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SC 30244 Final Exam Feb 2022 M 5/4

Total questions: 205

Worksheet time: 3hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In RNA, the nitrogen base____ replaces ____ that was present in DNA.

a)

A, U (adenine, uracil)

b)

C, G (cytosine, guanine)

c)

U, T (uracil, thymine)

d)

U, A (uracil, adenine)

2.

The "central dogma" states that genetic information flows from

a)

Protein-->mRNA-->DNA

b)

Protein-->DNA-->mRNA

c)

mRNA-->DNA-->Protein

d)

DNA-->mRNA-->Protein

3.

Which do DNA and RNA have in common?

a)

Both are double stranded.

b)

Both contain ribose molecules.

c)

Both contain phosphate groups.

d)

Both contain uracil.

4.
If the structure of DNA were likened to a ladder, what would make up the “supporting structure” (not the “rungs”) of the ladder?
a)
amino acids and sugars
b)
nucleotide bases, including thymine
c)
nucleotide bases, including uracil
d)
sugar-phosphate molecules
5.
What process is shown in the illustration below?
a)
commensalism
b)
deletion
c)
passive transport
d)
replication
6.
What type of mutation has occurred in Figure 12-3?
a)
substitution
b)
frameshift
c)
lethal
d)
insertion
7.
What is the complimentary mRNA sequence to the DNA sequence A-T-T-G-C-A.
a)
T-A-A-C-G-T
b)
U-A-A-C-G-T
c)
U-A-A-C-G-U
d)
T-A-A-G-C-U
8.
Which defines a codon in DNA or mRNA?
a)
pair of nucleic acid and sugar
b)
pair of phosphate and sugar
c)
three-base code
d)
two-base code
9.
Which of the following sequences of processes correctly reflects the central dogma?
a)
protein synthesis, transcription, translation
b)
protein synthesis, translation, transcription
c)
transcription, translation, protein synthesis
d)
translation, transcription, protein synthesis
10.
A molecule of DNA is made up of _________.
a)
amino acids and proteins
b)
ATP and enzymes
c)
paired nucleotides
d)
receptor enzymes
11.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
12.
Are all mutations bad?
a)
Yes
b)
No
13.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
14.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
chloroplast
d)
nucleus
15.
DNA is often considered the "______________" of life.
a)
Blueprint
b)
Mistake
c)
Swimming Pool
d)
Smelly Cheese
16.
What are the building blocks of proteins called?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
Ribosomes
d)
Amino Acids
17.
DNA has a ______ strand; RNA has a ______ strand.
a)
double/double
b)
double/triple
c)
double/single
d)
single/single
18.
Transcription takes place in the 
a)
cytoplasm
b)
ribosome
c)
mitochondrion
d)
nucleus
19.
Translation occurs in the
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
cytoplasm
d)
golgi apparatus
20.
Assembles RNA during transcription
a)
RNA Polymerase 
b)
Mutations
c)
Gene Expression
d)
Point Mutation
21.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
22.
The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the
a)
promoter
b)
repressor
c)
operator
d)
gene
23.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
24.
The lac operon genes only become expressed if:
a)
lactose binds to the repressor
b)
glucose binds to the repressor
c)
lactose binds to the operator
d)
the repressor binds to the operator
25.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
26.
A certain gene codes for a polypeptide that is 120 amino acids long. Approximately how many nucleotides long is the mRNA that codes for this polypeptide likely to be?
a)
360
b)
480
c)
40
d)
30
27.
How can a person's muscle cells have the same exact DNA sequences as their nerve cells even though the look and perform completely different?
a)
The two different cells become mutated
b)
The proteins expressed in each cell are different
c)
They actually have different DNA in the two types of cells.
d)
The genome of the different cells changes
28.
Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?
a)
prokaryotes (bacteria)
b)
eukaryotes (plant and animals)
c)
animals only
d)
viruses
29.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
a)
The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
b)
A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
c)
All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
d)
DNA was the first genetic material.
30.
Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic gene expression but does occur in eukaryotic gene expression?
a)
mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed
b)
RNA polymerase binds to the promotor
c)
a poly-A tail is added to the ends of the mRNA
d)
Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even alittle
31.
What is the function of the poly-A tail in mRNA?
a)
to add modified guanin to the 3' end of the mRNA
b)
to indicate the site of translational termination
c)
to code for the binding of RNA polymerase to the DNA
d)
to help protect the mRNA from degradation by hydrolytic enzymes 
32.
A possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val would be?
a)
5'-TTG-CTG-CAG-TAG-3'
b)
3'-AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA-5'
c)
3'-AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA-5'
d)
3'-AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA-5'
33.
What amino acid sequence will be produced based on the mRNA codon sequence
5'-AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG-3'
a)
met-ser-leu-ser-leu-ser
b)
met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu
c)
met-leu-phe-arg-glu-glu
d)
met-glu-arg-arg-glu-leu
34.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
35.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
36.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
37.
Which component of DNA determines the traits of an organism? 
a)
Nitrogen Bases
b)
Sugar-Phosphate Backbone
c)
Hydrogen bonds
38.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
39.

