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Infectious Disease Pathophysiology

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which describes a primary infection?

a)

A infection that develops on its own

b)

An infection that follows a breakdown in host barrier defenses

c)

An infection that is cause by an organism within host's normal environment, which is typically non-pathogenic or of very low virulence

2.

Which describes a secondary infection?

a)

A infection that develops on its own

b)

An infection that follows a breakdown in host barrier defenses

c)

An infection that is cause by an organism within host's normal environment, which is typically non-pathogenic or of very low virulence

3.

Which describes a opportunistic infection?

a)

A infection that develops on its own

b)

An infection that follows a breakdown in host barrier defenses

c)

An infection that is cause by an organism within host's normal environment, which is typically non-pathogenic or of very low virulence

4.

What are some indicators of an infection?

a)

Heart rate

b)

BP

c)

RR

d)

Temperature

e)

Line of sight

5.

What are some laboratory tests that will allow us to see there is an infection present?

a)

WBC

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Bands

6.

Usually in patients that have infections laboratory results can see an increase in:

a)

WBC

b)

Neutrophils

c)

Bands

d)

Blood count

7.

Bacilli can be seen as:

a)

Rods

b)

Spheres

c)

Cork like

8.

Cocci can be seen as:

a)

Rods

b)

Clusters

c)

Pairs

9.

What do Carbapenems cover?

a)

Staph

b)

Strep

c)

Entero

d)

Atypical

e)

Anaerobe

10.

If a patient is on Zosyn but does not have any risk factors for Pseudomonas how would you narrow the therapy? (Assume you still want gram positive, gram negative and anaerobes)

a)

Augmentin

b)

Polymixin B

c)

Rifamycin

d)

Ciprofloxacin

11.

If patient is on Vancomycin but cultures come back for MSSA. How would you deescalate therapy?

a)

Antistaphylococcyal

b)

1st generation Cephalosporin

c)

Aminopenicillin

d)

Penicillin

e)

Rifamycin

12.

Which category dose Enterococcus fall into?

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Atypical

d)

Anaerobes

13.

Which category dose Klebsiella fall into?

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Atypical

d)

Anaerobes

14.

Which category does Mycoplasma fall into?

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Atypical

d)

Anaerobes

15.

Which category does Bacteroides fall into?

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Atypical

d)

Anaerobes

16.

Which would be the best agent to use for Streptococcus?

a)

Penicillin

b)

Aminopenicillin

c)

Cephalosporin

d)

Microlide

e)

Glycopeptide

17.

Which of the following provides coverage against atypical organisms?

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Augmentin

e)

Zosyn

18.

Which antibiotic provides coverage against pseudomonas organisms?

a)

Ciprofloxacin

b)

Azithromycin

c)

Doxycycline

d)

Augmentin

e)

Zosyn

19.

Name the pathogen that is NOT covered by (any of) the following antibiotics: Vancomycin, Ceftaroline, Cefuroxime, Tigecycline, Metronidazole, Unasyn

a)

Pseudomonas

b)

MRSA

c)

C.diff

d)

Anaerobes

20.

Name a pathogen that is NOT covered by (any of) the following antibiotics: Cefepime, Zosyn, Aztreonam, Cefazolin, Meropenem, Gentamicin

a)

Atypical

b)

MRSA

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Meropenem

e)

Gentamicin

21.

What is the coverage of Aztreonam?

a)

Gram +

b)

Gram -

c)

Pseudomonas

d)

MRSA

22.

What is the coverage of Ceftaroline?

a)

Strep

b)

Staph

c)

MRSA

d)

Enterobacteriaceae

e)

Atypicals

23.

Which is true about Ciprofloxacin?

a)

May cause QTc prolongation

b)

May cause multitalented cations so do not take with dairy or antacids or divalent cations

c)

Risk of tendon rupture

d)

Can cause hypo/hyper glycemic so those with diabetes should monitor levels

e)

Patients on warfarin should dose adjust as needed

24.

Which has a “broader” spectrum? Zosyn or Meropenem?

a)

Meropenem

b)

Zosyn

25.

Which has a “broader” spectrum?

a)

Zosyn

b)

Vancomycin

26.

Which of the following organisms does Zosyn NOT provide coverage against?

a)

Strep

b)

MRSA

c)

E.coli

d)

Pseudomonas

e)

Bacteroides

27.

You have a patient with SSTI, confirmed MRSA, patient is on Vancomycin and Doxycycline you recommend to STOP Doxycycline, which intervention is this?

a)

Duplication

b)

Inappropriate duration

c)

IV to PO

d)

Narrowing

28.

A patient is admitted directly from LTCF for pneumonia. Patient has history of MRSA colonization and preliminary sputum cultures reveal gram (+) cocci in clusters. Select the appropriate empiric regimen

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Ceftaroline

c)

Clindamycin

d)

Linezolid

e)

Cefotaxime

29.

76 year old patient is admitted for a pneumonia. MD states that his primary concern is Strep. Pneumoniae however wants to also make sure we cover Legionella sp. Select an appropriate regimen.

a)

Azithromycin

b)

Penicillin

c)

Levofloxacin

d)

Vancomycin

30.

Patient has a urinary infection caused by E.coli. What is the most appropriate empiric regimen?

a)

Nitrofurantoin

b)

Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim

31.

Which of these have pseudomonas coverage?

a)

Cipro

b)

Levo

c)

Aztreonam

d)

Amoxicillin

e)

Ertapenem

32.

Which of these provides coverage for ESBL?

a)

Meropenem

b)

Imipenem

c)

Ertapenem

d)

Zerbaxa

e)

Avycaz

33.

