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Bio (Anatomy, Genetics, Movement)

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 9hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Label direction A.

a)

Caudal

b)

Rostral

c)

Ventral

d)

Dorsal

2.

Label direction B.

a)

Dorsal

b)

Ventral

c)

Caudal

d)

Rostral

3.

Label direction C.

a)

Caudal

b)

Ventral

c)

Rostral

d)

Dorsal

4.

Label direction D.

a)

Ventral

b)

Caudal

c)

Dorsal

d)

Rostral

5.

Along this axis, what is B. referred to as?

a)

Medial

b)

Lateral

c)

Coronal

d)

Sagittal

6.

Along this axis, what is A. referred to as?

a)

Lateral

b)

Medial

c)

Sagittal

d)

Coronal

7.

Label the plane of section a.

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Horizontal plane

c)

Coronal plane

8.

Label the plane of section b.

a)

Sagittal plane

b)

Horizontal plane

c)

Coronal plane

9.

Label A.

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

10.

Label B.

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

11.

Label B.

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

12.

Label C.

a)

Frontal

b)

Parietal

c)

Temporal

d)

Occipital

13.

What is the Meninges?

a)

Membrane that surround the brain and spinal cord

b)

Membrane that surrounds the brain

c)

Skin that surrounds the skull

d)

Matter between the skull and skin of the head

14.

What is Meningitis?

a)

Inflammation of the meninges

b)

Swelling of the brain

c)

Infection of the brain's ventricles

d)

Infection the cerebrospinal fluid

15.

What is the word for an infection of the brain?

a)

Encephalitis

b)

Meningitis

c)

Multiple sclerosis

d)

Parkinson's disease

16.

The brain is Convoluted due to the presence of _____ & _____ on the surface

a)

Sulci & Gyri

b)

Gulci & Syri

c)

Central Sulcus & Lateral Fissure

d)

Lobes & Cortices

17.

What separates the temporal lobe from the frontal lobe?

a)

Lateral fissure

b)

Central sulcus

c)

Central gyrus

d)

Parietal lobe

18.

What separates the parietal lobe from the frontal lobe?

a)

Lateral fissure

b)

Central sulcus

c)

Central gyrus

d)

Parietal lobe

19.

Label artery A.

a)

Anterior cerebral artery

b)

Posterior cerebral artery

c)

Middle cerebral artery

20.

Label artery B.

a)

Anterior cerebral artery

b)

Posterior cerebral artery

c)

Middle cerebral artery

21.

Label artery C.

a)

Anterior cerebral artery

b)

Posterior cerebral artery

c)

Middle cerebral artery

22.

What is the function of the Corpus Callosum?

a)

To connect the two hemispheres of the brain

b)

Maintenance of balance and posture

c)

Control of gross motor movements

d)

Integration and selection of voluntary movements

23.

How many ventricles are found in the brain?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

e)

Five

24.

What is the function of Cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

Source of electrolytes

b)

Waste removal

c)

Cushions the brain

d)

Reservoir of hormones and nutrition

25.

The Medulla, Pons, Cerebellum and Reticular Formation are considered parts of the....

a)

Hindbrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Telencephalon

26.

What is the function of the Medulla?

a)

 Vital reflexes, breathing, heart rate, vomiting coughing, sneezing

b)

Responsible for respiration, taste and sleep

c)

 Motor movement, balance, fine movements, shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli

d)

Arousal, attention, sleep, awareness

27.

What is the function of cranial nerves in the medulla?

a)

Allow the medulla to control sensations from the head and muscle movements in the head

b)

Produces dopamine and plans movement

c)

Relay movement and sensation to the cerebellum

d)

 Relay centre for all sensory information (except Olfactory)

28.

What is the function of the Pons?

a)

Relays movement and sensation to the cerebellum. Dorsal portion is responsible for respiration, taste and sleep

b)

Motor movement, balance, fine movements, shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli

c)

Arousal, attention, sleep and awareness

29.

What is the function of the Reticular Formation?

a)

Associated with sleep– wake behaviour and behavioural arousal

b)

Shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli

c)

Contains nuclei for cranial nerves

30.

What is in charge of motor movement, balance, fine movements, shifting attention between auditory and visual stimuli?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Medulla

c)

Pons

d)

Reticular formation

31.

