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Worksheets

PoB Exam Review

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 2hrs 51mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

•An unexpected happening that may result in injury, loss, or damage.

a)

accident

b)

risk

c)

Compliance

d)

injury

2.

•Fulfilling the requirements of the law.

a)

Compliance

b)

Risk

c)

OSHA

d)

Safety

3.

•The possibility of loss (failure) or gain (success).

a)

compliance

b)

risk

c)

safety

d)

freedon

4.

Required Breaks: Employers should give bathroom breaks for every _____hours worked and meal breaks for every _____ hours worked.

a)

4 and 8

b)

2 and 6

c)

3 and 7

d)

none of these

5.

•OSHA- Occupational Safe and Health Act of 1970 responsibilities are to

a)

•writes and enforces safety and health standards for businesses.

b)

•provide training about health and safety, including information on chemicals that could be harmful to your health.

c)

•make payments for medical care, if you get hurt or sick because of your job. You may also be entitled to lost wages.

d)

•provide protective clothing and equipment.

6.

•Potential events or situations that can cause injury or harm to people, property, or the environment

a)

hazards

b)

risks

c)

injuries

d)

harm

7.

points of operation, flywheels, gears, shafts, pulleys, key ways, belts, couplings, sprockets, chains, frames, controls, lighting for tools and equipment, brakes, exhausting, feeding, oiling, adjusting, maintenance, lockout/tagout, grounding, work space, location, purchasing standards.

a)

mechanical hazards

b)

kitchen hazards

c)

harmful

8.

•Any chemical found in a solid form. Examples: Dry Paint

a)

solid

b)

dust

c)

gases

d)

vapors

9.

•Dusts are tiny particles of solids. You may be exposed to dust from materials that are already in dust form, or from work processes that create dust. Examples: Bags of cement, Glass fibers, Asbestos, or Some herbicides.

a)

dusts

b)

vapors

c)

gases

10.

•Any chemical found in a liquid form at room temperature. Liquid chemicals may cause poisoning by ingestion, inhalation, or absorption. Examples: Fertilizers, Herbicides, Pesticides, Paints, or Cleaners.

a)

liquid

b)

vapors

c)

gases

d)

dusts

e)

solid

11.

•Vapors are tiny drops of liquid that are suspended in the air. Vapors from some chemicals may irritate the eyes and skin. Examples: Cleaners, Paints, or Pesticides.

a)

vapors

b)

gases

c)

solids

d)

liquid

12.

•Some chemicals are in gas form when they are at room temperature. Other solid or liquid chemicals become gases when they are heated. Examples: Aerosols, Carbon monoxide, Vehicle fumes, Grain silo gases, or Hydrogen sulfide.

a)

solids

b)

gases

c)

soolids

d)

vapors

13.

Health and safety regulations in business regarding the Worker Rights is to have

a)

An unsafe working environment

b)

Proper health and safety information, instruction, and training

c)

Not be provided personal protective equipment

14.

When workers stay whole and healthy, the direct cost-savings to businesses include:

a)

lower workers’ compensation insurance costs

b)

increased medical expenditures

c)

more money spent for overtime benefits

15.

Safety and health also make big reductions in indirect costs, due to:

a)

decreased productivity

b)

increased turnover

c)

better use of human resources

16.

Businesses evaluate the quality and source of the information they obtain to make sure the information is:

a)

random

b)

scientific

c)

technical.

d)

useful

17.

Why is it important for businesses to store information for future use?

a)

to make it accessible

b)

to interpret data

c)

to establish quality control

d)

to protect it from overuse

18.

Businesses assess their information needs to determine the type of information that will help them deal with:

a)

ethical issues.

b)

job applicants.

c)

personal relationships.

d)

specific problems.

19.

One way for businesses to obtain needed information efficiently is to:

a)

contact a competitor.

b)

schedule an interview.

c)

read a book.

d)

access a database.

20.

Which is the most efficient tool for gathering the external information that businesses need?

a)

library

b)

Internet

c)

software

d)

textbooks

21.

The reason businesses obtain information usually is to apply it in order to:

a)

determine a need.

b)

develop a database.

c)

accomplish a task.

d)

evaluate a source.

22.

Emma used her textbook to complete a study guide for her midterm exam in Spanish class. What type of source is the textbook?

a)

secondary

b)

historical

c)

primary

d)

secondary

23.

What do most businesses use to store information for future use?

a)

CD-ROMs

b)

computer systems

24.

Which is a true statement about a management information system (MIS)?

a)

It may be one part of a business's overall information management program.

b)

It is the same thing as an information management program.

25.

One of the purposes of information management is to provide businesses with the strategic information they need to:

a)

make long-term decisions.

b)

create sales presentations.

26.

Information management can be a challenge because:

a)

there is often not enough information to manage.

b)

many people do not understand what it is.

