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EXAM 1NUR 204

Total questions: 109

Worksheet time: 2hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Bronchial breath sounds can be auscultated where?

a)

Peripheral lung fields

b)

Sternal area

c)

Mid-scapulae area

d)

Tracheal area

2.

These type of breath sounds are found at the site of the bronchi and are located anteriorly at the 1st and 2nd intercostal space & posteriorly in between the scapulae?

a)

Crackles

b)

Wheezes

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Vesicular

3.

These breath sounds are found anteriorly and posteriorly throughout the peripheral lung fields?

a)

High-pitched wheezes

b)

Vesicular

c)

Discontinuous

d)

Bronchial

4.

While assessing a patient's lung sounds you note bronchial breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields. What could this finding represent?

a)

This is a normal finding.

b)

Pulmonary emboli

c)

Lung consolidation like with pneumonia

d)

Pleuritis

5.

Select all of the following that are considered discontinuous breath sounds:

a)

High-pitched wheeze

b)

Stridor

c)

Pleural friction rub

d)

Fine crackles

e)

Coarse Crackles

6.

True or False: Low-pitched wheezes are polyphonic sounds that can be cleared when coughing.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

This lung sound is continuous, high-pitched with musical instrument sound that is polyphonic and occurs mainly during expiration but can be present with inspiration as well?

a)

Stridor

b)

Fine crackles

c)

High-pitched wheeze

d)

High-pitched crackles

8.

On auscultation of a patient in respiratory distress, you hear a high-pitched, harsh sound that is monophonic and is present only during inspiration. This is known as

a)

Stridor

b)

Vesicular

c)

Rales

d)

Rhonchi

9.

You are auscultating a patient's lung sounds. During your assessment, you note there is a low-pitched harsh, grating sound that sounds like a pleural friction rub. However, you're not sure if this is a pleural friction rub or pericardial friction rub. What do you do next to determine the difference?

a)

Have the patient cough and see if the sound clears

b)

Assess the posterior lower lobe only

c)

Have the patient hold their breath and note if the sound is still present

d)

Place the patient in supine position and reassess for the sound

10.

True or False: The left lung has 3 lobes: left upper lobe, left middle lobe, and left lower lobe.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

True or False: During auscultation, the anterior part of the chest mainly provides an assessment of the upper lobes of the right and left lungs, while the posterior part of the chest provides mainly provides an assessment of the lower lobes of the right and left lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

When auscultating the anterior part of the chest, specifically the apex of the lungs, it is best to auscultate where with the stethoscope?

a)

Slightly above the clavicle

b)

2nd intercostal space mid-clavicular

c)

4th intercostal space mid-clavicular

d)

6th intercostal space mid-axillary line

13.

The right middle lobe is auscultated with the stethoscope where?

a)

Posteriorly on the right at the 4th intercostal space

b)

Anteriorly on the right at the 4th intercostal space

c)

Anteriorly between C7 to T3

d)

Posteriorly between T3 to T10

14.

When auscultating the posterior part of the chest the upper lobes are found?

a)

Between C9 to T10

b)

Between T3 to T10

c)

Between C7 to T3

d)

Directly over the scapulae

15.

a)

High-pitched, polyphonic wheeze

b)

Fine Crackles

c)

Stridor

d)

Bronchial

16.

a)

Vesicular

b)

Bronchial

c)

Low-pitched, monophonic wheeze

d)

Fine Crackles

17.

a)

Rales

b)

Stridor

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural Friction Rub

18.

a)

Stridor

b)

Vesicular

c)

Coarse Crackles

d)

Bronchial

19.

a)

Low-pitched, monophonic wheeze

b)

High-pitched, monophonic wheeze

c)

Vesicular

d)

Bronchial

20.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Low-pitched, monophonic wheeze

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural Friction Rub

21.

a)

Stridor

b)

Pleural Friction Rub

c)

Vesicular

d)

Low-pitched, monophonic wheeze

22.

a)

Fine Crackles

b)

Bronchovesicular

c)

Coarse Crackles

d)

Pleural Friction Rub

23.

a)

Coarse Crackles

b)

Bronchial

c)

Low-pitched, monophonic wheeze

d)

Stridor

24.

The nurse is auscultating a patient's heart sounds. Which area is best for hearing the sound of the mitral valve?

a)

Fifth left intercostal space at the midclavicular line

b)

Second left intercostal space at the sternal border

c)

Fourth left intercostal space at the left sternal border

d)

Second right intercostal space at the sternal border

25.

Which conditions may cause a pathologic S3, or a ventricular gallop? Select all that apply.

a)

Anemia

b)

Pregnancy

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Cardiomyopathy

26.

What is indicated in a patient with pathologic S3?

a)

A stenotic heart valve

b)

Coronary artery disease

c)

Vigorous atrial contraction

d)

Decreased compliance of the ventricles

27.

