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Worksheets

Medtech subjects

Total questions: 45

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is

a)

Absorbed by particles in suspension

b)

Scattered by particles in suspension

c)

Produced by fluorescence

d)

Produced by excitation of ground-state atoms

2.

Checking instrument calibration, temperature accuracy, and electronic parameters are part of

a)

Preventive maintenance

b)

Quality control

c)

Function verification

d)

Precision verification

3.

Bence Jones proteinuria is a condition characterized by the urinary excretion of what type of light chain?

a)

Kappa light chains

b)

Lambda light chains

c)

Both kappa and lambda light chains

d)

Either kappa or lambda light chains

4.

What substance is the precursor to all steroid hormones?

a)

Fatty acid

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Phospholipid

5.

The presence of only slightly visible hemolysis will significantly increase the serum level of which of the following electrolytes?

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

Bicarbonate

6.

Exfoliatin produced by Staphylococcus aureus is responsible for causing

a)

Enterocolitis

b)

Toxic shock syndrome

c)

Scalded skin syndrome

d)

Staphylococcal pneumonia

7.

Which of the following species of Bacillus is nonmotile?

a)

B. cereus

b)

B. subtilis

c)

B. anthracis

d)

B. thuringiensis

8.

The description of "Medusa head" colonies on solid agar is most characteristic of

a)

Bacillus anthracis

b)

Enterococcusfaecalis

c)

Staphylococcus saprophyticus

d)

Streptococcus agalactiae

9.

The characteristics of being lactose negative, citrate negative, urease negative, lysine decarboxylase negative, and nonmotile best describe which organism?

a)

Proteus vulgaris

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Salmonella enterica

d)

Shigella dysenteriae

10.

The causative agent of melioidosis is

a)

Burkholderia cepacia

b)

Burkholderia pseudomallei

c)

Moraxella catarrhalis

d)

Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

11.

Eggs or larvae recovered in the stool are not routinely used to diagnose infections caused by which one of the following helminths?

a)

Trichinella spiralis

b)

Strongyloides stercomlis

c)

Necator americanus

d)

Ascaris lumbricoides

12.

Which of the following is the most important feature in differentiating cysts of Entamoeba histolytica from E. dispar?

a)

Number of nuclei

b)

Size of the cyst

c)

Shape of the karyosome

d)

Distinguishing surface antigens by immunologic assays

13.

Which species of malaria parasite usually has ameboid trophozoites and produces small reddish dots in the red blood cell cytoplasm?

a)

Plasmodium knowlesi

b)

Plasmodium falciparum

c)

Plasmodium malariae

d)

Plasmodium vivax

14.

The disease most commonly associated with Acanthamoeba sp. is

a)

Diarrhea

b)

Keratitis

c)

Liver abscess

d)

Meningoencephalitis

15.

Cysts of Giardia lamblia

a)

Contain four nuclei

b)

Are motile by flagella

c)

Have an undulating membrane

d)

Are rarely found in stool specimens

16.

The cytoplasm of the cell in H and E staining has a:

a)

A.   Pink color

b)

  Deep blue color

c)

  Blue color

d)

Red color

17.

Which of the following terms denotes the removal of gross nicks on the knife edge to remove blemishes?

a)

Stropping

b)

  Oiling

c)

Honing

d)

Trimming

18.

The oldest of all stains used for removal of mercuric fixatives artifact pigments as well as staining amyloid and starch is:

a)

Congo red

b)

Neutral red                 

c)

Iodine

d)

Alcian blue

19.

Method of staining that uses a mordant or another reagent to intensify the action of another dye

a)

Direct staining

b)

Indirect Staining

c)

Progressive staining

d)

Regressive staining

20.

It is the oxidation process of hematoxylin to form its active color hematin

a)

Ripening

b)

Dehydration

c)

Fixation

d)

Stropping

21.

When performing a venipuncture, which of the following is the proper order of draw for evacuated blood collection tubes?

a)

Sterile specimen, light blue top, and plain red top

b)

Light blue top, plain red top, and sterile specimen

c)

Lavender top, light blue top, plain red top

d)

Green top, sterile specimen, and plain red top

22.

Which of the following terms is used to identify a chemical that causes cancer?

a)

Mutagen

b)

Teratogen

c)

Carcinogen

d)

Reactive

23.