27.
Some businesses use an automatic reorder system to maintain an adequate
a)
budget for expenses
b)
work environment
c)
inventory of supplies
d)
maintenance system
28.
By purchasing just the quantity of supplies that is needed, purchasing can
a)
plan the company's cash flow
b)
provide an uninterrupted flow of supplies
c)
buy supplies at the lowest possible price
d)
minimize inventory investment
29.
Which question should be answered by the purchasing function?
a)
How can we inform customers of available merchandise?
b)
How much merchandise should we buy?
c)
How will merchandise be shipped to us?
d)
How can we protect merchandise from pilferage?
30.
Trey compares the prices offered by different vendors for the same goods and services. Which part of the purchasing process is Trey involved in?
a)
Price fixing
b)
Bid analysis
c)
Invoice payment
d)
Receipt of goods
31.
The first step in maintaining an inventory of supplies for the business is to
a)
conduct research to find vendors that sell the supplies
b)
 develop a list of supplies that the business needs
c)
compare prices among vendors
d)
organize a space to store the supplies
32.
Mark, who owns a small home-appliance store, is in the process of placing an order for 12 refrigerators, 8 stoves, and 4 portable dishwashers. Mark is purchasing the refrigerators for $674.98 each, the stoves for $493.22 each, and the portable dishwashers for $284.83 each. What is the total cost of the stoves that Mark is purchasing?
a)
$493.22
b)
$3,945.76
c)
$2,278.64
d)
$5,399.84
33.
Maintaining an inventory of supplies helps a business to
a)
establish sales goals
b)
operate efficiently
c)
locate vendors
d)
evaluate processes
34.
The primary reason that governments develop workplace health and safety regulations is to
a)
protect employees from injury and illness
b)
reduce the risk of employment discrimination
c)
ensure that employees have access to insurance
d)
prevent the breach of business information systems
35.
One way a business can reduce the risk of accidents in the workplace is by providing its employees with
a)
safety training
b)
electronic data interchange (EDI)
c)
supply manuals
d)
weight-loss programs
36.
Which processes turn economic resources into goods and services?
a)
distribution
b)
marketing
c)
promotion
d)
production
37.
Which is a example of a short-term objective?
a)
becoming president of a large corporation
b)
paying off a twenty-five-year mortgage
c)
finishing a six-week computer software course
d)
becoming fluent in a foreign language
38.
Which is a benefit of putting one's goals in writing
a)
makes the goals attainable
b)
develops one's perseverance
c)
clarifies the goals
d)
provides a challenge
39.
What is one of the most important components of the production process?
a)
new technology
b)
goods and services
c)
human resources
d)
inputs and outputs
40.
What production activity evaluates products to make sure that the products the business produces meet certain quality standards?
a)
form utility
b)
automation
c)
follow-up
d)
standardization
41.

When defending ideas objectively, you say an opinion or propose an idea, know that there are some people who will not understand it. You need to:

a)

Be prepared

b)

Thank any critics

c)

Practice

d)

Control your body language

42.

One of the 4 stages in the idea evaluation process is to have a

a)

Developing evaluation

b)

Personal evaluation

c)

Impact evaluation

d)

Outsource evaluation

43.

When communicating with a Controller

a)

Get to the point, state what's in it for them and ask straightforward questions. Communicate confidently with a clear and concise message. Avoid the clutter and fluff.

b)

Show an interest in them, listen patiently and give them a good "feel" about your message or what you're asking them to do.

c)

Avoid small talk, present facts and data, provide details and the process you'll follow to service them.

d)

Show interest in them, be upbeat, tie their personal experiences to your message

44.

While employees at all levels have good ideas for how to drive the business to greater success, management often seems to be hard of hearing. Why? Because most employees don’t know how to:

a)

articulate the problem well enough to identify its cause

b)

get the resources and support the need to resolve it

c)

ask others for ideas

d)

network for information

45.

Individuals who are able to defend their ideas objectively usually are able to provide others with?

a)

Personal opinions

b)

Emotional information

c)

Logical evidence

d)

Unrelated statistics

46.

To be able to explain and defend their ideas objectively to others, individuals usually need to have effective __________ skills.

a)

Computer

b)

Technical

c)

Verbal

d)

Reading

47.

In order to be understood on the telephone, a business's employees should always...

a)

Speak from notes

b)

Use technical terms

c)

Enunciate clearly

d)

Speak rapidly

48.

All calls coming into a business should end as pleasantly as possible in order to

a)

Get them off the phone quicly

b)

Make the best use of your time.

c)

Help you to get a good review.

d)

Leave a good last impression with callers.

49.

Which of the following is NOT a tool that people use when participating in discussions:

a)

Stating your own opinion

b)

Attacking someone else's idea

c)

Suggesting a better way to do something

d)

Sharing a truthful statement

50.