The Tectum, Tegmentum, Superior & Inferior Colliculus and Substantia Nigra are found in what part of the brain?

a)

Hindbrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Telencephalon

32.

What is the roof of the Midbrain known as?

a)

Tectum

b)

Tegmentum

c)

Superior Collicus

d)

Substantia nigra

33.

While both are important for sensory processing—the Inferior Colliculus is specialised for a.)_____ and the Superior Colliculus for b.)_____

a)

Inferior = Hearing

Superior = Vision

b)

Inferior = Vision

Superior = Hearing

c)

Inferior = Smell

Superior = Touch

34.

What is the function of the Tegmentum?

a)

Contains nuclei for cranial nerves and part of the Reticular Formation

b)

Gives rise to the dopamine containing pathways facilitating readiness for movement

c)

Processes sensory information

35.

What is the function of Substantia Nigra?

a)

Gives rise to the dopamine containing pathways facilitating readiness for movement

b)

Processes sensory information

c)

Is the roof of the midbrain

36.

Thalamus, Hypothalamus, Pineal gland and Pituitary gland form part of which brain division?

a)

Hindbrain

b)

Midbrain

c)

Diencephalon

d)

Telencephalon

37.

What is the function of the Thalamus?

a)

Relay centre for all sensory information (except olfactory) to cerebrum

b)

Acts as an active gatekeeper, preventing or enhancing sensory experience

c)

Releases ADH and Oxytocin

d)

Produces Melatonin, involved in sleep-wake cycle

38.

What is the function of the Hypothalamus?

a)

Hunger, thirst and body temperature

b)

Conveys messages to the pituitary gland, altering its release of hormones

c)

Acts as an active gatekeeper, preventing or enhancing sensory experience

d)

Produces Melatonin, involved in sleep-wake cycle

39.

What is responsible for the release of ADH and Oxytocin?

a)

Posterior Pituitary Gland

b)

Anterior Pituitary Gland

c)

Pineal Gland

d)

Sex Organs

40.

What produces Melatonin and is involved in the sleep-wake cycle?

a)

Pituitary Gland

b)

Pineal Gland

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Amygdala

41.

The Cerebral Cortex and Basal Ganglia are part of which brain division?

a)

Telencephalon

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Midbrain

d)

Hindbrain

42.

Which best describes the Basal Ganglia?

a)

Involved in planning of motor movement, memory and expression, important for attention and language planning

b)

 Interlinked structures that form a border around the brainstem, associated with motivation and emotions

c)

Has role in fear and anxiety

43.

Which is found in the Basal Ganglia?

a)

Caudate Nucleus

b)

Globus Pallidus

c)

Putamen

d)

Reticular Formation

44.

The Cerebral Cortex can be split into which 2 parts?

a)

Allocortex

b)

Neocortex

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

45.

A number of interlinked structures that form a border around the brainstem, generally associated with motivation and emotion

a)

Limbic system

b)

Cerebral cortex

c)

Brainstem

d)

Hindbrain

46.

Which is associated with memory consolidation?

a)

Hippocampus

b)

Amygdala

c)

Olfactory bulbs

d)

Thalamus

47.

The Amygdala....

a)

Has a role in fear and anxiety

b)

Links behavioural outcomes to motivation

c)

Is involved in memory consolidation

48.

What Limbic System part has a role in emotion formation, memory, learning & linking behavioural outcomes to motivation

a)

Cingulate Cortex

b)

Amygdala

c)

Hippocampus

d)

Olfactory Bulbs

49.

What part of the Limbic System detects odours and provids input to structures responsible for the perception of smell

a)

Olfactory bulbs

b)

Cingulate cortex

c)

Amygdala

d)

Hippocampus

50.

Which of the 6 layers of the Neocortex is closest to the skull?

a)

Layer VI

b)

Layer I

51.

Which of these abilities is the Neocortex NOT responsible for?

a)

Reasoning

b)

Mathematical ability

c)

Language skill

d)

Reflexes

52.

The Gustatory Cortex is responsible for what?

a)

Taste perception

b)

Smell perception

c)

Vision perception

d)

Touch perception

53.