The phrase "Standard Precautions" refers to a concept of bloodborne disease control that requires all human blood and other potentially infectious materials

a)

Be treated as if known to be infectious for bloodborne pathogens regardless of the perceived "low risk" of a patient population

b)

Be treated as if it is not infectious unless it is known to be infectious

c)

Must be handled using a respirator for aerosol exposure

d)

Need not be treated with caution unless there is a cut on your hand

24.

When working with chemicals, the selection of your gloves depends on

a)

The chemical hazard and the tasks involved

b)

How far you must transport the chemical

c)

Whether or not you use a chemical fume hood

d)

Whatever is available in the laboratory

25.

What is the maximum capacity of a chemical storage safety can used in the laboratory?

a)

1 gallon

b)

5 gallons

c)

20 gallons

d)

55 gallons

26.

Which of the following is not a part of the budget-making process as related to laboratories?

a)

Cost analysis

b)

Coordinating

c)

Determination of fixed and variable costs

d)

Breakeven analysis

27.

What voluntary agency is developing and implementing Blood Bank practices for the clinical laboratory?

a)

OSHA

b)

FDA

c)

AABB

d)

PPS

28.

Which of the following is not associated with the goals of a laboratory continuing education program?

a)

Staff development

b)

Improvement of laboratory functioning

c)

Compliance with accreditation requirements

d)

Prevention of boredom

29.

Which of the following should not be included in a job description?

a)

Job duties

b)

Position title

c)

Qualifications

d)

Job securities

30.

Which of the following is the process by which a competent public authority grants permission to an organization or an individual to engage in a specific professional practice, occupation, or activity?

a)

Accreditation

b)

Certification

c)

Licensure

d)

Credentialing

31.

Who will sign the certificate of registration to be issued to the Medical Technologists?

a)

Members of the board and RP President

b)

Members of the Council and PRC Commissioner

c)

PRC Commissioner and Board Members

d)

Board Members and PAMET President

32.

The following are functions of MedTech Council of Education,EXCEPT:

a)

administers board examination

b)

recommend the minimum required curriculum for MedTech course

c)

monitors MedTech Schools in the country

d)

recommend refresher course

33.

According to this person, Medical Technology profession started as early as 1550B.C. as evidenced by the observance of taenia and ascaris infection of peopleduring this time:

a)

Anna Fagelson

b)

Vivian Herrick

c)

Ruth Williams

d)

Alessandra Giliani

34.

The HIV Law is also known as:

a)

RA 8214

b)

RA 8124

c)

RA 8504

d)

RA 8054

35.

A 3-time failure in the Medical Technology Board Examination maybe allowed to take the examination for the 4th time only after the fulfillment of

a)

1 year refresher course in an approved School of Medical Technology

b)

1 year training program in an accredited clinical laboratory

c)

Both

d)

Neither

36.

The etiologic agent of whooping cough is

a)

Bordetella pertussis

b)

Brucella suis

c)

Francisella tularensis

d)

Haemophilus ducreyi

37.

A gram-negative, "kidney bean" cellular morphology is a distinguishing characteristic of

a)

Neisseria meningitidis

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Bartonella spp.

d)

Actinobacter spp.

38.

Pyocyanin is characteristically produced by

a)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

b)

Pseudomonasfluorescens

c)

Shewanella putrefaciens

d)

Stenotrophomonas maltophillia

39.

Production of a yellow pigment is characteristic of which of the following Enterobacter sp.?

a)

E. aerogenes

b)

E. cloacae

c)

E. sakazakii

d)

E. taylorae

40.

Haemophilus ducreyi is the causative agent of

a)

Chancroid

b)

Lymphogranuloma venereum

c)

Trachoma

d)

Whooping cough

41.

What term is used to describe the accumulation of bilirubin in the skin?

a)

Jaundice

b)

Hemolysis C.

c)

Cholestasis

d)

Kernicterus

42.

What is the anticoagulant of choice for blood gas analysis?

a)

EDTA

b)

Heparin

c)

Sodium fluoride

d)

Citrate

43.

What is the specimen of choice for analysis of acid-base disturbances involving pulmonary dysfunction in an adult?

a)

Venous blood

b)

Arterial blood

c)

Capillary blood

d)

Urine

44.

Which of the following is the major mineralocorticoid?

a)

Aldosterone

b)

Cortisol

c)

Corticosterone

d)

Testosterone

45.

Which of the following is not quantified in the triple test for Down syndrome?

a)

a-Fetoprotein

b)

Unconjugated estriol

c)

Progesterone

d)

Human chorionic gonadotropin