What are chordae tendineae?

a)

These are muscles that are attached to the ventricles.

b)

These are tendons that hold the semilunar valves in alignment.

c)

These are structures that separate the right and the left ventricles.

d)

These are collagenous fibers that anchor the leaflets of the atrioventricular valves.

28.

The nurse is preparing a patient for cardiac assessment. Which interventions should the nurse follow while assessing?

a)

Compress on the carotid artery during the assessment.

b)

Have the patient sit during the carotid artery assessment.

c)

Put the patient in a supine position to assess the precordium.

d)

Maintain a warm room temperature during cardiac assessment.

e)

Assess the neck vessels first during the cardiovascular assessment.

29.

Which findings should the nurse observe in a patient with left ventricular hypertrophy?

a)

. Visible apical heave

b)

Change in heart location

c)

Impalpable apical impulse

d)

Diameter of the heart 3.5 cm

e)

Higher jugular venous pressure

30.

While assessing a patient with pulmonic stenosis, the nurse hears medium pitched murmurs in the left second intercostal space. Which finding does the nurse observe in the patient?

a)

Accentuated S 1

b)

Fixed split S 2

c)

Pathologic S 3

d)

Pathologic S 4

31.

The nurse determines that a patient has an increased risk for having a myocardial infarction. Which medication would be beneficial for the patient?

a)

Aspirin (Ecotrin)

b)

Ibuprofen (Advil)

c)

Diclofenac (Cambia)

d)

Acetaminophen (Apra)

32.

The patient reports having a sudden stabbing pain below the sternum, in the upper back, and in the neck. During the assessment, the nurse also finds that the patient has a fever, joint pains, and a dry cough. What condition is most consistent with these findings?

a)

Pericarditis

b)

Angina pectoris

c)

Myocardial infarction

d)

Pulmonary hypertension

33.

Which heart rate would be found in an infant with bradycardia?

a)

50 beats/minute

b)

70 beats/minute

c)

80 beats/minute

d)

90beats/minute

34.

The nurse is caring for a patient who has an incompetent tricuspid valve. Where should the nurse observe the palpable thrill in this patient?

a)

Fifth interspace at around the left midclavicular line

b)

Second left interspace

c)

Second right interspace

d)

Left lower sternal border

35.

Which assessment finding indicates abnormally elevated pressures in the right side of the heart?

a)

Pulmonary congestion

b)

Pulmonary hypertension

c)

distended neck veins and abdomen

d)

systolic blood pressure higher than diastolic blood pressure

36.

Which statement describes a thrill

a)

Palpable vibration in the chest

b)

Apical impulse

c)

Associated with a venous hum

d)

Sustained thrust of the ventricle of the heart

37.

The nurse is planning the cardiac assessment of a patient. Which patient positions are necessary during this assessment?

a)

Sitting

b)

Prone

c)

Supine

d)

Right lateral semi-Fowler

e)

Left lateral recumbent

38.

Which physiologic mechanism causes the first heart sound

a)

closing of the mitral valve

b)

Filling of the ventricle

c)

Closing of the aortic valve

d)

Closing of the pulmonic valve

39.

Which cardiac assessment findings are documented as normal? select all that apply

a)

Absence of cardiac murmur

b)

S2 is louder at the base of the heart

c)

Accentuated first heart sound S1

d)

Diminished second heart sound S2

e)

Absence of equal and bilateral breath sounds

40.

Which feature is characteristic of the third heart sound S3

a)

Varies with inspiration

b)

Sound pitch remains the same

c)

Occurs in the second left interspace

d)

Occurs at the left lower sternal border

41.

The nurse is preparing a patient for cardiac assessment. Which interventions should the nurse follow while assessing?

a)

Compress on the carotid artery during the assessment

b)

Have the patient sit during the carotid artery assessment.

c)

Put the patient in a supine position to assess the precordium.

d)

Maintain a warm room temperature during cardiac assessment

e)

Assess the neck vessels first during the cardiovascular assessment.

42.

Which assessment finding may be present in a patient with atherosclerosis

a)

low-pitched rumbling

b)

presence of bruit sound

c)

weak contraction of the ventricles

d)

unilateral distention of external jugular veins

43.

The accumulation of lymph in the breasts and upper arms is a results of an obstruction of which lymph nodes

a)

Cervical

b)

Axillary

c)

Inguinal

d)

Epitrochlear

44.

The nurse documents the pulse of the patient as weak 1+. Which conditions in the patient correlate with a weak and thready 1+ pulse?

a)

shock

b)

fever

c)

Anemia

d)

Peripheral artery disease

45.

After measuring pitting edema in a patient, the nurse documents it as +4 grade. Which findings support the nurse's documentation?

a)

The patient has very deep pitting.

b)

The patient has grossly swollen legs.

c)

The patient has indentation of long duration.

d)

The patient has moderate pitting

e)

The patient has indentation of short duration

46.