What must happen to a newly made polypeptide before it can be secreted from a cell?

a)

it must be translated by a ribosome found in the cytoplasm of the cell and then sent toward the cell membrane

b)

it must be produced by a ribosome on the rough ER and sent to the golgi apparatus

c)

It must be produced by a ribosome in the golgi apparatus and sent to the rough ER.

40.

The image shows part of a polypeptide. What determines the order in which the amino acids are connected to each other in the polypeptide?

a)

the chemical structure of each R-group in the amino acid

b)

the order of the the nitrogenous bases in a gene

c)

the random nature of ribosome function

d)

the sequence of amino acids that make up the gene

41.

What is a promoter?

a)

Sequence of DNA at the beginning of the gene that tells RNA polymerase where to start transcription.

b)

Sequence of RNA that tells the ribosome where to start translation.

c)

Sequence of DNA at the beginning of the gene that tells the ribosome where to start transcription

d)

Sequence of RNA that tells RNA polymerase where to start translation.

42.
What is the location in the cell for translation?
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
ribosome
d)
chloroplast
43.
DNA is inside your cells. What part of the cell is the DNA inside of?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cytoplasm
c)
nucleus
44.
The twisted ladder shape of DNA is referred to as a ....
a)
Twizzler candy
b)
twisted ladder
c)
double helix
d)
yo mama
45.
How are similarities passed from parent to offspring?
a)
through teaching
b)
through learning
c)
through blood
d)
through genes
46.
Which statement about DNA is true?
a)
Different people can have the same copy of DNA in their cells.
b)
DNA is made up of genes that carry hereditary information.
c)
DNA controls the genotype but not the phenotype of an organism.
d)
DNA controls the genotype only in the second and third generations.
Question
47.

What is a gene

a)

A long length of DNA that codes for a chromosome

b)

A short length of DNA that codes for a chromosome

c)

A short length of DNA that codes for a protein.

48.

The number of human chromosomes is

a)

23

b)

46

c)

92

d)

64

49.
A chromosome is best described as a
a)
gene that has more than one form.
b)
green cell found in many plants.
c)
strand of DNA containing genetic information.
d)
reproductive cell found in certain kinds of bacteria
50.
Why are your chromosomes arranged in pairs?
a)
Scientists have no idea
b)
Because you get one from your mom and one from your dad
c)
Because pairs can divide easier
d)
Because DNA is awesome
51.

From smallest to largest how would genetic information be organized?

a)

genes, cell, nucleus, chromosome, DNA

b)

chromosome, cell, gene, DNA, nucleus

c)

DNA, gene, chromosome, nucleus, cell

d)

nucleus, cell, gene, DNA, chromosome

52.
Identify the mutation in the picture.
a)
Inversion
b)
Duplication
c)
Deletion
d)
Translocation
53.

Which one is not chromosomal aberration

a)

Deletion

b)

Duplication

c)

Insertion

d)

Translocation

54.

. In sickle-cell anaemia, ________________

a)

valine is substituted with proline.

b)

valine is substituted with glutamic acid.

c)

glutamic acid is substituted with proline.

d)

glutamic acid is substituted with valine.

55.