Which lobe contains the Somatosensory cortex?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Frontal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

54.

Which lobe contains the Motor cortex and Motor association area?

a)

Parietal lobe

b)

Frontal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Temporal lobe

55.

_____ is a neurological "map" of the areas and proportions of the brain dedicated to processing motor or sensory functions, for different parts of the body

a)

Homunculus

b)

Homersimpson

c)

Homocentric

d)

Homonkeytits

56.

After touching an object, sensory information flows from the a.) ______ to the b.) ______ and finally reaches the c.) ______

a)

a.) Primary sensory cortex

b.) Unimodal association cortex

c.) Multimodal association cortex

b)

a.) Unimodal association cortex

b.) Multimodal association cortex

c.) Primary sensory cortex

57.

When deciding to move your hand, motor information must flow from the a.) _____ to the b.) _____ finally reaching the c.) _____

a)

a.) Prefrontal Cortex

b.) Premotor Cortex

c.) Primary Motor Cortex

b)

a.) Primary Motor Cortex

b.) Prefrontal Cortex

c.) Premotor Cortex

58.

The Autonomic Nervous System includes...

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

c)

Enteric Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

59.

The Spinal Cord communicates with the sense organs and muscles, including those of the head

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken parmesan

60.

Entering a.) _____ roots carry sensory information and exiting b.) _____ roots carry motor information

a)

a.) Dorsal

b.) Ventral

b)

a.) Ventral

b.) Dorsal

61.

The Meninges is split into Dura mater, Arachnoid membrane and Pia mater. What are these layers associated with?

a)

Dura = Veins

Arachnoid = CSF

Pia = Arteries

b)

Dura = Arteries

Arachnoid = Veins

Pia = CSF

62.

Bundles of Axons connecting different Nuclei of the brain are known as what?

a)

Tracts

b)

Paths

c)

Bundles

d)

Roads

63.

Which two parts of the brain may cause Parkinson's disease when damaged?

a)

Basal Ganglia

b)

Substantia Nigra

c)

Reticular Formation

d)

Cerebellum

64.

Label parts A. and B.

a)

A.) Dorsal horn

B.) Ventral horn

b)

A.) Dorsal root

B.) Ventral root

c)

A.) Ventral horn

B.) Dorsal horn

65.

Label part A

a)

Ascending tract

b)

Descending tract

c)

Ascending ganglia

d)

Descending ganglia

66.

Label part B

a)

Ascending tract

b)

Descending tract

c)

Ascending ganglia

d)

Descending ganglia

67.

Autonomic pathways consist of two _____ neurons in series

a)

Efferent

b)

Afferent

68.

Label A, B and C

a)

A.) Pre-Ganglionic neuron

B.) Autonomic Ganglion

C.) Post Ganglionic Neuron

b)

A.) Post-Ganglionic neuron

B.) Autonomic Ganglion

C.) Pre-Ganglionic Neuron

69.

One Preganglionic neuron can only target one Postganglionic neuron

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken soup

70.

Parasympathetic pathways have a.) _____ pre-ganglionic neurons and b.) _____ post-ganglionic neurons

a)

a.) Long

b.) Short

b)

a.) Short

b.) Long

71.

Sympathetic pathways have a.) _____ pre-ganglionic neurons and b.) _____ post-ganglionic neurons

a)

a.) Long

b.) Short

b)

a.) Short

b.) Long

72.

Hard ass question: Sympathetic pathways have A.) _____ receptors on the target tissue

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

d)

CB1

73.

Hard ass question: Parasympathetic pathways have B.) _____ receptors on the target tissue

a)

Adrenergic

b)

Muscarinic

c)

Nicotinic

d)

CB1

74.

Parasympathetic pathways normally rely on a.) _____ while Sympathetic pathways rely on b.) _____

a)

a.) Acetylcholine

b.) Norepinephrine

b)

a.) Norepinephrine

b.) Acetylcholine

75.

Which refers to the "Fight or Flight" system?

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

c)

Autonomic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

76.

Which refers to the "Rest and Digest" system?

a)

Sympathetic Nervous System

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System

c)

Autonomic Nervous System

d)

Somatic Nervous System

77.

Most of the time, Autonomic control of the body function "seesaws" back and forth between the Parasympathetic and Sympathetic nervous systems

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken wings

78.

