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Week 18 FINAL - Anatomy

Total questions: 225

Worksheet time: 3hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is at "C"?
a)
extensor digiti minimi
b)
extensor carpi ulnaris
c)
extensor digitorum
d)
brachioradialis
2.
Which muscle is #6?
a)
extensor carpi ulnaris
b)
flexor carpi ulnaris
c)
extensor carpi radialis
d)
flexor carpi radialis
3.
Which muscle is #8?
a)
extensor carpi radialis
b)
flexor carpi radialis
c)
extensor digitorum
d)
palmaris longus
4.
Muscles that separate the fingers are?
a)
abductors
b)
pronators
c)
adductors
d)
extensors
5.

The Flexor digitorum muscles are located where

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Proximal

d)

Inferior

6.

Where is the hypothenar muscle located?

a)

palm view little finger side

b)

palm view thumb side

c)

back of hand thumb side

d)

back of hand little finger side

7.

plantar flexion of foot

a)

soleus

b)

semitendinosus

c)

tibialis anterior

d)

vastus medialis

8.

Extends the toes

a)

Palmaris longus

b)

extensor digitorum longus

c)

extensor digitorum

d)

tibialis anterior

9.

What action do the muscles on the anterior and dorsal surface of the foot perform?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantar flexion

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

10.

What do the muscles on the posterior and plantar surface of the foot perform?

a)

Dorsiflexion

b)

Plantar flexion

c)

Inversion

d)

Eversion

11.

Tibialis anterior, extensor hallicus longus/brevis and extensor digitorum longus/brevis are found on the ___________ side of the leg/foot

a)

Anterior/dorsal

b)

Posterior/plantar

c)

Medial

d)

Lateral

12.

Which two muscles form the Achilles tendon?

a)

Gastrocnemius

b)

Tibialis anterior

c)

Soleus

d)

Extensor hallicus longus

13.

THINK! This muscle has to work extra hard to make sure the foot does not slap the ground after each stride when running downhill

a)

Posterior tibialis

b)

Gastrocnemius

c)

Anterior tibialis

d)

Peroneus brevis

14.

The arch that runs from 1st to the 5th metatarsals across the foot is called what?

a)

Medial Longitudinal Arch

b)

Lateral Longitudinal Arch

c)

Transverse arch

d)

None of these

15.

The Flexor digitorum muscles are located where

a)

Posterior

b)

Anterior

c)

Proximal

d)

Inferior

16.

Flexor Digiti Minimi is going to flex how many fingers

a)

0

b)

1

c)

4

d)

all 5

17.

Which of the following is not a Wrist flexor

a)

Palmaris longus

b)

Flexor carpi radialis

c)

Flexor digitorum

d)

Flexor carpi ulnaris

18.

The thenar eminence is found where?

a)

Back on thumb side

b)

front of pinky side

c)

back of pinky side

d)

front of thumb side

19.

How many wrist flexors muscles are there total?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

7

20.

how many muscles move the thumb?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

7

d)

8

21.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

external intercostals

b)

serratus anterior

c)

external oblique

d)

internal intercostals

e)

internal oblique

22.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

external intercostals

b)

serratus anterior

c)

external oblique

d)

internal intercostals

e)

internal oblique

23.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

external intercostals

b)

serratus anterior

c)

external oblique

d)

internal intercostals

e)

internal oblique

24.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

external intercostals

b)

serratus anterior

c)

external oblique

d)

internal intercostals

e)

internal oblique

25.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

26.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

27.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

28.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

29.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

gluteus maximus

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

30.

Identify the Muscle.

a)

rectus abdominis

b)

latissimus dorsi

c)

trapezius

d)

pectoralis major

e)

pectoralis minor

31.

What is the name of the muscles in purple?

(a)  

32.

What is the name of the muscles in purple?

(a)  

33.

What is the name of the muscles in purple?

(a)  

34.

Name of muscles....

a)

erector spinae

b)

rectus abdominis

c)

diaphragm

d)

intercostals

35.