Hydroxylamine is a mutagen. It converts cytosine to a compound which pairs up with

adenine. If DNA is treated with hydroxylamine, the mutation which results is an example

of a base ________

a)

deletion

b)

insertion.

c)

inversion.

d)

substitution.

56.

One possible result of chromosomal breakage can be that a fragment reattaches to

the original chromosome in a reverse orientation. This is called ______________

a)

deletion.

b)

inversion

c)

disjunction

d)

translocation

57.

Frameshift mutation is caused by base insertion or deletion except in the case where the number of base pair involved is

a)

one

b)

two

c)

three

d)

seven

58.

Cri du Chat syndrome is due to

a)

deletion at chromosome 9

b)

deletion at chromosome 5

c)

inversion at chromosome 2

d)

duplication at chromosome 3

59.

Errors during DNA replication, repair or recombination can lead to base-pair

substitutions. Such changes are called ____________________

a)

A. conditional mutations.

b)

A. mutagens.

c)

spontaneous mutations

d)

A. saltatory changes.

60.

Non-disjunction involving the X chromosomes occurs during oogenesis and produces two kinds of eggs, XX and O (no X chromosomes). If normal sperms fertilize the two types of eggs, which are the possible genotypes produced?

a)

XX AND XY

b)

XYY AND XO

c)

XXY AND XO

d)

YY AND XO

61.

Generally speaking, males have an XY chromosome, and females have an XX chromosome. However, not everyone is born this way.

What is it called when someone has an XXY chromosomes?

a)

down syndrome

b)

Klinefelter syndrome

c)

Archaeopteryx

d)

dinosaurs

62.

Built models to determine that DNA was a double helix shape with base pairs A-T and G-C in rungs between the sugar/phosphate backbone of DNA.

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

63.

Worked on DNA imaging techniques and published Franklin's x-ray crystallography image of DNA

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

64.

Provided clear x-ray crystallography images of DNA

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

65.

One of the first scientists to use x-ray crystallography to observe DNA, hypothesized that there was a helix shape

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

66.

Discovered that there was the same amount of A and T in a cell, and C and G in a cell.

a)

Watson & Crick

b)

Franklin

c)

Wilkins

d)

Pauling

e)

Chargaff

67.

Using x-ray diffraction to determine the structure of a crystal, such as DNA

a)

x-ray crystallography

b)

gas chromatography

c)

chromatography

d)

gel electrophoresis

68.

A pair of parallel strands that twist together about an axis

a)

nucleotide

b)

double helix

c)

base pair

d)

esther bonds

69.

basic structural unit of DNA. Examples: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

a)

nucleotide

b)

phosphate

c)

ribose sugar

d)

enzyme

70.

basic structural unit of DNA. Examples: adenine, guanine, cytosine, thymine

a)

nucleotide

b)

phosphate

c)

ribose sugar

d)

enzyme

71.

5 carbon sugars and phosphates linked together through chemical bonds to provide the structural framework for nucleotides

a)

chromosome

b)

nucleotide

c)

phosphate-sugar backbone

d)

enzyme

72.

Base pairs (correctly matched)

a)

A-G and C-T

b)

A-C and G-T

c)

A-T and G-C

d)

C-A and T-G

73.

made up of a long strand of DNA that is bonded to proteins in a way that makes them condense/fold to form chromosomes

a)

genetics

b)

chromosome

c)

proteins

d)

DNA

74.

a piece of a chromosome that is composed of specific nucleotide sequences of DNA

a)

chromatid

b)

nucleotide

c)

gene

d)

circular DNA

75.

REVIEW: The property of water that allows for plants to carry water from the soil, through roots and stems, to leaves

a)

pH (neutral, acidic, basic)

b)

hydrogen bonding (adhesion, cohesion)

c)

polarity (soluble, insoluble)

d)

temperature (high heat capacity, solid water's density)

76.