The Sympathetic system increases heart rate while the Parasympathetic system decreases it. This is known as....

a)

Antagonistic control

b)

Oppositional management

c)

Duelling systems

79.

Which of the following is only controlled by the Sympathetic nervous system (and not the Parasympathetic)

a)

Smooth muscles

b)

Heart

c)

Penis

d)

Lungs

80.

Which system controls the gut (including bowel motility, secretion, and blood flow)?

a)

Enteric Nervous System (ENS)

b)

Parasympathetic Nervous System (PNS)

c)

Sympathetic Nervous System (SNS)

d)

Para-Organismic Olfactory Production (POOP)

81.

The Enteric Nervous System interacts with bacteria in the gut. What is this bacteria called?

a)

Microbiome

b)

Bacterial ecology

c)

Stomach environment

82.

What is the function of the Microbiome?

a)

Influence nutrient absorption

b)

Source of neurochemicals

c)

Regulate an array of physiological processes

d)

Replace all host cells

83.

I'll tell you what I want, what I really, really want...

a)

I wanna

b)

I wanna

c)

I really, really, really wanna zigazig ah

84.

Genes come in pairs, called _____, and are aligned along chromosomes

a)

Alleles

b)

Chromatin

c)

DNA

d)

Phenotypes

85.

Genes maintain their structural identity from one generation to another

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken baguette

86.

How are chromosome pairs inherited?

a)

The child inherits one chromosome from mum and one from dad

b)

The child inherits both chromosomes from the same sex parent

c)

Each chromosome in the pair is a mix of genes from both parents

87.

What is a Gene?

a)

A portion of a chromosome

composed of DNA

b)

A model for the synthesis of ribonucleic acid (RNA)

c)

A large pair of structures made up of DNA

88.

What is the function of DNA?

a)

To produce proteins

b)

To produce carbohydrates

c)

To produce lipids

89.

What serves as the "middleman" between DNA and the proteins it creates

a)

RNA

b)

Enzymes

c)

Genes

d)

Chromosomes

90.

How many DNA bases does it take to form a single Amino Acid?

a)

3

b)

2

c)

1

d)

4

91.

How many Nucleotides (bases) does DNA have?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

92.

These two chromosomes contain...

a)

Homozygous genes

b)

Heterozygous genes

93.

These two chromosomes contain...

a)

Homozygous genes

b)

Heterozygous genes

94.

Which of the following can describe a gene?

a)

Dominant

b)

Recessive

c)

Intermediate

d)

Submissive

95.

What shows a strong effect in either the homozygous or heterozygous condition?

a)

Dominant gene

b)

Recessive gene

c)

Intermediate gene

96.

Which is true about Recessive Genes?

a)

Shows its effect only in the homozygous condition

b)

Shows a strong effect in either the homozygous or heterozygous condition

c)

The trait from one parent mixes with the trait from the other

d)

Cannot show its effect

97.

Mendel's Law of Dominance states:

a)

When an organism makes gametes, each gamete receives just one gene copy

b)

In a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic

c)

The allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene

98.

Mendel's Law of Segregation states:

a)

When an organism makes gametes, each gamete receives just one gene copy

b)

In a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic

c)

The allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene

99.

Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment states:

a)

When an organism makes gametes, each gamete receives just one gene copy

b)

In a heterozygote, one trait will conceal the presence of another trait for the same characteristic

c)

The allele a gamete receives for one gene does not influence the allele received for another gene

100.

Name Mendel's Three Laws of Inheritance:

a)

Law of Segregation

b)

Law of Independent Assortment

c)

Law of Dominance

d)

Law of Recession

101.

What is a Phenotype?

a)

An individual's observable traits

b)

An individual's collection of genes

102.

What is a Genotype?

a)

An individual's observable traits

b)

An individual's collection of genes

103.

What is true of Autosomal genes?

a)

They include all other genes except for sex-linked genes

b)

They are genes that are only expressed under certain conditions

c)

They are found in the XY chromosome in males

d)

They are not found in the XY chromosomes in males

104.

What is true of Sex-linked genes?

a)

They include all genes located in sex chromosomes

b)

They are genes that are only expressed under certain conditions

c)

They are found in the XY chromosome in males

d)

They are not found in the XY chromosomes in males

105.

