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PCT E2

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is an incorrect reason for increased pediatric ADE/ADRs?

a)

Greater Vd

b)

Poor metabolism

c)

Increased elimination

d)

Altered protein binding

2.

Where do the majority of pediatric medication errors occur?

a)

Dispensing

b)

Preparation

c)

Administration

d)

Prescribing

3.

Which of the following increase the chances that a pediatric patient will have an off-label medication?

a)

>28 days old

b)

Greater severity of illness

c)

Undergoing a surgical procedure

d)

All-cause inpatient mortality

4.

Which of the following is not a contraindication to a pediatric patient receiving a live vaccine:

a)

Receiving 30 mg predisone qd for 3 weeks

b)

Primary immunodeficiency

c)

Receiving infliximab for a GI condition

d)

recent stem cell transplant

5.

Select all of the following that are live vaccines:

a)

MMR

b)

Varicella

c)

injected influenza

d)

inhaled influenza

e)

oral rotavirus

6.

What is true of the MMR+V vaccine(s) for pediatric patients?

a)

It is a toxoid and therefore contraindicated in asplenic patients

b)

It has a higher rate of febrile seizures so it should be given separate for at least the first dose

c)

Due to being an encapsulated bacteria, it isn't advised in asplenic patients

d)

The fever should be pre-treated with acetaminophen 1000 mg 30-60 minutes before the vaccine

7.

You're in the delivery room and the nurse evaluating the baby reports an APGAR of 7. Is this a good score?

a)

Yes although 9 is goal

b)

Yes, the baby was napping during delivery and needs some time to wake up. Consider IV caffeine citrate

c)

No, the baby is not alert enough. Treat with po caffeine

d)

No, goal is 1-3

8.

A Caucasian male baby is being delivered by C-section at 36 weeks gestation. The mother has previous history of hyaline membrane disease with another child. What treatment is necessary to avoid neonatal RDS?

a)

Steroids IM 2-4 doses + Vitamin A and surfactant

b)

IV Caffeine citrate + vitamin K and folate

c)

intrathecal penicillin benzathine

d)

Infrasurf + Curasurf

9.

(True/False) Newborns with hyaline membrane disease will go through a honeymoon period where they will clinically improve before declining again.

a)

True

b)

False

10.

ER is a 3 day old, 26 week gestation, 750 gram Caucasian male in the NICU. They are expressing periods of apnea lasting 20 seconds. Sepsis, obstruction, hyaline membrane disease/neonatal RDS, and neurologic abnormalities are ruled out. They are on fluids maintaining hydration. What do you start them on?

a)

Caffeine citrate 20 mg/kg IV loading dose plus 5 mg/kg q24h started 24h after LD. Monitor heart and resp rate, blood gas, and apneic spells

b)

Theophylline 3 mg IV qd. Maintain levels 5-15 mcg/ml. Monitor resp and heart rate.

c)

Nothing, apnea is common for neonates

d)

Ceftriaxone 1g + ampicillin 4g given over 24 hours

11.

What is the purpose of CFTR?

a)

Reducing the salt content of sweat for palatability

b)

Regulating Cl and bicarb transport in airway epithelium and ductal epithelium

c)

Preventing the secretion of Cl, causing the overproduction of mucus

d)

Deleting phenylalanine 508 in mutated tumor cells

12.

What is true of cystic fibrosis damage to the pancreas?

a)

Poor regulation of Cl and bicarb causes precipitation of enzymes that damage pancreatic cells

b)

Cystic fibrosis induces the production of autoantibodies that attack the pancreas

c)

Cystic fibrosis causes higher nutrient requirements that predisposes patients to type 1 diabetes

d)

Pancreatic damage is a possibility but not a concern for cystic fibrosis patients

13.

What is typically the first symptom of cystic fibrosis?

a)

Sweat present on newborns tastes excessively salty

b)

Urine has a sweet taste, hinting at poor kidney function

c)

Meconium ileus, the blockage of the neonate's first stool

d)

The absence of type 2 pneumocytes that would produce surfactant

14.

Select all of the following that are diagnostic tools for cystic fibrosis:

a)

Elevated IRT in the blood

b)

CFTR mutations

c)

Sweat test

d)

Hyperplasia of the vas deferens

15.

Which of the following would support the prediction of a patent ductus arteriosus?

a)

High IL-6 and high PaO2

b)

Low PGE2 and high PaO2

c)

High PGE2 and low PaO2

d)

Low PGE2 and low PaO2

16.