REVIEW: when cells take in oxygen and glucose and convert them into water, carbon dioxide, and ATP energy

a)

DNA synthesis

b)

cellular respiration

c)

breathing

d)

photosynthesis

77.

deoxyribonucleic acid: the molecule that contains the basic instructions for life.

a)

gene

b)

chromosome

c)

DNA

d)

nucleotide

78.
What is the difference between DNA and RNA in terms of bases?
a)
RNA contains uracil in place of thymine
b)
RNA contains uracil in place of adenine
c)
RNA contains uracil in place of guanine
d)
RNA contains uracil in place of  cytosine
79.
Which type of RNA takes the instructions from the nucleus to the cytoplasm?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
RNA polymerase
80.
What is the product of transcription?
a)
DNA
b)
mRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
proteins
81.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
82.
In eukaryotes, functional messenger RNA molecules are made from
a)
exons spliced together after introns are removed
b)
introns spliced together after eons are removed
c)
exons spliced together with introns
d)
long pieces of RNA shortened by the Dicer enzyme
83.
In messenger RNA, each codon specifies a particular
a)
nucleotide
b)
enzyme
c)
amino acid
d)
promoter
84.
RNA has how many strands?
a)
one
b)
two
85.

Factory for making a protein

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

86.

Carries the amino acid used to make a protein

a)

mRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

tRNA

87.

Where does transcription occur?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

ER

88.

This image shows a picture of a ribosome - what type of RNA is this?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

89.

What type of RNA is shown in this image?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

90.

What type of RNA is shown in this image?

a)

rRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

91.

Identify.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

92.

Identify.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

tRNA

93.

Identify.

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

94.

Three consecutive nucleotides on a tRNA molecule

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

anticodon

d)

codon

95.

Three consecutive nucleotides on a mRNA molecule

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

anticodon

d)

codon

96.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
97.
Which change below would result in a different Amino Acid? 
3'-GCT-5'
a)
GTT
b)
TCT
c)
TCC
d)
GCA
98.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-C-C-A-A
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Deletion
c)
Base Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
99.
What type of gene mutation has occurred here? Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
100.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Base Substitution
b)
Base Insertion
c)
Base Inversion
d)
Translocation
101.
A mutation that does NOT show up through protein function is called
a)
deletion mutation
b)
inversion mutation
c)
silent mutation
d)
transverse mutation
102.
Where do mutations occur?
a)
DNA and RNA
b)
DNA 
c)
RNA
d)
mRNA and tRNA
103.
A nonsense mutation produced _________.
a)
A same polypeptide chain
b)
A slightly altered polypeptide chain
c)
A shift in the reading frame
d)
The regulatory sequence being altered.
104.
A base pair substitution can result in all of the following except __________.
a)
Missense mutation
b)
Frameshift Mutation
c)
Silent Mutation
d)
Nonsense mutation
105.
What kind of mutation is the result of an insertion?
a)
Silent Mutation
b)
Missense mutation
c)
Nonsense mutation
d)
Frameshift mutation
106.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

107.

One nucleotide base is changed so only one amino acid

is affected

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Inverse Mutation

108.

A substitution mutation that has no effect

on amino acids sequence

a)

Insertion Mutation

b)

Translocation

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Deletion Mutation

109.

A mutation that results in an amino acid change

a)

Translocation

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Silent Mutation

d)

Expressed Mutation

110.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

111.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

112.

A point mutation where DNA adenine (A)

is replaced by thymine (T) resulting in a single amino acid change during translation(affects blood cell

shape and function)

a)

Encephelitis

b)

Hemophilia

c)

Sickle Cell Anemia

d)

Influenza

113.

True or false, mutations create genetic diversity?

a)

True

b)

False

114.

Mutations are SOMETIMES helpful to the organism.

a)

true

b)

false

115.

Mutations are random.

a)

True

b)

False

116.

Genetic Engineering is...

a)

The manipulation of an organism's genes

b)

The manipulation of an organism's chromosomes

117.

Having 2 sets of chromosomes is called what?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

118.

Where does non-disjunction occur?

a)

Metaphase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Prophase

d)

Telophase

119.

Which is NOT a condition that arises from non disjunction?

a)

Klinefelter Syndrome

b)

Down Syndrome

c)

Turner’s Syndrome

d)

Hurler Syndrome

120.

Having 2 sets of chromosomes is called what?

a)

Diploid

b)

Haploid

121.

What is another name for down syndrome?

a)

Trisomy 18

b)

Trisomy 21

c)

Trisomy 13

d)

Trisomy 23

122.