During reproduction, females contribute either an X or Y sex chromosome

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken salad

106.

Which parent's gamete determines the sex of a zygote?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Both

107.

Traits that are visible only within one sex are referred to as what?

a)

Sex-Limited genes

b)

Sex-Linked genes

c)

Autosomal genes

108.

What is true of Genetic Mutations?

a)

They are errors in the nucleotide sequence

b)

They arise when reproductive cells make gene copies

c)

They can have beneficial or distuptive effects

d)

They mostly have negative effects

e)

They mostly have positive effects

109.

An inherited birth defect caused by loss of genes that encode the enzyme necessary for breaking down certain fatty substances:

a)

Tay-Sachs disease

b)

Huntington's disease

c)

Parkinson's disease

110.

A disease caused by an increase in the number of CAG repeats on Chromosome 4:

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

Tay-Sachs disease

c)

Parkinson's disease

111.

A chromosomal abnormality resulting in intellectual impairment, usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21:

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

Tay-Sachs disease

c)

Parkinson's disease

d)

Down syndrome

112.

Identification of a possible gene on the basis of the biology of the disorder and screening among the population (in order to find a link between a specific gene and a specific behaviour) is known as...

a)

Candidate Gene Approach

b)

Genome Wide Association Study

c)

Transgenic Technology

113.

Looking for differences in genes between two different groups, like people with or without schizophrenia (in order to find what genes cause a certain disease or behaviour), is known as...

a)

Candidate Gene Approach

b)

Genome Wide Association Study

c)

Transgenic Technology

114.

When studying identical and fraternal twins, scientists found...

a)

identical twins are more alike in behaviour than fraternal twins

b)

Identical and fraternal twins behave equally similar

c)

Both identical twins and fraternal twins behave very different from each other

115.

The introduction/removal of genes from an animal embryo to observe changes in behaviour linked to that gene is known as...

a)

Candidate Gene Approach

b)

Genome Wide Association Study

c)

Transgenic Technology

d)

Twin Study

116.

What is the study of how your behaviours and environment can cause changes that affect the way your genes work?

a)

Epigenetics

b)

Phenotype

c)

Genome

d)

Genotype

117.

What is Phenotypic plasticity?

a)

The study of environmental influence on phenotype

b)

The ability of a single genotype to express a large number of phenotypes

c)

The difference between behaviour of people with different genotypes

118.

Proteins called _____ bind DNA into a shape that is like string wound around a ball

a)

Histones

b)

Enzymes

c)

Chromatin

d)

RNA

119.

Adding a.)_____ to a Histone tail blocks it from opening, while adding b.)_____ loosens it, increasing chance for the gene to be expressed

a)

A.) Methyl

B.) Acetyl

b)

A.) Acetyl

B.) Methyl

c)

A.) Appyl

B.) Crumbyl

120.

Epigenetic alterations induced by lifestyle and environmental factors (diet, smoking, radiation, alcohol consumption, etc.) have no effects on the sperm function, and therefore cannot be inherited

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken and sauce

121.

Genes can directly produce behaviours

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Spaghetti

122.

A change in the frequency of various genes in a population over generations is known as what?

(a)  

123.

What is the theory of Group Selection?

a)

States that altruistic groups survive better than less cooperative one

b)

States reproductive success of an organism's relatives is favourable, even at a cost to the organism's own survival and reproduction

124.

What is Reciprocal Altruism?

a)

The idea that individuals help those that will return the favour

b)

Helping others at the cost of your own survival

c)

None of these

125.

What is the theory of Kin Selection?

a)

States that altruistic groups survive better than less cooperative ones

b)

States reproductive success of an organism's relatives is favourable, even at a cost to the organism's own survival and reproduction

126.

The Amygdala....

a)

Has a role in fear and anxiety

b)

Links behavioural outcomes to motivation

c)

Is involved in memory consolidation

127.

What are the 3 main components of the motor system?

a)

Brainstem

b)

Spinal cord

c)

Cerebrum

d)

Occipital lobe

128.

