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Pre Test MaEd PE 208

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A person pushing off explosively at the start of a 100m race may experience a strain. This injury occurs at the:

a)

Muscle

b)

Ligament

c)

Bone

d)

Connective Tissue

2.

Shin splints are common in people who run on footpaths as part of their training. This is an example of the following injury class:

a)

Acute

b)

Inflammation

c)

Environmental

d)

Overuse

3.

Core strength training receives a great deal of attention in elite athletes because it:

a)

Decreases the risk of injury

b)

Improves acceleration and deceleration of body parts

c)

Improves the transfer of power between upper and lower body parts

d)

All of the above

4.

Pre-activity screening is undertaken in all professional sports in an effort to:

a)

Provide a baseline to which future tests can be compared

b)

Identify the most suitable playing position on a team

c)

Minimise the risk of injury during physical activity

d)

Best plan a training program

5.

The purpose of an active cool down following competition and training is to:

a)

Maintain systolic blood pressure and prevent venous pooling

b)

Assist in the removal of metabolic by-products

c)

Minimise the effect of D.O.M.S. in the following days

d)

All of the above

6.

What protective equipment aims to restrict the amount of movement that occurs at a joint and thus provide additional support which reduces the likelihood of soft-tissue injuries

a)

Padding

b)

Mouth guard

c)

Correct Footwear

d)

Taping/Bracing

7.

Resistance training can be incorporated by (multiple answers)

a)

Planning to do regular household /gardening chores (mowing, raking, sweeping)

b)

Using weights, kettle bells, etc.. As part of a weight training program

c)

Substituting common household items for traditional weights such as cans, drink bottles, etc.

d)

Taking the family for a 30 minute continuous exercise: bike ride, run or swim

e)

Using resistance bands and tubing thereby requiring greater forces to enable joint movements

8.

Resistance training is ideal for developing muscle and bone strength. (multiple answers)

a)

Increased range of motions at joints

b)

Improved cardiovascular endurance

c)

Increased speed of contraction

d)

Improved fibre recruitment

e)

Improved core strength and posture

9.

What should occur after a general warm up aimed at increasing blood flow to working muscles

a)

Warm up

b)

Static stretching

c)

Dynamic stretching

d)

Flexibility exercises

10.

Why is dynamic stretching thought to be better in terms of activity preparation and injury risk reduction when contrasted to static stretching?

a)

Activates both the neuromuscular systems and improves their co-ordination resulting in more fluent/biomechanically efficient movements

b)

Best replicates the actions likely to be performed shortly there after (more specific) to reduces likelihood of unexpected movements and joint pressures

c)

Has an associated increase in resp. & heart rates, blood flow, oxygen uptake, etc. thus better preparing the whole body and not just the joint for performance

d)

All of the above

11.
An acute injury is
a)
An existing injury
b)
A re-occurring injury.
c)
An injury that occurs suddenly without warning
d)
An injury that occurs after a long period of time
12.
This is an example of
a)
Chronic Injury
b)
Indirect Injury
c)
Direct Injury
d)
Overuse Injury
13.
This is an example of
a)
Chronic Injury
b)
Indirect Injury
c)
Direct Injury
d)
Overuse Injury
14.
This is an example of
a)
Chronic Injury
b)
Indirect Injury
c)
Direct Injury
d)
Overuse Injury
15.
Which of the following is not an example of strategy to prevent musculoskeletal injuries?
a)
Warm Up
b)
Strength Training
c)
Drinking Water (Hydration)
d)
Pre-Activity Screening
16.
It is recommended to stretch before exercise to prevent injury.
a)
True
b)
False
17.
Structuring a training program to avoid undue stress is placed on the body is called.
a)
Periodisation
b)
Recovery
c)
Overload
d)
Strength Training
18.
Which of the following in not a common musculoskeletal condition?
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Type II Diabetes
c)
Osteoarthritis
d)
Back Pain
19.
The following is not an example of a long term 'cost' of sports injuries.
a)
Time and productivity lost in the workforce
b)
Healthcare costs
c)
Physical, psychological or emotional damage
d)
Reduced cost to governement
20.
When a ligament is damaged it is known as a.....
a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)
Tear
d)
Break
21.
When a muscle is damaged it is known as a.....
a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)
Tear
d)
Break
22.