Addressing your target audience based on your research and its needs should allow you to develop a ________ that will help you to better communicate as well.

a)

Research

b)

Specificity

c)

Needs

d)

Strategy

51.

The ___ was created to provide loans for rebuilding after WWII.

a)

World Bank

b)

IMF

c)

WTO

d)

United Nations

52.

A ____ is a payment, usually a percentage of sales, for the right to use a process or company name.

a)

tariff

b)

royalty

c)

quota

d)

embargo

53.

The ___ is the international organization that settles trade disagreements and enforces free trade agreements.

a)

United Nations

b)

IMF

c)

World Bank

d)

WTO

54.

Companies use the _____ strategy when their products and marketing strategy are the same across different countries.

a)

multinational

b)

worldwide

c)

global

d)

international

55.

In a multinational company, its headquarters, or parent company, is located in a ____ country.

a)

home

b)

host

c)

main

d)

foreign

56.

A ____ strategy is used when companies change their products and marketing strategies in order to adapt to the different countries.

a)

global

b)

worldwide

c)

multinational

d)

international

57.

A ____ is an organization that does business in several different countries.

a)

domestic business

b)

free trade zone

c)

foreign business

d)

multinational company

58.

A company that sells the right to use some intangible property, such as its brand name, is using a ____.

a)

joint venture

b)

franchise

c)

licensing agreement

d)

trade agreement

59.

A ____ is an agreement between multiple businesses to share a business project.

a)

trade agreement

b)

licensing agreement

c)

franchise

d)

joint venture

60.

The ___ helps to promote economic cooperation and also maintains an orderly system of world trade and exchange rates.

a)

IMF

b)

WTO

c)

World Bank

d)

United Nations

61.

Countries use a ____ strategy when they don't change their product or marketing strategies across different countries.

a)

worldwide

b)

global

c)

multinational

d)

international

62.

Today, because the IMF maintains an orderly system of exchange rates, nations are less likely to engage in trade wars.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

The main function of the ___ is to provide much needed aid to under-developed countries.

a)

Free-Trade Agreement

b)

World Bank

c)

World Trade Organization (WTO)

d)

International Monetary Fund (IMF)

64.

A clothing company buys the right from Disney to feature Mickey Mouse on its shirts. This is an example of a ___.

a)

Franchise

b)

LIcense

c)

Joint Venture

d)

Partnership

65.

Subway enters into an agreement with a foreign company, which allows that company to use Subway's name and business processes. This is an example of a ___.

a)

Franchise

b)

LIcense

c)

Joint Venture

d)

Partnership

66.

KFC changes the spiciness of their recipes, depending on the taste preferences in each foreign country. This is an example of a ___ strategy.

a)

multinational

b)

international

c)

global

d)

domestic

67.

The different countries in which the MNC conducts business activities are called home countries.

a)

true

b)

false

68.

Ford and Toyota began working together in 2011 to build hybrid trucks. This is an example of a ___.

a)

Franchise

b)

LIcense

c)

Joint Venture

d)

Sole Proprietorship

69.

What is a business's net profit if it has $762,750 in income, $291,400 in operating expenses, and $238,930 in cost of goods?

a)

$368,730

b)

$232,420

c)

$471,350

d)

$523,820

70.

Which is a problem associated with communist command economies?

a)

There is no competition.

b)

There are high taxes.

c)

Supply and demand control what will be produced.

d)

Individuals run the risk of losing their businesses.

71.

Which would customers need to present at the time of purchase to get money taken off the purchase price of the item?

a)

discount coupons

b)

rebate certificates

c)

refund checks

d)

sales receipts

72.

A vendor is extending credit to the Jones Company in return for the Jones Company's agreement to use the vendor as the sole source of its supplies. What federal act is the vendor and the Jones Company violating?

a)

Celler-Kefauver Act

b)

Clayton Act

c)

Sherman Act

d)

Robinson-Patman Act

73.

For a business, income remaining after payment of expenses is:

a)

loss

b)

capital

c)

profit

d)

debt

74.

Countries whose governments provide citizens with free medical care, education, and other benefits often are referred to as which type of state?

a)

military

b)

capitalist

c)

consumer

d)

welfare

75.

In business terms, what is profit?

a)

a risky venture

b)

a good investment

c)

a holiday bonus

d)

a monetary reward

76.

When manufacturers give back part of the purchase price of an item to the customer, the manufacturers are engaged in:

a)

price fixing.

b)

non-price competition.

c)

clearance sales.

d)

offering rebates.

77.

Which is an example of a speculative business risk?

a)

A special promotion fails to increase sales.

b)

A supplier's shipment is lost in transit.

c)

A cashier gives unauthorized discounts to friends.

d)

A customer is injured at a business and sues the company.

78.

Who decides how goods and services will be marketed in a private enterprise economic system?

a)

legislators

b)

business people

c)

competitors

d)

consumers

79.