Name of muscles....

a)

erector spinae

b)

rectus abdominis

c)

diaphragm

d)

intercostals

36.
a)

Brachioradialis

b)

Biceps Brachii

c)

Pronator Teres

d)

Brachialis

37.

Which muscle flexes your wrist?

a)

Extensor digitorum

b)

Flexor carpi radialis

c)

Biceps brachii

d)

Brachioradialis

38.
Which muscle is #8?
a)
extensor carpi radialis
b)
flexor carpi radialis
c)
extensor digitorum
d)
palmaris longus
39.
Which muscle is #2?
a)
adductor longus
b)
sartorius
c)
gracilis
d)
tensor fascia latae
40.
Which muscle is #3?
a)
gracilis
b)
sartorius
c)
adductor longus
d)
vastus lateralis
41.
Which muscle is #4?
a)
rectus femoris
b)
biceps femoris
c)
vastus lateralis
d)
sartorius
42.
Which muscle is #5?
a)
vastus laterlis
b)
vastus medialis
c)
gracilis
d)
sartorius
43.
Which muscle is #6?
a)
vastus lateralis
b)
vastus medialis
c)
rectus femoris
d)
gracilis
44.
Which muscle is #3?
a)
semimembranosus
b)
semitendinosus
c)
biceps femoris
d)
gastrocnemius
45.
What is the muscle in the front of the lower leg called?
a)
Pelvis
b)
Tibialis Anterior
c)
Bicep
d)
Sternocleidomastoid
46.
a)
Orbicularis Oris
b)
Orbicularis Oculi
c)
Corrugator
d)
Frontalis
47.
a)
Orbicularis Oris
b)
Orbicularis Oculi
c)
Corrugator
d)
Occipitals
48.
a)
Temporalis
b)
Frontalis
c)
Occipitals
d)
Corrugator
49.
a)
Buccinator
b)
Zygomaticus Major
c)
Zygomaticus Minor
d)
Masseter
50.
a)
Masseter
b)
Buccinator
c)
Zygomaticus Major
d)
Zygomaticus Minor
51.
a)
Mentalis
b)
Nasalis
c)
Obicularis Oris
d)
Occipital
52.
a)
Masseter
b)
Buccinator
c)
Platysma
d)
Sternoclidomastoid
53.
a)
Mentalis
b)
Platysma
c)
Sternoclidomastoid
d)
Risorius
54.
a)
Frontalis
b)
Occipitals
c)
Corrugator
d)
Obicularis Oculi
55.
Bright Red
a)
Occipitalis
b)
Frontalis
c)
Corrugator
d)
Zygomaticus Minor
56.
#10?
a)
orbicularis oculi
b)
zygomaticus
c)
buccinator
d)
orbicularis oris
57.
a)
Latissimius Dorsi
b)
Trapezius
c)
Triceps
d)
Erectors
58.
#1?
a)
frontalis
b)
zygomaticus
c)
cranial aponeurosis
d)
occipitalis
59.

#10

a)

platysma

b)

sternocleidomastoid

c)

trapezius

d)

splenius capitis

60.

Identify the muscle.

a)

epicranius occipitofrontalis

b)

mentalis

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

temporalis

e)

orbicularis oris

61.

Identify the muscle.

a)

orbicularis oris

b)

nasalis

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

levator labii superioris

e)

depressor labii inferioris

62.

Identify the muscle.

a)

orbicularis oris

b)

mentalis

c)

orbicularis oculi

d)

levator labii superioris

e)

depressor labii inferioris

63.
This type of muscle tissue is found only in the heart
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
64.
This type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of hollow organs such as the stomach 
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
65.
This type of muscle tissue is attached to bones wand helps control voluntary movement
a)
Skeletal
b)
Cardiac
c)
Smooth
66.
Which muscles are involuntary?
a)
skeletal
b)
cardiac
c)
smooth
d)
smooth and cardiac
67.