Examples of musculoskeletal injuries include...

a)

PTSD

b)

whiplash

c)

sprains

d)

fractures

23.

Blood leaks into an affected muscle compartment ->

a)

Then drains out through another compartment

b)

Rise in interstitial compartment pressure

c)

Lymph fluid flows OUT of the affected compartment

24.

Which sequence is correct?

a)

vascular occlusion -> paraesthesia -> paralysis

b)

vascular occlusion -> paralysis -> paraesthesia

c)

paraesthesia -> vascular occlusion -> paralysis

25.

Symptoms of Compartment Syndrome

a)

Pain

b)

Numbness

c)

Swelling

d)

Hypoesthesia

26.

What is the treatment for Compartment Syndrome?

a)

Urgent fasciotomy

b)

Amputation

c)

High dose antibiotics

d)

High dose anti-coagulants

27.

What does the musculoskeletal provide?

(a)  

28.

What is the role of ligaments?

a)

Connect bones to bones

b)

Connects bone to muscle

29.

Ligaments are very high tensile strength, inelastic and flexible

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Injuries involving muscles result in _________

a)

Sprain

b)

Luxation

c)

Strain

31.

Where are joints found?

(a)  

32.

Tendons are inelastic and flexible

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Injuries in a tendon result in a _______

a)

Rupture

b)

Subluxation

34.

Cartilage is a ___________.

a)

Smooth, elastic surface between bones

b)

Smooth, elastic surface on bones

c)

Hard, inelastic surface between bones

d)

Hard, inelastic surface on bones

35.

What does cartilage do?

(a)  

36.

Simple fractures entail:

a)

Bone does not break through the skin

b)

Broken ends shatter into many pieces

c)

'clean' break

37.

A compound fracture is when the bone breaks into separate pieces and pierces through the skin

a)

True

b)

False

38.

Osteoporosis results in more porous, weak and brittle bone and increased susceptibility to fractures

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Osteoarthritis is a reversible disease

a)

True

b)

False

40.

What are some effects of osteoarthritis?