A business selects goods or services to sell. Which type of risk is this business using?

a)

transferring risk

b)

controlling risk

c)

bypassing risk

d)

avoiding risk

80.

In a private enterprise economic system, the interaction of supply and demand primarily determines:

a)

government regulation.

b)

economic choices.

c)

the extent of pollution.

d)

product prices.

81.

A major characteristic of a market economy is which type of ownership of property?

a)

monopolistic

b)

limited

c)

government

d)

private

82.

The basic role of the United States government is to:

a)

limit business startups.

b)

maintain control of prices.

c)

increase production.

d)

protect U.S. citizens.

83.

Which represents a natural risk for the owner of a delivery service?

a)

snowstorm

b)

accident

c)

rising prices

d)

government intervention

84.

small-business owner whose business is a sole proprietorship is planning to “go global.” What method for going global would be best to recommend to the small-business owner?

a)

Start by hiring an export management company.

b)

Start by building facilities in the countries of interest.

c)

Start by merging with a foreign business that can sell your products.

d)

Start by renting facilities in the countries of interest and hiring foreign employees

85.

Which is a factor that affects the business environment?

a)

industry competition

b)

staff organization

c)

information management

d)

conflict negotiation

86.

The owner of a small company decides to stock a new product. Which business activity should the owner use to inform potential customers about the new product?

a)

finance

b)

marketing

c)

management

d)

production

87.

The two main divisions of the trade industry are:

a)

manufacturers and wholesalers.

b)

wholesalers and retailers.

c)

producers and retailers.

d)

wholesalers and producers.

88.

Three primary factors that affect the organizational structure of a business include interpersonal relationships, tasks, and:

a)

injunction

b)

authority

c)

initiative

d)

attrition

89.

Which factor has aided the most in creating a global business environment?

a)

technology

b)

government

c)

cultural change

d)

exchange rate

90.

A U.S. company would decide to offer its products in other countries as a reason to:

a)

subsidize developing countries.

b)

sell obsolete, outdated products.

c)

expand to new, untapped markets

d)

provide jobs to people in other countries.

91.

A group of individuals wants to open a museum that will display items from early settlers of the area. The group will charge just enough admission to pay the expenses of operating the museum. Will the museum be a business?

a)

No, the museum will not be considered a business.

b)

No, the museum will be a charitable institution.

c)

Yes, the museum will be a not-for-profit business.

d)

Yes, the museum will be a for-profit business.

92.

Kim invests heavily in a marketing campaign to stimulate sales for her company. What type of management process is this an example of?

a)

competitive aggression

b)

innovative management

c)

organizational learning

d)

proactive management

93.

Which situation would most likely indicate the need to adapt to changes in the business environment?

a)

The supply of materials used in manufacturing a product has decreased.

b)

The number of the business's competitors has decreased.

c)

The demand for the product is stable.

d)

The business has experienced little employee turnover during the past year.

94.

Business ethics involve considering issues about what is:

a)

positive and negative.

b)

legal and illegal.

c)

safe and unsafe.

d)

right and wrong.

95.

One reason why many small businesses develop an organizational design that requires a board of directors is because a board usually:

a)

provides experience that increases the business's credibility.

b)

assumes all legal responsibility for the business's actions.

c)

helps with the day-to-day operations of the business.

d)

evaluates the performance of the business's employees.

96.

Which affects the business environment because it provides the most options for consumers?

a)

command economy

b)

international sanctions

c)

monopoly

d)

global competition

97.

Businesses that successfully adapt to current market situations often realize that:

a)

cutting costs is important.

b)

more financing is necessary.

c)

diversification is the key.

d)

change is an opportunity.

98.

Which is an example of an economic factor that affects the business environment?

a)

business cycle

b)

employee morale

c)

management style

d)

long-term goals

99.

Which is an example of ethical business behavior?

a)

testing products to ensure they are safe to use

b)

accepting a bribe from a prominent customer

c)

using advertisements to confuse customers

d)

disclosing partial information about products

100.

If a business is not concerned about social responsibility, it is likely to:

a)

become solvent.

b)

prosper.

c)

grow.

d)

be a failure.

101.

A(n) ___ is a market in which members do away with duties and other trade barriers.

a)

embargo

b)

free trade agreement

c)

quota

d)

common market

102.

The accepted behaviors, customs, and values of a society are known as its ____.

a)

characteristics

b)

imports

c)

quota

d)

culture

103.

Countries with few natural resources must depend on ____.

a)

exports

b)

imports

c)

tariffs

d)

quotas

104.

A(n) ____ is a limit on the quantity of a product that may be imported or exported within a given period.

a)

price

b)

embargo

c)

quota

d)

tariff

105.

____ are restrictions to free trade.

a)

Common markets

b)

Free trade zones

c)

Trade barriers

d)

Free trade agreements

106.

A nation's transportation, communication, and utility systems is known as ____.

a)

markets

b)

infrastructure

c)

embargoes

d)

quotas

107.