What is non-disjunction?

a)

Unable to form cells

b)

Unable to form chromosomes

c)

Unable to separate cells

d)

Unable separate chromosomes

123.

The presence of an abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell is called

a)

Euploidy

b)

Aneuploidy

c)

Monoploidy

d)

Polyploidy

124.

Non-disjunction occurs in

a)

Only mitosis

b)

Only meiosis

c)

Both mitosis and meiosis

125.

If non disjunction occurs in meiosis 2, what is not separated?

a)

Homologous chromosomes

b)

Sister chromatids

126.

Non disjunction in what phase causes all gametes to be abnormal?

a)

Anaphase 1

b)

Anaphase 2

127.
Based on the Karyotype shown, at which chromosome pair can we identify a genetic disorder? 
a)
Chromosome pair 5
b)
sex chromosomes
c)
Chromosome pair 21
d)
There are no chromosomal disorders
128.
Which sex chromosomes would indicate a typical human male?
a)
XX
b)
X
c)
XY
d)
XXY
129.

A ______________ is created when chromosomes (homologous pairs) are grouped in ordered pairs and photographed.

a)

pedigree

b)

Punnett Square

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

Karyotype

130.

Analyze the karyotype and determine the type of the non-disjunction that is shown.

a)

This karyotype shows Trisomy 21

b)

This karyotype has no abnormality

c)

This karyotype shows a monosomy at the location of the sex chromosome

d)

This karyotype shows a translocation at location 1 of the karyotype.

131.
Which would be considered a somatic cell?
a)
Sperm cell
b)
Egg Cell
c)
Skin Cell
d)
All of these
132.

Which of the following would be considered a Gamete cell?

a)

Egg Cell

b)

Sperm Cell

c)

Both of these

d)

None of these

133.
Autosomes can be defined as:
a)
chromosomes that help express physical traits
b)
chromosomes that express gender
c)
cells that express traits
d)
cells that express gender
134.
What is the chromosomal condition of the individual whose karyotype is seen in the image?
a)
Monosomy X (Turner's Syndrome)
b)
Trisomy 21 (Down's Syndrome)
c)
Trisomy 13 (Patau Syndrome)
d)
Trisomy 18 (Edwards's Syndrome)
135.
Which statement is NOT true about Karyotypes
a)
Chromosomes (pairs 1-22) are arranged by size
b)
Sex chromosomes are found at the end
c)
A normal karyotype has 46 chromosomes or 23 pairs
d)
Having missing or extra chromosomes does not indicate a disorder
136.

A pair of identical chromosomes shown in a karyotype, one inherited from the female, and one inherited from the male are called

a)

sister chromotids

b)

centromeres

c)

homologous chromosomes

d)

autosomes

137.
What is the haploid number for this Karyotype?
a)
26
b)
27
c)
52
d)
54
138.

Chromosome mutation involving a segment of a chromosome breaking off and attaching to a non-homologous chromosome.

a)

Deletion

b)

Inversion

c)

Translocation

d)

Duplication

139.
When can a mutation be passed on to offspring?
a)
only when the mutation is present during or occurs during mitosis
b)
only when the mutation is present during or occurs during meiosis
c)
when the mutation occurs during mitosis or meiosis
d)
when the mutation occurs in somatic cells
140.

What process occurs during meiosis that can result in chromosomal disorders?

a)

crossing over

b)

non-disjunction

c)

anaphase I

d)

prophase II

141.
Nondisjunction can result in 
a)
trisomy conditions
b)
monosomy conditions
c)
additional sex chromosomes
d)
all of these
142.
What is the sex of this individual?
a)
female
b)
male
143.
What is the sex of this individual?
a)
female
b)
male
144.
Down's syndrome occurs because of a(n)
a)
missing sex chromosome
b)
extra sex chromosome
c)
additional 21st chromosome
d)
additional 18th chromosome
145.
In humans, mitosis produces____ chromosomes and _____ chromosomes after Meiosis
a)
46, 46
b)
92, 46
c)
46, 23
d)
23, 23
146.

Non-disjunctions usually happen during which stage of meiosis?

a)

Anaphase I- When Homologous Pairs do not separate correctly

b)

Anaphase II- When Chromosomes do not separate correctly

c)

Metaphase I- When Homologous Pairs do not condense

d)

Prophase II- When Spindle Fibers do not form

147.