Tendons attach muscle to bone

a)

false

b)

true

68.
Movement of a limb toward the body midline
a)
Abduction
b)
Flexion
c)
Adduction
d)
Pronation
69.
Moving a limb away from midline
a)
Pronation
b)
Abduction
c)
Adduction
d)
Flexion
70.

the cordlike connective tissue that attaches a muscle to a bone is called

a)

a tendon

b)

a ligament

c)

a sarcomere

d)

a fascicle

71.

Name the tissue

a)

Skeletal

b)

Cardiac

c)

Smooth

72.

Which muscle type is striated?

a)

cardiac

b)

skeletal

c)

smooth

d)

cardiac and skeletal

73.

What type of muscle is/are voluntary?

a)

smooth and cardiac

b)

smooth

c)

skeletal and smooth

d)

skeletal

74.

What type of muscle(s) is involuntary?

a)

skeletal and smooth

b)

cardiac and skeletal

c)

smooth and cardiac

d)

skeletal

75.

Which muscle tissue has intercalated discs?

a)

Cardiac

b)

Smooth

c)

Skeletal

d)

Visceral

76.

Which muscle tissue would be responsible for chewing food?

a)

Smooth

b)

Skeletal

c)

Cardiac

d)

Vestibular

77.
What two chemicals are necessary for muscle contraction to occur?
a)
Niacin and Potassium
b)
Calcium and ATP
c)
Sodium and Potassium
d)
Ach and Potassium
78.
What is the structure that stores the Calcium in the muscle cell.  
a)
Sarcoplasm
b)
Sarcolemma
c)
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Myoglobin
79.
This is 
a)
smooth muscle
b)
cardiac muscle
c)
skeletal muscle
80.
This is
a)
smooth muscle
b)
cardiac muscle
c)
skeletal muscle
81.
Movement is enabled by muscle
a)
contraction
b)
atrophy
c)
subduction
d)
torpor
82.
The form of cellular energy used to power muscle contraction is
a)
ATP
b)
ADP
c)
enzymes
d)
axons
83.

Endocrine glands secrete _

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

A wide range of chemical substances

84.

What is the main function of the endocrine system?

a)

It creates chemicals, or hormones, that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

b)

It creates electrical messages that are sent around the body to maintain homeostasis.

c)

It maintains the correct level of oxygen in the body to maintain homeostasis.

d)

It releases waste from the body to maintain homeostasis.

85.
An organ that produces secretions called hormones is known as a :
a)
chemical
b)
gland
c)
hormone
d)
duct
86.
What is gland #3?
a)
Adrenal Gland
b)
Pancreas
c)
Ovaries
d)
Testes
87.
Letter H is pointing to
a)
Thymus
b)
Pancreas
c)
Pituitary
d)
Pineal
88.
Letter I is pointing to
a)
Testes
b)
Oviducts
c)
Ovaries
d)
Adrenals
89.

Letter J is pointing to

a)

Ovaries

b)

Pineal Gland

c)

Adrenal

d)

Testes

90.

The gland labeled 4 in the diagram is?

a)

the thymus gland

b)

the thyroid gland

c)

the parathyroid glands

d)

the adrenal glands

91.

The process by which an organism’s internal environment is kept stable in spite of changes in the external environment.

a)

Positive Feedback

b)

Negative Feedback

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Targeted Cells

92.

What structure(s) shown in the picture above the kidneys?

a)

Thyroids

b)

Adrenal glands

c)

Testes

d)

Parathyroids

93.

Cells that have receptors for a particular hormone.

a)

gland cells

b)

neurons

c)

hormones

d)

target cells

94.

Which gland secretes testosterone?

a)

Adrenal medulla

b)

Anterior pituitary

c)

Pineal

d)

Testicles

95.

Which gland secretes insulin?

a)

Anterior pituitary

b)

Posterior pituitary

c)

Pancreas

d)

Thyroid

96.

Which gland secretes estrogen?

a)

Anterior pituitary

b)

Adrenal medulla

c)

Ovaries

d)

Pineal

97.