Tariffs ___ the price for imported products.

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

have no effect on

d)

all of the above

108.

A(n) ____ is a tax that a government places on certain imported products.

a)

tariff

b)

embargo

c)

price

d)

quota

109.

A ___ is a selected area where products can be imported duty-free and then stored, assembled, and/or used in manufacturing.

a)

free trade agreement

b)

free trade zone

c)

foreign market

d)

common market

110.

A country with more developed infrastructure is _____ equipped for international business than a country with less developed infrastructure.

a)

less

b)

better

c)

equally as

d)

none of the above

111.

A country that wishes to expand international trade activities would most likely use _____.

a)

a quota

b)

a tariff

c)

a common market

d)

an embargo

112.

A(n) _____ is an official ban on trade or other commercial activity with a particular country.

a)

tariff

b)

embargo

c)

common market

d)

quota

113.

____ refers to shielding or defending a country's own domestic industries by restricting imported goods from other countries.

a)

Trade balance

b)

Protectionism

c)

Free-trade zone

d)

Free-trade market

114.

The key factors that affect a country's level of economic development are: (select 3)

a)

culture

b)

technology

c)

agricultural dependency

d)

embargo

e)

literacy level

115.

The most common political and legal factors that affect international business activities include: (select 3)

a)

the stability of the government

b)

income tax issues

c)

government policies toward business

d)

cultural influences

e)

the type of government

116.

In a(n) ____, member countries form a pact in which they agree to remove duties, also called import taxes, and trade barriers on products traded among them.

a)

foreign market

b)

embargo

c)

quota

d)

free trade agreement

117.

A country that has a good education system is usually able to provide higher quality goods and services to its citizens.

a)

true

b)

false

118.

Trying to best plan how limited economic resources will satisfy unlimited wants and needs is known as _____.

a)

Balance of Trade

b)

Balance of Payments

c)

Economic Factors

d)

The Basic Economic Problem

119.

Tariffs tend to ____ imported products.

a)

increase the number of

b)

decrease the number of

c)

have little impact on the number of

120.

Countries often use formal trade barriers as a means of expressing displeasure with a foreign country's policies or actions.

a)

true

b)

false

121.

A farmer has 1,000 acres. He decides to plant apple trees on 800 acres and raise cows on the remaining 200 acres. If he wanted to raise more cows, he would have to reduce the amount of land allotted to growing apples. This is an example of:

a)

utility

b)

opportunity cost

122.

Which occurs when the supply of individuals who are able and willing to work diminishes?

a)

Human resources become limited.

b)

Capital goods become unlimited.

123.

Which group of words best describes wants?

a)

limited, changing, and compensating

b)

unlimited, changing, and competing

124.

A local dry cleaner that also launders and presses shirts is selling:

a)

specialty goods

b)

consumer services

125.

The desire for which item(s) would be considered a noneconomic want?

a)

a walk

b)

nutritious food

126.

Adrian and Bailey own a salon. Adrian is a nail technician and Bailey is a cosmetologist. Adrian gives Bailey a pedicure. Bailey gives Adrian a haircut. They do not pay money for the services provided. What does this demonstrate?

a)

exchange

b)

scarcity

127.

Which is a natural resource that can be renewed through people's efforts?

a)

Trees

b)

Water

128.

The process of deciding which goods and services will be purchased or provided so that the most satisfaction can be obtained is called economizing.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Scarcity is

a)

Unlimited wants with limited resources

b)

Limited wants with unlimited resources

130.

Which is an example of an economic service?

a)

car stereo

b)

concert ticket

131.

On an Income State if the Total Expenses were greater than the Cost of the Goods Sold the outcome would be a

a)

Net Income

b)

Revenue

c)

Net Loss

d)

Net Profit

132.

The role of finance in business often involves

a)

monitoring expenses.

b)

paying employees.

c)

buying supplies.

d)

obtaining funds.

133.

What is one of the main reasons why businesses need to keep accurate accounting records?

a)

to follow procedures

b)

to control expenses

c)

to eliminate risks

d)

to regulate taxes

134.

When businesses invest funds to expand, they are involved in the process of:

a)

selling.

b)

depreciation.

c)

finance.

d)

captialism.

135.

Which of the following is a requirement for a good accounting system:

a)

It should be updated annually.

b)

It should provides needed information quickly.

c)

It should eliminate the need for an accountant.

d)

It should be replaced every two or three years.

136.

Which of the following groups makes regular use of a business's managerial accounting information:

a)

Managers

b)

Creditors

c)

Customers

d)

Investors

137.

The overall purpose of accounting is to

a)

maintain accurate reports

b)

keep track of sales

c)

compile the business's expenses

d)

control the finances of the business.

138.