4 lines
41.
If you are running and you forcefully turn your ankle inward what type of ankle sprain would you have?
a)
Inversion
b)
Eversion
c)
Syndemosis
d)
High
42.
Which of the following is not an example of strategy to prevent musculoskeletal injuries?
a)
Warm Up
b)
Strength Training
c)
Drinking Water (Hydration)
d)
Pre-Activity Screening
43.
Sprains are injuries to:
a)
ligaments
b)
tendons
c)
bones
d)
skin
44.
Strains are injuries to:
a)
ligaments
b)
tendons or muscles
c)
bone
d)
skiin
45.
A ligament:
a)
Connects bone to bone
b)
connects bone to muscle
c)
Connects skin to muscle
d)
Connects nerves to muscle
46.
A tendon:
a)
Connects bone to bone
b)
Connects bone to muscle
c)
Connects muscles to each other
d)
Connects skin to bones
47.
What type of soft tissue injury is this?
a)
Amputation
b)
Abrasion
c)
Avulsion
d)
Laceration
48.
What type of soft tissue injury is this? (Use the medical term)
a)
Contusion
b)
Bruise
c)
Edema
d)
Hematoma
49.
RICE stands for  
a)
Rest, ice, compression, elevation
b)
repair, ice, condition, enervate
c)
rest, ice, condition, elevation
d)
relax, injure, condition, elevation
50.
Irregular open wound created by a non-cutting object
a)
incision 
b)
avulsion 
c)
laceration 
d)
contrecoup 
51.
Partial tearing (forceful removal) away of a body part
a)
avulsion 
b)
abrasion 
c)
contusion 
d)
strain 
52.
Pointed object enters the body 
a)
puncture 
b)
incision 
c)
laceration 
d)
abrasion 
53.
Scraping off a layer of skin by a rough object
a)
abrasion 
b)
avulsion 
c)
contusion 
d)
puncture 
54.
Which type of ankle sprains are associated with fractures?
a)
Inversion
b)
Eversion
c)
Syndemosis
55.
Name the type of fx
a)
Avulsion
b)
Greenstick
c)
Comminuted
d)
Transverse
56.
Treatment for ACUTE bursitis
a)
Ice
b)
Ice with compression
c)
Aspiration
d)
Surgical Removal
57.
Which of the following may lead to myositis ossificans if not treated appropriately?
a)
sprain
b)
strain
c)
contusion
d)
subluxation
58.
Same as a bruise.  Bleeding under the skin 
a)
contrecoup
b)
contusion 
c)
avulsion 
d)
incision 
59.
Partially torn ligament that resulted in some loss of motion is a ________
a)
Grade1 sprain 
b)
Grade 2 sprain 
c)
Grade 2 strain 
d)
Grade 3 strain 
60.
Most weight bearing bone in  lower leg (bone on the medial side) 
a)
tibia
b)
fibula
c)
femur
d)
radius
61.
Smaller lower leg bone on the lateral side 
(only non-weight bearing bone in lower extremity) 
a)
tibia
b)
fibula
c)
femur
d)
radius
62.
Heel bone 
a)
talus 
b)
calcaneus 
c)
carpal
d)
tibia 
63.
Bone right above the heel bone that articulates with the lower leg bone (hint syndesmosis inj)
a)
calcaneus 
b)
talus 
c)
phalange
d)
fibula 
64.
Distal end of the tibia
a)
calcaneus 
b)
talus 
c)
medial malleolus 
d)
lateral malleolus 
65.
Strong ligament on the medial aspect of the ankle 
a)
peroneus 
b)
achilles tendon 
c)
deltiod
d)
gastrocnemius 
66.
Is an inversion or an eversion ankle sprain more common?
a)
inversion 
b)
eversion
67.
Which bones are most commonly fractured due to avulsion?
a)
1st metatarsal
b)
talus
c)
tibia
d)
5th metatarsal and the iliac crest
68.
Injury where muscles on the anterior of the tibia swell due to a blow and cause pressure
a)
compartment syndrome
b)
medial tibial stress syndrome
c)
halux valgus 
d)
hammer toe
69.
Distial end of the fibula
a)
Lateral malleolus
b)
Medial malleolus
c)
tibula
d)
talus
70.
What are the three reasons why an inversion sprain is more likely to happen?
a)
Lat malleolus extends farther down than the med malleolus, Boney block created by the fibula and the calcaneus,  and the deltoid lig is stronger than the lat lig's
b)
Med malleolus extends farther down than the lat malleolus, Boney block created by the fibula and the calcaneus,  and the deltoid lig is stronger than the lat lig's 
c)
Boney block created by the fibula and the femur,  and the deltoid lig is stronger than the lat lig's
d)
Med malleolus extends farther down than the lat malleolus, Boney block created by the tib and the calcaneus,  and the deltoid lig is stronger than the lat lig's 
71.
Zinc oxide is used to tx a friction blister
a)
true
b)
false
72.
Second skin helps protect the new skin under a blister
a)
true
b)
false
73.
Two ways an AT can treat an ingrown toenail are to cut a "v" in the middle of the nail and put cotton under the ingrown nail
a)
true
b)
false
74.
A dislocation is
a)
force displaces bone so that the two bone ends in the same joint no longer line up and must be relocated by an outside force 
b)
chronic in ammation of the muscle tissue 
c)
a ligament or tendon pulls so hard at its bony attachment that a portion of the bone is torn away 
75.
When a dislocation occurs ________________________ is likely to occur as well.
a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)
cartilage damage
d)
All inj listed
76.
A compound fx is also called a (an)
a)
open fx
b)
closed fx
c)
bad fx
d)
spiral fx
77.

What type of soft tissue injury is this? (must use medical term)

a)

Contusion

b)

Abrasion

c)

Laceration

d)

Scrape

78.

This is an example of a tooth...

a)

Laceration

b)

Incision

c)

Fracture

d)

Abrasion

79.

A completely torn tendon that resulting in loss of motion is a ___________

a)

Grade 2 sprain

b)

Grade 2 strain

c)

Grade 3 strain

d)

Grade 3 sprain

80.

An overstretched ligament that causes no loss of ROM

a)

Grade 1 sprain

b)

Grade 1 strain

c)

Grade 2 sprain

d)

Grade 2 strain

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