wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Semester 1 Exam Practice - Part 2

Total questions: 19

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following statements best describes the Semiconservative model of DNA replication?

a)

one-half of the molecules with two parental strands and one-half of the molecules with two new strands

b)

all molecules with interspersed parental and new segments

c)

all molecules with two new strands

d)

all molecules with one parental and one new strand

2.

Refer to the codon charts attached. A strand of messenger RNA is attached to a ribosome and is directing protein synthesis. The next exposed codon of this messenger RNA has the code GAA. It is most likely to bond with a transfer RNA that has which amino acid?

a)

arginine

b)

aspartic acid

c)

glutamic acid

d)

lysine

3.

Mutations in an organism's DNA may be either beneficial or harmful. Which of the following statements best describes the concept of DNA mutation?

 

 

a)

DNA mutation is an alteration in DNA replication that always results in phenotypic change. Mutations are usually due to radiation or other environmental factors.

b)

DNA mutation is a change in the way that genes reproduce themselves, which may or may not affect phenotypic characteristics. Mutations are usually due to environmental factors or heredity.

c)

DNA mutation is a change in the gene sequence, which sometimes results in phenotypic change. Mutations can be due to environmental factors, heredity, or a mistake in DNA replication.

d)

DNA mutation is an alteration in the nucleus of a cell that makes certain genes unable to be copied, and they result in phenotypic change. Mutations are usually due to viruses and environmental.

4.

A farmer mates a rooster that is purebred for black feathers (BB) with a hen that is purebred for white feathers (bb). Which result would show that feather color is inherited in a pattern of codominance in this strain of chickens?

a)

All of the offspring have black feathers.

b)

All of the offspring have both black and white feathers.

c)

Three fourths of the offspring have black feathers, and one fourth have white feathers.

d)

One half of the offspring have both black and white feathers, and one half have only black feathers.

5.

Alleles for the A and B blood are codominant. Type O is a recessive trait. Which set of parents can most likely produce a child with type O blood?

a)

one parent with type AB blood, and the other parent with type A blood

b)

one parent with type AB blood and the other parent with type O blood

c)

one parent with heterozygous type A blood, and the other parent with heterozygous type B blood

d)

one parent with homozygous type A blood, and the other parent with homozygous type B blood

6.

In certain breeds of dogs, deafness is due to a recessive allele (d) of a particular gene, and normal hearing is due to its dominant allele (D). What percentage of the offspring of a normal heterozygous dog and a deaf dog would be expected to have normal hearing?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

7.

This diagram below shows a diploid cell with two pairs of homologous chromosomes. Due to independent assortment, what is the possible genetic make-up of gametes produced by this organism?

a)

SsTt

b)

Ss, Tt

c)

S, s, T, t

d)

ST, St, sT, st

8.

The Punnett square in the image shows a cross between two pea plants. Both are heterozygous for seed texture and seed color. What is the probability an offspring will have green seed color and rough seed texture

a)

3/16

b)

4/16

c)

9/16

d)

12/16

9.

The diagram below shows a pedigree for a recessive genetic disorder. What is the genotype of individual 7?

a)

XHXH

b)

XHXh

c)

XHY

d)

XhY

10.

Spermatogenesis is the process by which sperm develop and mature. Which of the following sequences correctly describes the anatomical path of spermatozoa from formation to ejaculation?

a)

testes, vas deferens, prostate, urethra

b)

prostate, vas deferens, testes, urethra

c)

testes, urethra, prostate, vas deferens

d)

prostate, urethra, testes, vas deferens

11.

Look at the diagram of the female reproductive system. What is the function of the structure represented by number 4?

a)

egg production

b)

fertilization occurs here

c)

provides nourishment for fetus

d)

embryo implantation and growth

12.

Which of the following sequences correctly describes prenatal development?

a)

blastocyst implants in uterus, zygote forms, heart begins beating, lungs can breathe air, sex organs become visible

b)

blastocyst implants in the uterus, zygote forms, heart begins beating, sex organs become visible, lungs can breathe air

c)

zygote forms, blastocyst implants in the uterus, heart begins beating, sex organs become visible, lungs can breathe air

d)

zygote forms, blastocyst implants in the uterus, sex organs become visible, heart begins beating, lungs can breathe air

13.

In the male reproductive system, gametes are produced in the testicles. Which of the following structures of the female reproductive system has the same function as the testicles?

a)

cervix

b)

fallopian tubes

c)

ovaries

d)

uterus

14.

Cancer is the name given to a collection of related diseases. In all types of cancer, some of the body's cells begin to divide without stopping and can spread into surrounding tissues. Cancerous tumors that are malignant can spread into, or invade, nearby tissues. Unlike malignant tumors, benign tumors do not spread into, or invade, nearby tissues. Which of the following phrases best describes cancer?

a)

absence of cyclins in the DNA

b)

uncontrolled cell growth during the cell cycle

c)

multiple gene mutations on a chromosome of DNA

d)

presence of genetic defects caused by hereditary disorders

15.

In the cell cycle diagram below, which of the following represents the correct order of the M phase (mitosis)?

a)

a, d, b, c

b)

c, d, b, a

c)

b, a, d, c

d)

d, a b c

16.

The image shows homologous chromosomes during meiosis. Which of the following correctly identifies the phase and the process illustrated?

a)

Prophase I; mutation on the chromosome

b)

Prophase I; crossing-over of genetic material between chromosomes

c)

Prophase II; mutation on the chromosomes

d)

Prophase II; crossing-over of genetic material between chromosomes

17.

The diagram represents a yeast cell that is in the process of budding, a form of asexual reproduction. Which statement best describes the outcome of this process?

a)

The bud will develop into a zygote.

b)

The two cells that result will have identical DNA.

c)

The bud will start to divide by the process of meiotic cell division.

d)

The two cells that result will each contain half the species number of chromosomes.

18.

Mitosis and meiosis are both processes involved in reproduction. Which statement correctly compares mitosis and meiosis?

a)

Mitosis and meiosis both produce genetic variation within their daughter cells.

b)

Mitosis results in the production of two genetically identical diploid cells and meiosis produces four haploid cells.

c)

Mitosis results in the production of two genetically identical diploid cells and meiosis produces four genetically identical haploid cells.

d)

Mitosis and meiosis are both divided into only four distinct phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and interphase.

19.

Which of the following indicates that all organisms can be traced back to a common ancestry?

a)

The genetic code consists of nucleotides in triplet codes.

b)

Almost all genes in microorganisms, plants, and animals have the same codons.

c)

Microorganisms contain codons and anticodons.

d)

There are a few organisms that respond differently to the start and stop signals in the genetic code.