A bank denies a business owner's application for credit saying, "We feel that you would be un-able to make the monthly payments because of your other debts." What financial report did the bank review?

a)

Budget

b)

Balance sheet

c)

Income statement

d)

Operating budget

139.

What accounting record would summarize a business's profit or loss for a previous year?

a)

Bank statement

b)

Inventory record

c)

Income statement

d)

Balance sheet

140.

Which of the following presents the first three steps in the accounting cycle in the correct order:

a)

Post, analyze, and journalize

b)

Analyze, post, and journalize

c)

Analyze, journalize, and post

d)

Post, journalize, and analyze

141.

Checks, receipts, invoices, and purchase orders are examples of

a)

financial statements.

b)

department ledgers.

c)

source documents.

d)

accounting standards.

142.

For an accounting system to be useful to the business, the accounting information it contains must be

a)

accurate and up to date.

b)

approved b the chief executive officer.

c)

posted by an accountant.

d)

recorded using the accrual method.

143.

Which of the following is an Asset?

a)

Rent Payable

b)

Cash

c)

Capital

d)

Bank Loan

144.

A business has $57,500 in Liabilities and $20,000 in Owner's Equity, how much are there in Assets?

a)

$35,500

b)

$77,500

c)

$7,500

d)

$82, 500

145.

All monies owed to a firm by its customers are

a)

Income

b)

Net Worth

c)

Accounts Receivable

d)

Accounts Payable

146.

A series of sequential steps taken by purchasing specialists to buy goods and services for a business.

a)

Purchasing

b)

Purchase Order

c)

Purchasing Process

d)

The nature and scope of purchasing

147.

During the Purchasing Cycle you should Telephone minimum of______ suppliers to obtain prices to supply goods and/or services using an identical specification, terms, and conditions.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

148.

The first step in maintaining an inventory of supplies for the business is to:

a)

conduct research to find vendors that sell the supplies.

b)

develop a list of supplies that the business needs.

c)

compare prices among vendors.

d)

organize a space to store the supplies.

149.

Mark, who owns a small home-appliance store, is in the process of placing an order for 12 refrigerators, 8 stoves, and 4 portable dishwashers. Mark is purchasing the refrigerators for $674.98 each, the stoves for $493.22 each, and the portable dishwashers for $284.83 each. What is the TOTAL cost of the stoves that Mark is purchasing?

a)

$493.22

b)

$3945.76

c)

$2278.64

d)

$5399.84

150.

Maintaining an inventory of supplies helps a business to:

a)

establish sales goals

b)

operate efficiently

c)

locate vendors

d)

evaluate processes

151.

Which question should be answered by the purchasing function?

a)

How can we inform customers of available merchandise?

b)

How much merchandise should we buy?

c)

How will merchandise be shipped to us?

d)

How can we protect merchandise from pilferage?

152.

By purchasing just the quantity of supplies that is needed, purchasing can:

a)

plan the company's cash flow.

b)

provide an uninterrupted flow of supplies

c)

buy supplies at the lowest possible price.

d)

minimize inventory investment.

153.

Trey compares the prices offered by different vendors for the same goods and services. Which part of the purchasing process is Trey involved in?

a)

price fixing

b)

bid analysis

c)

invoice payment

d)

receipt of goods

154.

Some businesses use an automatic reorder system to maintain an adequate:

a)

budget for expenses

b)

work environment

c)

inventory of supplies

d)

maintenance system

155.

The buying of goods and services for a business.

a)

Purchasing

b)

Bid Analysis

156.

13. A business that writes letters to customers to confirm their orders or requests should make sure that the letters contain

a)

A. product ratings and grades.

b)

B. all the necessary information.

c)

C. exchange rates.

d)

D. a map of all business locations.

157.

It is easier for employees to develop positive customer/client relations if employees understand that each customer is:

a)

A. a possible problem.

b)

B. a unique individual.

c)

C. in a hurry.

d)

D. like most others.

158.

Google has a relaxed atmosphere and believes that creativity comes from a stress-free workplace. What type of person is that company looking to hire?

a)

Analyzer

b)

Collaborator

c)

Controller

d)

Strategic

159.

When Dawn answered the front desk telephone at her property, a female caller who sounded very upset said, "My daughter, Susan Smith, is staying at your hotel, and I need to reach her immediately because of a family emergency. Would you please give me her room number?" Dawn quickly answered, "Ms. Smith is in room 224. I will connect you." What did Dawn do wrong?

a)

A. She forgot to listen attentively to the caller.

b)

B. She did not take written notes about the call.

c)

C. She gave out a guest's room number.

d)

D. She did not answer the caller with enough courtesy.

160.

When Steven asks questions in an open-minded way, he avoids:

a)

A. stating his own opinion.

b)

B. attacking someone else's idea.

c)

C. suggesting a better way to do something.

d)

D. mentioning the truth.

161.