Which hormone regulates sleep and wake cycles?

a)

Adrenaline

b)

Calcitonin

c)

Estrogen

d)

Melatonin

98.

Which hormone works closely with insulin?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Glucagon

c)

Prolactin

d)

Thyroid hormone

99.

The diagram shows the mechanisms that control the concentration of glucose in the blood.


Which row identifies the glands and hormones labelled W, X, Y and Z?

a)

adrenal gland, adrenaline, adrenal gland, glucagon

b)

adrenal gland, adrenaline, pancreas, insulin

c)

pancreas, glucagon, adrenal gland, insulin

d)

pancreas, insulin, pancreas, glucagon

100.

Which one here is a hormone?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Glycerol

c)

Glucagon

d)

Glucose

101.
The hormones of the ___ play a role in regulating metabolism.
a)
thymus gland
b)
parathyroid gland
c)
thyroid gland
d)
pineal gland
102.
Which of the following endocrine glands is NOT found in the brain?
a)
Pituitary 
b)
Pineal
c)
Hypothalamus
d)
Thyroid
103.
Which gland helps respond to stress and danger?
a)
Thyroid
b)
Adrenal
c)
Pancreas
d)
Parathyroid
104.

Hormone stimulating milk secretion is

a)

Prolactin

b)

Luteinising hormone

c)

Testosteron

d)

Estrogen

105.
What is glucagon's major role in the body?
a)
to raise blood sugar
b)
to lower blood sugar
c)
to receive signals from the pituitary
106.

Which hormone is released when blood/calcium levels rise?

a)

Calcitonin

b)

Follicle stimulating

c)

Parathyroid hormone

d)

Prolactin

107.

Which system produces chemical messengers known as hormones?

a)

nervous system

b)

immune system

c)

endocrine system

d)

cardiovascular system

108.

Hormones that are able to pass through the membrane of target cells are said to be (a)   soluble.

109.

Proteins on the outside of cells that act like the "lock" for the right "key" are called cell (a)  

110.

A chain reaction of hormones can otherwise be called a hormone (a)   .

111.

You get cold and your body begins a hormone cascade in response to warm you up. A ________ ______ helps your body know when to stop secreting hormones

(a)  

112.
What type of acid is in the stomach?
a)
HCl (Hydrochloric acid)
b)
NaCl (Table salt)
c)
NaOH (Sodium Hydroxide)
113.
The mouth contains _____________ that make the enzymes in saliva? 
a)
Salivary glands
b)
esophagus
c)
mouth
d)
Peristalsis
114.
The Gallbladder is an organ that?
a)
Stores bile
b)
Produce bile
c)
Creates enzymes
115.
Carbohydrates are broken down into?
a)
sugar
b)
protein
c)
amino acids
d)
lipids
116.

Which organ releases digestive enzymes into the small intestine?

a)

pancreas

b)

small intestine

c)

esophagus

d)

salivary glands

117.

What organ is responsible for the majority of the absoption that occurs in the digestive system?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

oral cavity

118.

Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive system?

a)

stomach

b)

small intestine

c)

esophagus

d)

liver

119.

Which of the following answers correctly sequences the pathway food takes from the beginning to end?

a)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine

b)

mouth, esophagus, stomach, large intestine, small intestine

c)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, small intestine, large intestine

d)

mouth, stomach, esophagus, large intestine, small intestine

120.

Which organ makes bile?

a)

liver

b)

gallbladder

c)

pancreas

121.

Structure 12 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

salivary glands

c)

mouth

d)

esophagus

122.

Structure 16 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

salivary glands

c)

larynx

d)

esophagus

123.

Structure 4 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

liver

c)

stomach

d)

gall bladder

124.

Structure 17 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

liver

c)

stomach

d)

gall bladder

125.

Structure 5 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

appendix

c)

salivary gland

d)

gall bladder

126.

Structure 20 is the

a)

pancreas

b)

stomach

c)

large intestine

d)

small intestine

127.