In order to see an object and pick it up, what components are used?

a)

Visual Cortex

b)

Motor Cortex

c)

Spinal Cord

d)

Sensory Cortex

e)

Basal Ganglia

129.

What is the function of Smooth Muscles?

a)

Control the digestive system and other organs

b)

Control movement of the body in relation to the environment

c)

Responsible for the ability of the heart to pump blood.

130.

What is a Neuromuscular Junction?

a)

A specialized synapse between a motor neuron and its muscle fibre

b)

A connective tissue between a muscle and a bone

c)

A synapse between a sensory neuron and its specialised cell

131.

Each muscle fibre receives information from only one axon

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Chicken soup

132.

Flexor muscles a.) _____ an appendage, while Extensor muscles b.) ______ an appendage

a)

A.) Raises or Flexes

B.) Extends or Straightens

b)

A.) Extends or Straightens

B.) Raises or Flexes

133.

What are Muscle Spindles?

a)

Proprioceptors parallel to the muscle that respond to stretch

b)

Bundles of skeletal muscle in the limbs

c)

Small muscles in fingers and toes

134.

What is the Golgi Tendon Organ?

a)

A proprioceptor found in tendons at opposite ends of the muscle that acts as a break

b)

poop

135.

What is the function of the Golgi Tendon Organ?

a)

Acts as a "brake" by inhibiting motor neurons when it detects excessive contraction

b)

Contracts muscle fibres when it detects excessive stretching

136.

What pathway do Corticospinal Tracts take?

a)

Cerebral Cortex to Spinal Cord

b)

Spinal Cord to Cerebral Cortex

c)

Spinal Cord to Muscles

d)

Muscles to Spinal Cord

137.

What is true of Lateral Corticospinal Tracts?

a)

They Decussate from one side of brain to opposite side of body (at the Pyramids of the Medulla)

b)

They control peripheral limbs

c)

They control neck, shoulders and trunk (torso)

d)

They can pass through the Red Nucleus (outputs to arm muscles)

138.

Hard Ass Question: Where does the Red Nucleus mainly output to?

a)

Arm muscles

b)

Neck muscles

c)

Shoulder muscles

139.

Which is true of Medial Corticospinal Tracts?

a)

They decussate at the Pyramids in the Medulla

b)

They control the neck, shoulders and trunk (torso)

c)

They control the arms, legs and extremities

d)

They are important in movements such as bending, standing and sitting

140.

What is Quadriplegia?

a)

Paralysis and loss of sensation in the legs and arms due to spinal cord injury

b)

Paralysis and loss of sensation confined to legs and lower body due to spinal cord injury

141.

______ can be Voluntary, Reflex or Rhythmic

a)

Movement

b)

Senses

c)

Feedback

d)

Muscles

142.

Most voluntary movements are...

a)

Ballistic

b)

Guided by feedback

c)

Combination of both

143.

Reflexes can be classified as....

a)

Somatic or autonomic

b)

Spinal or cranial

c)

Innate or learned

d)

Medial or lateral

144.

Which is true of Autonomic reflexes?

a)

Include reflexes in arms and legs

b)

Include urination, breathing and heart rate

c)

Fundamental for Homeostasis

d)

Can be modified through learning

145.

What is true of Somatic reflexes?

a)

They affect visceral organs

b)

They are involved in posture

c)

They are mediated by Muscle Spindles and Golgi Tendon Organs

d)

They only effect muscles above the neck

146.

Why are Rhythmic movements (walking, running) not Reflexes?

a)

They do not depend on sensory input

b)

They do not involve the spinal cord

c)

They do not send messages to the brain after completion

147.

Where are Rhythmic movements (e.g. walking, running) produced?

a)

Central Pattern Generators

b)

Cerebral Pattern Generators

c)

Rhythmic Pattern Generators

148.

What is Fun?

a)

F is for friends who do stuff together

b)

U is for you and me

c)

N is for anywhere and anytime at all

d)

DOWN HERE IN THE DEEP BLUE SEA

149.

Layer 4 (afferent) of the Neocortex is thick in the a.) _____ and relatively thin in the b.) _____

a)

A.) Sensory Cortex

B.) Motor Cortex

b)

A.) Motor Cortex

B.) Sensory Cortex

150.