All calls coming into a business should end as pleasantly as possible in order to:

a)

A. provide callers with accurate information.

b)

B. make the best use of an employee's time.

c)

C. help an employee get a good review.

d)

D. leave a good lasting impression with callers.

162.

Which is not a tool that people use when participating in discussions?

a)

A. Pointing out missing information

b)

B. Sharing a personal experience

c)

C. Building on someone else's comment

d)

D. Helping the group summarize what has been said

163.

To be able to explain and defend their ideas objectively to others, individuals usually need to have which type of effective skills?

a)

A. computer

b)

B. technical

c)

C. verbal

d)

D. reading

164.

In order to be understood on the telephone, a business's employees should always:

a)

A. speak from notes.

b)

B. use technical terminology.

c)

C. enunciate clearly.

d)

D. speak rapidly.

165.

What type of communication style is usually appropriate for evaluation or counseling interviews with employees?

a)

A. Casual

b)

B. Formal

c)

C. Routine

d)

D. Technical

166.

Which is an example of a textual graphic that is used in a business report?

a)

A. Pie chart

b)

B. Pictograph

c)

C. Map

d)

D. Flowchart

167.

In history class, Dr. Smith is going over a timeline of the events that led up to World War II. Which note-taking strategy would work best?

a)

A. Charting

b)

B. Cornell Notes

c)

C. Mapping

d)

D. Outlining

168.

Jane had to write a letter of termination for one of her employees. Which aspect of business written communication is she using?

a)

A. Indirect

b)

B. Information

c)

C. Negative

d)

D. Persuasive

169.

Terry is sending a letter to one of his most important clients about upcoming investment opportunities. He wants to make sure that he has included all of the important information that his client will need to make an investment decision. What professional characteristic is Terry concerned with?

a)

A. Clear

b)

B. Concise

c)

C. Complete

d)

D. Correct

170.

The project manager sent a memo to her/his team outlining the project goals and task items to achieve the goals. Which aspect of business written communication is being used?

a)

A. Indirect

b)

B. Information

c)

C. Persuasive

d)

D. Results oriented

171.

The accounting department at the shoe store has not received payment from a customer. Which would be the best form of business communication to use in this situation?

a)

A. Conversation in person

b)

B. Letter

c)

C. Memo

d)

D. Phone

172.

Which is a characteristic of good customer service?

a)

A. Asking many questions

b)

B. Offending people

c)

C. Offering quality service

d)

D. Taking a long time to reply

173.

Which of the following is a reason why it is important to organize information before preparing a business report:

a)

A. To investigate the cause of the problem

b)

B. To understand the purpose of the report

c)

C. To identify the target audience

d)

D. To arrange findings in a logical manner

174.

When organizing information to present in a business report, it is effective to

a)

A. remain objective.

b)

B. interpret the data.

c)

C. develop an outline.

d)

D. determine the purpose.

175.

Why is it often important to take notes during meetings or presentations?

a)

A. Audience needs something to do.

b)

B. Speaker is difficult to understand.

c)

C. Information will be needed later.

d)

D. Writing keeps the mind focused.

176.

As Kevin edits a professional report, he is not sure whether to italicize or underscore a book title. To obtain the correct information, Kevin should

a)

A. refer to the appropriate publisher's style manual.

b)

B. ask his coworker for advice.

c)

C. look up the information in a current dictionary.

d)

D. identify the readers' preferences.

177.

Which of the following is a formatting characteristic of a full-block business letter:

a)

A. Double-spacing within the paragraph

b)

B. No paragraph indents

c)

C. Indented first paragraph

d)

D. All paragraphs use right justification.

178.

The following information appears at the end of all of Molly's outgoing e-mails:

Molly S. Glenn; Assistant Manager; The Creekside Café; 4422 Clear Creek Road, Danville, TN 44882; (774) 555-2047; msglenn@creeksidecafe.com.

This information is Molly's e-mail:

a)

A. carbon copy.

b)

B. attachment.

c)

C. signature.

d)

D. etiquette.

179.

When businesses need to formalize the information provided to employees, customers, or other businesses, they often use __________ communication.

a)

A. upward

b)

B. lateral

c)

C. written

d)

D. Verbal

180.

It is easier for employees to develop positive customer/client relations if employees understand that each customer is

a)

A. a possible problem.

b)

B. a unique individual.

c)

C. in a hurry.

d)

D. like most others.

181.

The primary reason the business benefits when salespersons practice good customer relations is that it

a)

A. develops repeat customers.

b)

B. prevents customer objections

c)

C. promotes quality service.

d)

D. segments the business's market.

182.

The primary reason customers give for not returning to a business is a lack of

a)

A. courtesy from salespeople.

b)

B. available parking.

c)

C. advertised merchandise.

d)

D. customer-service personnel.

183.

What marketing activity is taking place when a car dealership promotes their newest vehicle on the radio?

a)

communicating with customers

b)

finding out about customers

c)

offering the products customers want

d)

researching a firm's competitors

184.