Structure 11 is the

a)

gall bladder

b)

appendix

c)

large intestine

d)

small intestine

128.

What organ is responsible for the absorption of water and movement of waste?

a)

large intestine

b)

small intestine

c)

stomach

d)

oral cavity

129.

Lipase breaks down fats into:

a)

fatty acids and glycerol

b)

amino acids

c)

fatty acids and glycogen

d)

maltose

130.

Pepsin is produced where in the digestive system?

a)

mouth

b)

stomach

c)

pancreas

d)

small intestone

131.

Choose The Function Of The Pancreatic Juice From The Following

a)

Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates

b)

Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins

c)

Trypsin and lipase digest fats

d)

Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats

132.

The opening of stomach into duodenum is guarded by –

a)

Cardiac sphincter

b)

Sphincter of Boyden

c)

Sphincter of Oddi

d)

Pyloric sphincter

133.

Which enzymes does the pancreas pump out? (3 answers)

a)

Amylase

b)

Protease

c)

Lipase

d)

Bile

134.

Numerous fingerlike projections in the folds of the wall of the ileum is classified as

a)

Bolus

b)

Chyme

c)

Bile

d)

Villi

135.

Which part of the small intestine joins the large intestine?

a)

Ileum

b)

Duodenum

c)

Jejunum

136.
Region where chyme enters the small intestine is known as ______________.
a)
colon
b)
ileum
c)
jejunum
d)
duodenum
137.
This enzyme digests fats (lipids)
a)
Protease
b)
Carbohydrase
c)
Lipase
d)
Bile
138.

What does the mucosal lining do to protect the body from HCl?

a)

Digests food in the mouth.

b)

Digests food in the stomach

c)

Protects the stomach from digesting iteself

d)

Absorbs nutrients from food so the body has energy.

139.
The green part is the 
a)
rugae
b)
pyloric sphincter
c)
cardioesophageal sphincter
d)
stomach
140.

Stores solid waste until it is excreted from the body

a)

Large Intestine

b)

Small Intestine

c)

Rectum

d)

Cloaca

141.

Mastication means:

a)

to form a bolus

b)

to chew

c)

to form chyme

d)

mixing food with saliva

142.

Which of the following is in chronological order (not necessarily complete):

a)

stomach 🡪 jejunum 🡪 cecum 🡪 transverse colon 🡪 ascending colon 🡪 sigmoid colon

b)

esophagus 🡪 stomach 🡪 duodenum 🡪 ileum 🡪 ascending colon 🡪 rectum

c)

mouth 🡪 jejunum 🡪 cecum 🡪 descending colon 🡪 transverse colon 🡪 rectum

d)

stomach 🡪 ileum 🡪 duodenum 🡪 ascending colon 🡪 transverse colon 🡪 anus

143.

Which of the following are digested by amylase of the digestive system:

a)

fats

b)

proteins

c)

carbohydrates

d)

electrolytes

144.

Which of the following structures lead to an increased surface area of the small intestine:

a)

Microvilli

b)

peristalsis

c)

rugae

d)

gastric pits

145.

How many lobes does the liver have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

146.

The (a)   is the largest internal organ in the body.

147.

Which of the following is a correct combination of functions for the Pancreas?

a)

Helps in digestion and regulating blood pressure

b)

Helps in digestion and regulating blood sugar

c)

Helps in blood sugar regulation and produces insulin

d)

Helps in blood sugar regulation and produces glucagon

148.

Insulin is released in response to:

a)

low blood glucose levels

b)

low blood calcium levels

c)

high blood glucose levels

d)

high blood calcium levels

149.

What is the soft hanging projection at the back of your mouth?

a)

Uvula

b)

Salivary gland

c)

Tongue

d)

Tonsils

150.

What part of the throat is number 3?

a)

trachea

b)

esophagus

c)

larynx

d)

epiglottis

151.