Layer 5 (efferent) of the Neocortex is thick in the a.) _____ and relatively thin in the b.) _____

a)

A.) Sensory Cortex

B.) Motor Cortex

b)

A.) Motor Cortex

B.) Sensory Cortex

151.

Label the two Cortices

a)

A.) Sensory Cortex

B.) Motor Cortex

b)

A.) Motor Cortex

B.) Sensory Cortex

152.

When tasked with picking up a pencil, which Cortex plans the appropriate movement?

a)

Prefrontal Cortex

b)

Premotor Cortex

c)

Primary Motor Cortex

153.

When tasked with picking up a pencil, which Cortex sequences the correct order of movements (i.e. reach out hand, grab pencil, lift up hand)?

a)

Prefrontal Cortex

b)

Premotor Cortex

c)

Primary Motor Cortex

154.

When tasked with picking up a pencil, which Cortex ultimately executes the specific movements involved?

a)

Prefrontal Cortex

b)

Premotor Cortex

c)

Primary Motor Cortex

155.

What can a lesion in the Pre-Frontal cortex result in?

a)

Failure to execute planned movements

b)

Loss of sensation in the body

c)

Breaking of social and legal rules

d)

Inability to sequence complex movements

156.

What is true of the Posterior Parietal Cortex?

a)

Keeps track of the position of the body relative to the world

b)

Integrates visual and somatosensory info

c)

It is an association area

d)

It is a motor area

157.

What can a lesion in the Pre-Motor Cortex cause?

a)

Failure to plan sequences of movements

b)

Failure to execute any movements

c)

Failure to plan single movements

158.

The motor cortex doesn't encode individual muscle twitches but a "dictionary" of movements

a)

True

b)

False

c)

What does this even mean?

159.

Which part of the brain has more neurons than all other parts of the brain combined?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Thalamus

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Medulla

160.

What tasks would be impaired by damage to the Cerebellum?

a)

Tasks involving aim and timing (e.g. clapping, pointing at a moving object)

b)

Tasks involving continuous movement (e.g. drawing a line across a page)

c)

Simple lifting tasks (e.g. weight lifting, picking up a pencil)

161.

What is the Flocculus and where is it found?

a)

A small part of the Cerebellum involved in eye movements and balance

b)

A small part of the Occipital lobe involved in eye movements and balance

c)

A large part of the Thalamus involved in eye movements and balance

162.

The Cerebellum can be functionally split into what parts?

a)

Lateral and Medial

b)

Dorsal and Ventral

c)

Caudal and Rostral

163.

When you decide to pick up a pencil, the Cortex sends motor instructions to the spinal cord. It also sends a "copy" of those instructions to the _____?

a)

Cerebellum

b)

Thalamus

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Medulla

164.

Label A on this picture of the Cerebellum's surface

a)

Purkinje Cell

b)

Astrocyte

c)

Merkel Disc

d)

Interneuron

165.

What part of the brain creates a loop between itself, the Forebrain and the Thalamus?

a)

Basal Ganglia

b)

Medulla

c)

Brainstem

d)

Pre-Frontal Cortex

166.

Damage to the Basal Ganglia can cause which symptoms?

a)

Hyperkinetic symptoms

b)

Hypokinetic symptoms

c)

Loss of sensation

d)

Inability to plan movements

167.

Which can be causes of Parkinson's disease?

a)

Genetic factors

b)

Exposure to toxins

c)

Head injury

d)

Smoking and Caffeine

168.

What receptors are stimulated to treat Parkinson's disease?

a)

Dopamine

b)

Acetylcholine

c)

Seratonin

d)

GABA

169.

What genetic disease is characterised by involuntary tremors and facial ticks (hyperkinesia)?

a)

Huntington's disease

b)

Parkinson's disease

c)

Down Syndrome

d)

Tay-Sachs disease

170.

A neuron with hand and mouth acts becomes highly active when a monkey grasps a raisin on a plate. The same neuron also responded when the monkey watched a researcher grasp the raisin. This is due to what mechanism?

a)

Mirror neurons

b)

Empathy

c)

Imitation

d)

Monkey do monkey see effect

171.

Which duo is best?

a)

Drake and Josh

b)

Zack and Cody

c)

Phineas and Ferb

d)

Cosmo and Wanda

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