase of mitosis is represented?

a)

prophase

b)

anaphase

c)

telophase

d)

metaphase

29.

What is the correct order of the stages above?

a)

2 4 3 1 5

b)

3 1 4 5 2`

c)

1 2 3 4 5

d)

2 3 1 4 5

30.

The stage in the cell cycle where the cell spends the majority of their life is

a)

Meiosis

b)

Interphase

c)

prophase

d)

Mitosis

31.

What part of protein synthesis is being depicted in the diagram?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Fertilization

d)

Replication

32.

Where does transcription take place in a cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

cytoplasm

c)

ribosomes

d)

chloroplast

33.

What is the purpose of transcription?

a)

replicate chromosomes before cell division

b)

transfer information for a protein code

c)

removed mutations in the DNA

d)

provide a source of energy

34.

How do the functions of DNA and RNA differ?

a)

DNA directs protein transport, while RNA aids in energy production

b)

RNA directs protein transport, while DNA aids in energy production

c)

DNA stores genetic information while RNA relays genetic information

d)

RNA stores genetic information while DNA relays genetic information

35.

Which of the following is correctly matched with its function?

a)

mRNA contains codes to make new ribosomes

b)

tRNA combines with proteins to make up ribosomes

c)

DNA carries amino acids to the ribosomes

d)

mRNA carries the genetic codes to the ribosomes

36.

Sickle Cell disease is a genetic disorder that is caused by a DNA mutation that exchanges one base for another, which changes one amino acid in hemoglobin. What is this type of mutation?

a)

deletion

b)

frameshift

c)

substitution

d)

inversion

37.

The section labeled A is a _____________

a)

biological catalyst

b)

gene

c)

chromosome

d)

protein

38.

Lactose intolerance is the inability to break down a type of sugar called lactose. Lactose is commonly found in dairy products, such as milk and yogurt. A person is lactose intolerant when their small intestine stops making enough of the enzyme, lactase, to be able to digest lactose. What is the primary cause of the deficiency?

a)

An error, which occurs within the DNA strand, resulting in a change in the gene which codes for the enzyme Lactase.

b)

An environmental change resulting in abnormal shapes of tRNA causing the appropriate anticodon to match to the corresponding mRNA codon.

c)

An error which occurs during translation of a gene, resulting in a change in the amino acid sequence for the enzyme lactase.

d)

An environmental change resulting in a substitution of a nucleotide base on the mRNA strand causing a change in the sequence of amino acids for Lactase.

39.

Use the codon chart to help you answer the question below. What is the correct amino acid sequence for the DNA strand of TAC CCG TAA CGT

a)

Methionine, Glycine, Isoleucine, Alanine

b)

Methionine, Alanine, Histidine, Leucine

c)

Glycine, Isoleicine, stop

d)

Asparagine, Glycine, Isoleucine, Alanine

40.

What process results in egg cells with genetic compositions that are different than the female parent?

a)

Replication of chromosomes during interphase

b)

realignment of chromosomes during metaphase

c)

crossing over of chromosomes during prophase I

d)

separation of chromosomes during anaphase II

41.

Gametes contain half the number of chromosomes than other cells in the body. When are gametes produced in organisms?

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

replication

d)

transcription

42.

Why is meiosis important for sexual reproduction?

a)

to increase the number of body cells

b)

to reduce the number of chromosomes in gametes

c)

to reduce the chance of genetic variation

d)

increase desirable mutations

43.

Which stage produces the haploid condition for the four daughter cells?

a)

replication

b)

recombination

c)

division 1

d)

division 2

44.

In what way do the products of meiosis differ from the products of mitosis?

a)

meiosis results in new cells

b)

meiosis results in egg or sperm

c)

meiosis results in 2 daughter cells

d)

meiosis results in cells identical to parent cell

45.

The process of meiosis produced which of the cells above

a)

1 only

b)

3 only

c)

1 and 2

d)

2 and 3

46.

Which event during meiosis introduces genetic variation

a)

condensation due to forming distinct chromosomes

b)

replication of DNA to make copies

c)

crossing over of homologous chromosomes

d)

migration of chromosomes to opposite sides of the cell

47.

What is the genetic significance of crossing over

a)

increases genetic variation

b)

increasing mutation possibilties

c)

to allow 2 of the 4 cells to have identical chromosomes

d)

to recombine new genes with old ones

48.

where do the genes of offspring come from in sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

all from mom

b)

all from dad

c)

half from mom and half from dad

d)

offspring do not receive genes from parents.

49.

What is the end result of meiosis

a)

2 identical cells

b)

4 haploid cells

c)

4 diploid cells

d)

2 haploid cells

50.

Which process is attributed to causing an additional 21st chromosomes in this human karyotype?

a)

duplication

b)

monosomy

c)

nondisjunction

d)

translocation

51.

What type of mutation causes an extra 21st chromosme?

a)

monosomy

b)

trisomy

c)

meiosis

d)

deletion