Food passes through this area into the esophagus.

a)

Salivary Glands

b)

Teeth

c)

Pharynx

d)

Esophagus

152.

Identify bone "F"

a)

Temporal

b)

Parietal

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Zygomatic

153.

Identify Bone "H"

a)

Zygomatic

b)

Maxilla

c)

Sphenoid

d)

Lacrimal

154.

identify Bone "G"

a)

Maxilla

b)

Mandible

c)

Zygomatic

d)

Vomer

155.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Lacrimal
156.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Temporal
c)
Parietal
d)
Occipital 
157.
a)
Zygomatic
b)
Frontal
c)
Parietal
d)
Lacrimal
158.
The bone indicated by #1 is the 
a)
parietal bone
b)
temporal bone
c)
ethmoid bone
d)
occipital bone
159.
a)
Maxilla
b)
Frontal
c)
Mandible
d)
Sphenoid
160.
a)
Occipital
b)
Parietal
c)
Temporal
d)
Sphenoid
161.
what bone is highlighted
a)
shoulder blade
b)
Clavicle
c)
shoulder
d)
Scapula
162.
what bone is highlighted?
a)
xiphoid process
b)
Clavicle
c)
Breast bone
d)
sternum
163.
What bone is highlighted
a)
ulna
b)
radius
c)
Humerus
d)
Scapula
164.
What bone is highlighted
a)
 ulna
b)
Scapula
c)
radius
d)
arm
165.
What bones are these
a)
Carpals
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Phalanges
d)
 hand
166.
What bone is highlighted
a)
femur
b)
thigh
c)
tibia
d)
Fibula
167.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Thigh bone
b)
Tibia
c)
Fibula
d)
shin bone
168.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Fibula
b)
Tibia
c)
Shin bone
d)
leg
169.
what bone is highlighted
a)
Patella
b)
Knee cap
c)
Femur
d)
Radius
170.
Name the bone that is highlighted
a)
Calcaneous
b)
Talus
c)
Phalanges
d)
Metatarsals
171.
What section of the spine is highlighted
a)
thoracic
b)
cervical
c)
lumbar
d)
sacrum
172.
What section of the spine is highlighted
a)
sacrum
b)
cervical
c)
thoracic
d)
lumbar
173.
What section of the spine is highlighted
a)
sacrum
b)
cervical
c)
thoracic
d)
lumbar
174.
What section of the spine is highlighted
a)
sacrum
b)
coccyx
c)
thoracic
d)
lumbar
175.
a)
clavicle
b)
ribs
c)
humerus
d)
ulna
176.

Which of the following bones is the HEEL of the foot?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Cuneiform

d)

Talus

177.

Toes (and fingers) are collectively named

a)

Carpals

b)

Phalanges

c)

Tarsals

178.

Which row of phalanges is missing from both the big toe & the thumb?

a)

Proximal row

b)

Middle row

c)

Distal row

179.

Which of the tarsal bones articulates (jones) with the tibia to form the ankle joint?

a)

Calcaneus

b)

Cuboid

c)

Navicular

d)

Talus

180.

Of the three cuneiform bones, which one is closest to the midline of the body and lines up with the big toe?

a)

Lateral (3rd)

b)

Intermediate (2nd) cuneiform

c)

Medial (1st) cuneiform

181.

What are the names of the rounded projections at the distal ends of the tibia & fibula?

a)

Medial & Lateral Malleolus

b)

Medial & Lateral Styloid Processes

c)

Medial & Lateral Condyles

182.

Identify the phalanges bones colored yellow?

a)

distal phalanges

b)

middle phalanges

c)

proximal phalanges

183.

Identify C:

a)

calcaneus

b)

talus

c)

cuboid

d)

navicular

184.

How many layers do your bones have?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

none

185.