Which response describes the behavior of chromosomes in metaphase I and Anaphase II of meiosis

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

148.

T/F: A zygote is a sex cell.

a)

Truee

b)

False

149.

Humans have a total of how many diploid chromosomes?

a)

23 pairs

b)

22 pairs

c)

48 chromosomes

d)

22 individual chromosomes

150.

How is the doubling of chromosomes prevented in each generation?

a)

Meiosis is a halving mechanism

b)

Mitosis occurs

c)

Body cells combine to form a zygote

d)

All gametes are diploid

151.

This is the attachment point between two sister chromatids

a)

Centromere

b)

Centriole

c)

Chromatid

d)

Chiasma

152.

Crossing over results in... (select all that apply)

a)

Genetic mutation

b)

Recombination of alleles

c)

Genetic diversity

d)

Non-homologous chromosomes trading places

153.

T/F: Crossing over increases genetic variation through recombination, leading to more variety in gametes (sex cells).

a)

True

b)

False

154.

This image shows...

a)

Two separate chromosomes

b)

A bivalent

c)

One pair of sister chromatids

d)

Homologous chromosomes

155.

Identify the phase

a)

Prophase I

b)

Anaphase II

c)

Prophase II

d)

Telophase II

156.

What leads to the vast genetic diversity on our planet? (Select all that apply)

a)

Crossing over

b)

Random orientation

c)

Mutations

d)

Mitosis

157.

What is non-disjunction?

a)

A failure of chromosomes to separate at anaphase.

b)

A hip new pop band.

c)

When chromosomes pair up at the equator.

d)

When chromosomes separate at anaphase

158.

What is trisomy 21?

a)

Too many chromosomes at Chromosome 21 (Down Syndrome)

b)

Too many chromosomes at Chromosome X (Triple X- Syndrome)

c)

A single chromosome at Chromosome 21

d)

Non-disjunction of Chromosome 56

159.

What is Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment?

a)

Just because you get one allele for one gene, doesn't mean you'll get another allele for another gene. The genes are unlinked.

b)

All genes come together regardless of where they are or what chromosome they are on.

c)

All alleles are the same for the same species.

d)

Gametes are guaranteed to get specific alleles on on every single chromosome.

160.
Identify the phase of mitosis
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
161.
Which phase comes NEXT?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
162.
the phase of mitosis in which the sister chromatids separate (pull apart) from each other
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
163.
Which is Metaphase?
a)
A
b)
E
c)
C
d)
F
164.
In what stage are chromosomes separated and moved to opposite poles?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
165.
The point on the chromosome where the two chromatids are held together is the
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
166.
The structure of coiled DNA and proteins that forms in the cells nucleus prior to mitosis is 
a)
centromere
b)
centriole
c)
chromosome
d)
chromatid
167.
A jelly-like substance found inside a cell surrounding its organelles is
a)
cytokenisis
b)
cytoplasm
c)
mitosis
d)
epithelial
168.
The first stage of the cell cycle during which the cell matures and prepares to divide and copies its DNA; The stage the cell stays in the most
a)
interphase
b)
prophase
c)
metaphase
d)
anaphase
169.
What is this phase of mitosis?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
170.
Contains the genetic material and serves as the control center of the cell
a)
nuclear membrane
b)
spindle fibers
c)
nucleus
d)
telophase
171.
Put the stages of mitosis in the correct order.
a)
prophase - metaphase - anaphase - telophase
b)
metaphase - anaphase - prophase - telophase
c)
anaphase - prophase - telophase - metaphase
d)
telophase - metaphase - prophase - anaphase
172.
Chromosomes are made up of two identical sister _____________.
a)
chloroplasts
b)
nuclei
c)
chromatids 
d)
gens
173.
During which stage of the cell cycle does the cell spend a majority of its time?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Cytokinesis
174.
Which cell structure produces the spindle fibers?
a)
Centromeres
b)
Centrioles
c)
Chromatids
d)
Ribosomes
175.
What is the result of mitosis?
a)
1 cell
b)
2 genetically identical cells
c)
2 genetically different cells
d)
4 genetically identical cells
176.
How many times does the cell divide in mitosis?
a)
Once (PMAT)
b)
4 times
c)
2 times
d)
none of these
177.
How many daughter cells are produced in mitosis?
a)
4 new cells
b)
2 new cells
c)
One new cell
d)
none of these
178.