Patient with neurogenic fever requires coverage for: Strepcoccus, MSSA, Enterobactericiae and Pseudomonas

a)

Cefepime

b)

Ceftazidime

c)

Cephalexin

d)

Cefotaxime

34.

Patient requires coverage against: Strep and Bacteroides

a)

Clindamycin

b)

Ciprofloxacin

c)

Tigecycline

d)

Ceftaroline

35.

What are the contraindications for Nitrofurantoin?

a)

CrCl <60 mL/min

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Elderly

d)

Children

36.

True or false: Daptomycin is NOT effective in the lungs because it is inactivated by lung surfactant and CANNOT be used for pneumonia

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Do penicillins cover Mycoplasma?

a)

No

b)

Yes

38.

Which cephalosporins cover anaerobes like Bacteroides?

a)

Cefoxitin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefotaxime

d)

Cephalexin

e)

Cefoprozil

39.

True or false: Cephalosporins can cover enterococcus

a)

False

b)

True

40.

Which of these are NOT regally cleared and will need to be renally adjusted?

a)

Ceftriaxone

b)

Cefuroxime

c)

Cefepime

d)

Ceftroline

41.

Which is the ONLY B-Lactam medication can treat MRSA?

a)

Ceftriaxone

b)

Ceftroline

c)

Cefepime

d)

Cefuroxime

42.

True or false: Ceftroline covers pseudomonas

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which carbapenem has NO coverage for pseudomonas?

a)

Ertapenem

b)

Imipenem

c)

Meropenem

44.

Which medication is Cilastatin added to to delay the breakdown to allow this drug to work

a)

Imipenem

b)

Ertapenem

c)

Meropenem

45.

Does Aztreonam cover enterococcus or chlamydia?

a)

No

b)

Yes

46.

What does Doxycyline cover?

a)

MSSA

b)

MRSA

c)

Atypicals

d)

Some respiratory gram -

47.

True or false: Tigecycline covers pseudomonas

a)

False

b)

True

48.

For which medication does QTc prolongation occur?

a)

Fluoroquinolone

b)

Macrolides

c)

Vancomycin

d)

Cephalosporin

49.

True or false: Daptomycin can be used in C.dif

a)

False

b)

True

50.

What type of drug target is Fluoroquinolone?

a)

DNA gyrase /Topo IV

b)

Folate metabolism

c)

Cell wall biosynthesis

51.

Can Penicillin VK cover e.coli?

a)

No

b)

Yes

52.

Can Penicillin VK cover MRSA?

a)

No

b)

Yes

53.

How is penicillin excreted?

a)

Renal

b)

Hepatic

c)

Urine

54.

What are the common uses for Penicillin?

a)

Strep throat

b)

Prophylaxis for Dental Procedures

c)

Syphilis

d)

Intraabdominal prophylaxis

55.

Why is Methicillin no longer available?

a)

Causes renal damage

b)

Causes QTc

c)

Causes meningitis

56.

What is the common use for antistaphylococcal drugs?

a)

Uncomplicated skin and soft tissue infection

b)

Dental prophylaxis

c)

Intraabdominal prophylaxis

d)

Pneumonia

57.

What are the common uses for aminopenicillin?

a)

Respiratory tract infection

b)

Otitis media

c)

Uncomplicated SSTI

d)

Dental prophylaxis

58.

Can Timentin and Zosyn cover MRSA?

a)

NO

b)

YES

59.

Can Timentin and Zosyn cover pseudomonas?

a)

Yes

b)

No

60.

Which of the following agents cover Enterococcus?

a)

Cephalexin

b)

Cefuroxime

c)

Ceftroline

d)

Amoxicillin

61.

Which drugs can cause Disulfiram reactions?

a)

Cefoxitin

b)

Cefotetan

c)

Cefaclor

d)

Cefaprozil

62.

Which medication is NOT good for pseudomonas?

a)

Ertapenem

b)

Imipenem

c)

Meropenem

63.

Which medication can cause red man syndrome and vein irritation?

a)

Vancomycin

b)

Cephalexin

c)

Daptomycin

d)

Cephalosporins

64.

What are adverse effects of Aminoglycosides?

a)

Ototoxicity

b)

Nephrotoxicity

c)

Neuromuscular blockage

d)

Hyperkalemia

65.

Which are respiratory fluroquinolones?

a)

Moxifloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

66.

Which of these covers pseudomonas?

a)

Levofloxacin

b)

Moxifloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

67.

Which of these has the best anaerobic coverage?

a)

Moxifloxacin

b)

Levofloxacin

c)

Ciprofloxacin

68.

When would Sulfamethoxazole/Trimethoprim Bactrim be used for?

a)

UTI

b)

Opportunistic infection

c)

SSTI (MRSA coverage)

d)

Prophylaxis

e)

Meningitis

69.

If patient has MRSA could you use Rifampin?

a)

No

b)

Yes

70.

What is a adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Rhabdomyolysis

b)

Photosensitivity

c)

GI distress

d)

Disulfiram

71.

What side effects does Metronidazole have?

a)

Disulfiram like reaction

b)

Metallic taste

c)

Hepatoxicity

d)

Ototoxicity

e)

Photosensitivity

72.

What are some adverse effects of fluoroquinolones?

a)

Photosensitivity

b)

Achilles Tendon

c)

Long QTc

d)

Disulfiram effects

e)

Ototoxicity

73.

What are some things those on Fluoroquinolones should be counseled on?

a)

Arrhythmia

b)

Dietary (dairy, iron and antacids)

c)

Achilles’ tendon

d)

Diabetic: glucose levels

e)

Interaction with Warfarin: need to check INR

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