What is bone Marrow?

a)

The part of your bone that makes blood cells

b)

the bone that protects your brain

c)

the bone that protects your heart

d)

the place where two bones meet

186.
Which carpal bone can you only see by looking at the anterior surface of the wrist?
a)
capitate
b)
trapezoid
c)
pisiform
187.
Which carpal bone articulates specifically with the thumb (1st metacarpal)?
a)
pisiform
b)
lunate
c)
trapezium
d)
capitate
188.
How many carpal bones are in each wrist?
a)
1
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
189.

Which bone belongs to the distal carpal row?

a)

Hamate

b)

Lunate

c)

Pisiform

d)

Trapezium

190.

Match the carpal bones with their row location: HAMATE

a)

Proximal

b)

Distal

191.

Bone Tissues

a)

Bones

b)

Osseous Tissue

c)

Spongy Bone

d)

Compact Bone

e)

Articular Cartilage

192.

B

a)

Bones

b)

Adipose

c)

Spongy Bone

d)

Compact Bone

e)

Articular Cartilage

193.

All of the bones of the limbs (except wrist, ankle, and kneecap bones) are...

a)

Long Bone

b)

Short Bone

c)

Irregular Bone

d)

Flat Bone

194.

Generally cube-shaped bones are called

a)

Long Bone

b)

Short Bone

c)

Irregular Bone

d)

Flat Bone

195.

Identify the bone type for Carpals (wrist bones) Tarsals (ankle bones), and Patella

a)

Long Bone

b)

Short Bone

c)

Irregular Bone

d)

Flat Bone

196.

Odd shaped bones like the Vertebrae are...

a)

Long Bone

b)

Short Bone

c)

Irregular Bone

d)

Flat Bone

197.
This type of bone is porous, allowing blood vessels to move through it and containing bone marrow.
a)
Compact Bone
b)
Spongy or Cancellous Bone
198.
Where are blood cells made? 
a)
Yellow marrow 
b)
Red marrow
c)
Spongy Bone 
d)
Periosteum
199.
In adults, the substance at #6 would be 
a)
red marrow
b)
yellow marrow
c)
spongy bone
d)
clotted blood
200.
Mature bone cells that live in tiny cavities within the bone are called?
a)
osteocytes
b)
osteoblasts
c)
osteoclasts
d)
osteons
201.

What is the number of bones that compose the adult skeleton?

a)

205

b)

206

c)

208

d)

200

202.

Bone destroying cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteomasts

d)

osteoclasts

203.

Bone destroying cells:

a)

osteocytes

b)

osteoblasts

c)

osteomasts

d)

osteoclasts

204.

There is a large percentage of fat in ___________ marrow.

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Yellow

205.

What is this called?

a)

maxilla

b)

mandible

c)

hyoid

d)

thorax

206.
Hole or opening in a bone for the passage of nerves and blood vessels
a)
Foramen
b)
Fossa
c)
Condyle
d)
Facet
207.

What are the three tiny bones in the ear called?

a)

Ossicles - Hammer, Angus, Stirrup

b)

Ossicles - Hammer, Anvil, Stirrup

c)

Occulars - Hammer, Anvil, Stirrup

d)