How long does a cell spend dividing?

a)

1 hour

b)

24 hours

c)

1 week

d)

Depends on the type of cell

179.

If a cell has 24 chromosomes, how many sister chromatids does it have?

a)

24

b)

12

c)

48

d)

92

180.

Which part of the chromosome holds the sister chromatids together?

a)

centromere

b)

centriole

c)

chromatin

d)

DNA

181.

What are the two parts of mitotic division?

a)

interphase and mitosis

b)

interphase and cytokinesis

c)

mitosis and cytokinesis

182.

What are the two phases of the cell cycle?

a)

Interphase and Mitotic Division

b)

Mitosis and Cytokinesis

c)

Interphase and Cytokinesis

d)

Metaphase and Interphase

183.

What is being replicated (copied) during interphase?

a)

DNA

b)

mitochondria

c)

glucose

d)

lysosomes

184.

Why must all DNA be copied during interphase?

a)

So each new daughter cell can transport materials for homeostasis.

b)

To release ATP.

c)

So each new cell with have identical information and the cell can function properly.

185.

Why is cell division important for the body?

a)

To get the right amount of water.

b)

To get the right amount on oxygen.

c)

To replace old cells or repair injured tissue.

186.

What is recombinant DNA

a)

DNA from 2 different organisms combined

b)

DNA from 2 different ribosomes

c)

DNA that is separated out from a vector

187.

Which of the following could be used as a vector for a human gene?

a)

Bacterial Plasmid

b)

Bacteria

c)

A mitochondria

d)

mRNA

188.

In which ways can genetic engineering can improve crops

a)

Make them pest or drought resistant

b)

Make them more nutritious

c)

Make them larger

d)

All answers are correct

189.

A circular piece of DNA, found in bacteria, is called:

a)

A plasmid

b)

mRNA

c)

Ribosome

d)

Nucleotide

190.
When DNA is manipulated and moved from one source to another it is known as
a)
genetic engineering
b)
electrophoresis
c)
gene therapy
d)
GMO
191.
Plasmids, yeast, and viruses are known as ____________.
a)
restriction enzymes
b)
vectors
c)
genetically modified organisms
d)
bacteria
192.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
193.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.
194.
Which is used to cut DNA molecules at specific points?
a)
gel electrophoresis
b)
PCR analysis
c)
a restriction enzyme
d)
recombinant DNA
195.
Transgenic organisms contain
a)
genes from other species.
b)
cells of another organism.
c)
genes of only one parent.
d)
one or more human genes.
196.
Genes found on DNA contain the instructions for making  
a)
pyrimidines 
b)
pyrimidines
c)
proteins
d)
purines
197.
simple ring of DNA from prokaryotes
a)
plasmid
b)
restriction enzymes
c)
recombinant DNA
d)
gene
198.
Any change or mistake in DNA replication can cause a ________  
a)
cancer cell 
b)
virus
c)
disease
d)
mutation
199.
Which of the following have been produced by selective breeding?
a)
horse breeds
b)
cat breeds
c)
dog breeds
d)
all of the above
200.
The purpose of selective breeding is to 
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
201.
The process of selecting a few organisms with desired traits to serve as parents of the next generation.
a)
Gene Therapy
b)
Genome
c)
Selective Breeding
d)
Pedigree
202.
The transfer of a gene from the DNA of one organism into another organism in order to produce an organism with desired traits.
a)
Genetic Engineering
b)
Karyotype
c)
Pedigree
d)
Genome
203.
The purpose of selective breeding is to 
a)
Get bigger animals
b)
get smaller animals
c)
create animals with desirable traits
d)
create animals with bad traits
204.
Where humans have bred organisms together based on traits we like.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction 
d)
Artificial Selection
205.
Problems with selective breeding include
a)
Better animals
b)
More Meat
c)
Animals can have bad health problems
d)
more diversity

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