According to the marketing concept, which option demonstrates customer orientation?

a)

researching a firm's competitors

b)

convincing a buyer to buy

c)

advertising the features of a product

d)

finding out what a buyer wants

185.

Which would probably result if a business reduced its marketing costs?

a)

increased costs of production

b)

decreased variety of consumer goods

c)

increased consumer awareness of goods and services

d)

decreased need for customer contact with businesses

186.

Each year, more than 500,000 people watch the Soccer World Cup sponsored by Adidas. What is being marketed by Adidas?

a)

ideas

b)

places

c)

goods

d)

services

187.

Marketing links producers to

a)

customers.

b)

marketers.

c)

retailers.

d)

distributors.

188.

Marketing is described as creating

a)

exchanges.

b)

needs.

c)

advertisements.

d)

gaps.

189.

Which of the following is a marketing activity:

a)

Communicating with customers

b)

Leading a project team

c)

Balancing customer needs with wants

d)

Lowering operational expenses

190.

In an overall sense, where does marketing occur?

a)

Wherever customers are

b)

Wherever businesses are

c)

Wherever stores are

d)

Wherever advertisements are

191.

In the marketing concept, whose point of view matters most?

a)

Buyer’s

b)

Seller’s

c)

Marketer’s

d)

Planner’s

192.

The Scott Company decided to sell stock to raise capital. Under what form of business organization does the company operate?

a)

corporation

b)

cooperative

c)

partnership

d)

proprietorship

193.

A type of business ownership in which one or more of the owners does not have full liability is called a:

a)

general partnership.

b)

limited partnership.

c)

sole proprietorship

d)

service organization.

194.

A characteristic of a sole proprietorship is that the owner:

a)

receives all the profit.

b)

transfers all the risk.

c)

has access to unlimited funds.

d)

delegates all functions.

195.

Which type of ownership gives a business an exclusive territory, training and support during start up, and a competitive edge in the market? (Ex: Chick-Fil-A)

a)

franchise

b)

corporation

c)

partnership

d)

sole proprietorship

196.

José is opening a fish tank cleaning service. He has potential investors, but decides he would prefer to structure the business ownership so that he is ultimately responsible for the success or failure of the business. Which type of business ownership should José select?

a)

sole proprietorship

b)

cooperative

c)

corporation

d)

partnership

197.

“To form my business, I used all of my savings and borrowed from the bank, and I’m personally liable for all of the debts.” This is an example of which of the following forms of business ownership:

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Corporation

c)

Partnership

d)

Cooperative

198.

The American Red Cross is an example of a(n) ___________ corporation.

a)

nonprofit

b)

hybrid

c)

“S”

d)

“C”

199.

The Scott Company decided to sell stock to raise capital. Under what form of business organization does the company operate?

a)

corporation

b)

partnership

c)

cooperative

d)

proprietorship

200.

John says that his job duties include planning what will be done, organizing and directing workers, and solving problems related to worker productivity. His job can best be described as a:

a)

manager.

b)

bookkeeper.

c)

broker.

d)

cashier.

201.

A manager who helps an employee count the money in a cash drawer and prepare a bank deposit is demonstrating:

a)

technical skills.

b)

creativity.

c)

aggressive behavior.

d)

natural talent.

202.

Which do managers often set in order to control the work effort?

a)

job standards

b)

hiring objectives

c)

expense budgets

d)

diversity quotas

203.

A foreman spends time connecting with his workers on an interpersonal level. This involves communicating in ways that motivate and inspire employees toward a higher level of productivity. This task would fall under which function of management?

a)

directing

b)

controlling

c)

organizing

d)

planning

204.

Melissa, a marketing manager for an amusement park, has a goal of increasing sales for the month of October. Melissa needs to first spend time mapping out the necessary steps she and her team of sales representatives must take so that they can increase their sales numbers. Which managerial function is she performing?

a)

planning

b)

controlling

c)

organizing

d)

staffing

205.

Which of the following is the main purpose of management:

a)

To obtain the needed resources

b)

To reach a specific level of productivity

c)

To accomplish the business’s goals

d)

To create a pleasant working atmosphere

206.

Which of the following is an important function of mid-level management:

a)

To serve as a link between top-level and first-line management

b)

To prepare workers’ daily schedules

c)

To make sure projects meet deadlines

d)

To establish long-term objectives for the company

207.

Which of the following are examples of top-level management job titles:

a)

President, senior vice president, and chief executive officer

b)

Floor supervisor, area supervisor, and section manager

c)

Collections supervisor, crew chief, and production supervisor

d)

District manager, department head, and regional sales manager

208.

What must managers be able to do if they want employees to understand the business’s goals and be productive?

a)

Communicate clearly.

b)

Listen carefully.

c)

Ask questions.

d)

Obtain feedback.