Occulars - Hanson, Angus, Stands

208.
At one point in time, many people thought disease was caused by fate or by incorrect behavior. Following the invention of the microscope, bacteria were discovered. After this, a new theory of what causes disease arose that was known as the germ theory.  Why was the original theory modified? 
a)
It quickly became obvious that germs cause disease.
b)
The person who invented the microscope became ill.
c)
New evidence prompted revision to the original ideas.
d)
The proponents of the germ theory had political power.
209.
Joe tells Mai his theory about why sea turtles nest on the beach instead of in the ocean. He says, “The turtle eggs would sink to the bottom of the ocean, and the baby turtles would drown.” Joe says his uncle is a fisherman, who told Joe this information. Mai tells Joe that his theory is not scientific. Which explanation supports Mai’s evaluation of Joe’s theory?
a)
Joe’s idea is already a scientific law. 
b)
Joe’s idea is not supported by scientific evidence. 
c)
Joe’s idea is a good guess that can be tested by experiments. 
d)
Joe’s idea accurately explains why sea turtles nest on the beach. 
210.
Scientists discuss and debate experimental results and possible explanations in studying phenomena. Which best explains why scientists debate while searching for explanations?
a)
because debating helps scientists focus on empirical evidence, analyzing both the strengths and weaknesses of the evidence
b)
because debating helps the scientific community to present interesting and exciting science to the public
c)
because debating gives scientists an opportunity to express their feelings and opinions about the subject
d)
because every scientist wants to find an accurate explanation and disprove others’ explanations
211.
Unprotected exposure to the sun’s rays is a factor in the development of skin cancer. Which   of the following is an example of empirical evidence that supports this hypothesis?
a)
a model of a skin cell showing where DNA is in the cell
b)
a skin cancer survivor’s recollection that he had a bad sunburn as a child
c)
data demonstrating a relationship between amount of sun exposure and incidences of skin cancer
d)
an advertisement for a sun block product that claims it protects skin for ultraviolet rays
212.
Which explanation best describes why theories can change?
a)
Scientists like to make kids learn new things
b)
Textbooks need to be updated
c)
More money is needed for research
d)
Scientists are always learning new things.
213.

When trying to get accurate information it is best to...

a)

Use multiple credible sources

b)

Use one single, credible source

c)

Use as many sources as possible, even if they are unreliable

d)

Not use any sources

214.

Which of the following are good steps to take when you encounter something online that you’re unsure about:

a)

Do a quick web search to see if other credible sources of information are reporting the same thing

b)

Assume that if your info is posted online, it had to be well-checked so it's credible

c)

If there are photos, it's automatically more authentic news

d)

Post the story on social media and crowdsource an opinion

215.
Where do most teens get their news from?
a)
Newspapers
b)
TV
c)
Parents or family
d)
Social Media
216.
Why is fake news a problem?
a)
The public is getting misinformation
b)
Most people who see fake news believe it's actual news
c)
Fake news often looks like real news
d)
all of the above
217.

Which of the following are ways to be sure that you should do to best choose your news?

a)

only trust .com URLs

b)

give it time- wait to see how a story develops

c)

only get news from sources where you know the media bias

d)

check other social media accounts

218.

Reliable news is (a)   news.

219.

If the speaker is a celebrity, you can believe what they are saying is valid and true.

a)

true

b)

false

220.

In the Dark Ages, how were books produced?

a)

Books were not produced in the dark ages.

b)

Books were carved into stone tablets.

c)

Books were copied by hand by people known as monks.

d)

Books were copied by hand by women who were imprisoned.

221.

The Gutenberg printing press truly changed the world. Which answer best summarizes how the invention of the printing press leads to world change?

a)

The Gutenberg printing press allows schools to begin teaching reading.

b)

The Gutenberg printing press allows for the development of an alphabet. Before the printing press, people only wrote in hieroglyphs.

c)

The Gutenberg printing press allowed for mass production of books, leading to an explosion of ideas being shared.

d)

The Gutenberg press was used to mass-produce the bible, which led to an expansion of religious ideas.

222.

Beyond the Gutenberg printing press, there were four major revolutions in communication. The development of the Gutenberg press was the first major revolution, what is the last?

a)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of TV.

b)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of t cellular phones in the 1980s.

c)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of social media and electronic technology for idea-sharing.

d)

The last revolutionary change came with the development of live radio broadcasting.

223.
You should be skeptical of media.  Skeptical means
a)
doubtful
b)
daring
c)
deceiving
d)
delighted
224.
Which phrase MOST accurately describes the relationship between bias and media? 
a)
If a piece of media is biased, it has no value
b)
bias can be avoided easily
c)
biased media is more interesting
d)
all media has a bias
225.
Thinking that does not blindly accept arguments and conclusions. Rather, it examines assumptions, discerns hidden values, evaluates evidence, and assesses conclusions.
a)
Absolute Thinking 
b)
Genius Thinking 
c)
Critical Thinking 
d)
Awesome Thinking 

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