Select all of the following that would be more characteristic of complex febrile seizures:

a)

>15 minutes or more than one occurrence within 24 hours

b)

Generalized electrical activity in one side of the brain

c)

Focal, limited electrical hyperactivity

d)

Can start as a stare or localized jerking

17.

What is a false statement regarding the use of mucolytics for CF treatment?

a)

Many agents require the use of a bronchodilator

b)

Includes Mucomyst, Pulmozyme, Hypersal, etc.

c)

Many have a high risk of bronchoconstriction

d)

Variety of MOAs include cleaving sulfide bonds and destroying products of neutrophil degradation

18.

What is the purpose of adding amikacin liposome as an inhaled antibiotic to a CF regimen?

a)

None, amikacin is contraindicated in cystic fibrosis

b)

Targeting Mycobacteroides avium complex, supported by CONVERT

c)

Bronchodilation by increasing cAMP

d)

Targeting Mycobacterium tuberculosis

19.

Which of the following are true statements regarding microbiology in cystic fibrosis?

a)

Staph aureus infection is common, but prophylaxis will increase Pseudomonas infection

b)

Pseudomonas aeruginosa is used as a predictor of mortality and morbidity

c)

Burkholderia cepacia is linked to unpredictable rapid declines in lung function

d)

Achromobacter are a microbe of major concern, being pan-resistant and causing accelerated lung function decline

e)

Most infections will require combination therapy

20.

You're part of a team initiating the CFTR modulator Orkambi (lumacaftor/ivacaftor) in an 18 year old with the homozygous F508del mutation. Which of the following wouldn't be a consideration for this patient?

a)

Chest tightness as a side effect may lead to Orkambi discontinuation

b)

Their other medications will have to be monitored and adjusted for CYP 3A4 interactions

c)

The drug should be taken with a low fat meal and baby aspirin to prevent flushing

d)

The drug will likely improve lung function, quality of life, and weight gain while decreasing Pseudomonas risk and pulmonary exacerbations

21.

ML is an 8 yr African American male presenting for a vaso-occlusive pain crisis precipitated by fluctuating weather and dehydration. He has significant swelling in his arms and hands and 9/10 pain. The patient is writhing, distressed, and struggles to stay still. How do you treat ML?

a)

IV Fluids and tenecteplase to dissolve the clot

b)

ibuprofen and acetaminophen/hydrocodone

c)

ketorolac and acetaminophen/codeine

d)

IV ketorolac + morphine bolus and PCA

22.

What were the findings of the PROPS I/II trials in regards to antibiotic prophylaxis in sickle cell patients?

a)

Start on oral penicillin by 4 months and stop at 5 years

b)

Start on daily IV amoxicillin by 4 months and stop at 5 years

c)

Antibiotic prophylaxis is not warranted in sickle cell patients due to full immunocompetency

d)

Start on nebulized amikacin liposomal daily for Pseudomonas coverage

23.

A sickle cell patient is admitted for acute chest syndrome, the leading cause of mortality for sickle cell patients. CXR finds partial left atelectasis and pulmonary infiltrates. Which of the following wouldn't be a necessary intervention?

a)

Incentive spirometry, albuterol +- PEP

b)

RBC transfusion

c)

Broad spectrum antibiotics without confirmatory cultures - vancomycin, azithromycin, ceftriaxone, etc.

d)

IV fluid boluses regardless of hydration status

24.

PA is a 4 month old baby being seen for vaccines today. She was given DTaP at 2 months of age as planned, but was given another dose at 3 months of age when it should have been withheld until 4 months. The parent wants to know if they should still get a DTaP today or if the dose at 3 months is acceptable.

a)

Yes, reducing the interval between vaccines still provides full immunity

b)

No, reducing the interval between vaccine doses should be considered as incomplete and should be repeated

c)

No, reducing the interval between vaccine doses increases inflammatory response and predisposes PA to a febrile seizure

d)

No, children shouldn't get DTaP

25.

AC is a premature neonate (28 wks gestation) born to an HBsAg negative mother. He has since done well but is only at 1800 grams. Should they receive the hepatitis B vaccine?

a)

No, the HBV vaccine shouldn't be given to premies <2000 grams

b)

No, the vaccine shouldn't be given until 1 year of age

c)

Yes, either at one month old or at discharge

d)

Yes but only when they reach 2500 grams and 1 month old