Which class of medications would be most beneficial for a bedridden patient who reports sudden sharp pain the legs, which upon assessment are found to be warm, red, and edematous

a)

Analgesics

b)

Antibiotics

c)

Anticoagulants

d)

Antihypertensive

47.

Which statement describes a lift with respect to the cardiovascular system?

a)

Vibration felt over the apex of the heart

b)

Sustained thrust of the ventricle of the heart

c)

Exaggerated pulse felt on the carotid artery

d)

Murmur over the second right intercostal space during diastole

48.

The nurse instructs a student nurse to palpate the carotid artery of a patient. Which action made by the student nurse needs correction?

a)

Having the patient sit during the exam

b)

Palpating both carotid arteries at once

c)

Refraining from excess vagal stimulation

d)

Not compressing on the carotid sinuses

49.

When performing indirect percussion, the stationery finger is struck:

a)

At the ulnar surface

b)

At the middle joint

c)

At the distal interphalangeal joint

d)

Wherever it is in contact with the skin

50.

The bell of the stethoscope is used:

a)

For soft, low-pitched sounds

b)

For high pitched sounds

c)

To hold firmly against the skin

d)

To magnify sound

51.

To assess a patient's abdomen by palpation, how should the nurse proceed?

a)

Avoid palpation of reported "tender" areas because this may cause the patient pain

b)

Quickly palpate a tender area to avoid any discomfort that the patient may experience

c)

Begin the assessment with deep palpation, encouring the patient to relax and take deep breaths

d)

Start with light palpation to detect surface characteristics and to accustom the patient to being touched

52.

Please select correct statement on how to use diaphragm (Select all that apply.)

a)

It is best for high-pitched sounds.

b)

It is for breath, bowel, and normal heart sounds.

c)

It is for extra heart sounds or murmurs.

d)

The nurse will hold the diaphragm firmly against the person's skin, firm enough to leave a slight ring afterward.

e)

The nurse will hold the diaphragm lightly against the person's skin, just enough that it forms a perfect seal.

53.

What percussion sound would a nurse hear when percussing over normal lung tissue?

a)

Resonant

b)

Tympany

c)

Dull

d)

Flatt

54.

A client has a history of emphysema. The nurse percusses the chest, expecting to find which of the following?

a)

Hyperresonance

b)

Tympany

c)

Resonance

d)

Dullness

55.

In crease respiration in both rate and depth. It occurs with anxiety, diabetic ketoacidosis (Kussmaul respirations).

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Biot respiration

d)

Bradypnea

e)

Cheyne-stokes respiration

56.

Rapid, shallow breathing, increased rate > 24 per minute.

a)

Hyperventilation

b)

Tachypnea

c)

Biot respiration

d)

Bradypnea

57.

An irregular patterns of a series of normal respiration followed by a period of apnea; It may occur with head trauma or encephalitis.

a)

Biot respiration

b)

Hyperventilation

c)

Tachypnea

d)

Bradypnea

e)

Cheyne-stokes respiration

58.

An irregular slow and shallow breathing pattern caused by an overdose of narcotics.

a)

Biot respiration

b)

Bradypnea

c)

Cheyne-Stokes respiration

d)

Hypoventilation

e)

Tachypnea

59.

Croup and acute epiglottitis, obstructed airway.

a)

Stridor

b)

Crackles

c)

Wheeze

d)

Rhonchi

e)

Pleural friction rub

60.

Discontinuous, high-pitched, short crackling, popping sounds during inspiration, not cleared by coughing

a)

Crackles

b)

Stridor

c)

Wheezing

d)

Rhonchi

e)

pleural friction

61.

Coarse and low pitched with a grating quality as if two pieces of leather are being rubbed together

a)

Pleural friction

b)

crackles

c)

stridor

d)

Wheezing

62.

Secretions in larger airways.

a)

Crackles

b)

pleural friction rub

c)

Wheezing

d)

Rhonchi

e)

Stridor

63.

High-pitched, musical squeaking sounds predominantly in expiration;

a)

Wheeze

b)

Stridor

c)

Pleural Friction

d)

Rhonchi

e)

crackles

64.

Low-pitched with musical snoring quality, more prominent on expiration.

a)

rhonchi

b)

wheezing

c)

crackles

d)

stridor

e)

pleural friction

65.

High-pitched, inspiratory, crowing sound

a)

Rhonchi

b)

Wheeze

c)

Stridor

d)

Pleural friction

66.

In egophony, you should hear "aaaaaa" sound in healthy person's lungs.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

What type of respiratory pattern would the nurse consider normal in a client with severe heart failure?

a)

Cheyene-stokes

b)

Kussmaul's

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Biot's

68.

When percussing the scapula of a patient, which of the following would the nurse expect to hear?

a)

Resonance

b)

Dullness

c)

Flatness

d)

Hyperresonance

69.

During a health history, a male patient tells the nurse that he "can't breathe well" at night when he is lying down and has trouble sleeping because he wakes up with trouble breathing. The nurse would assess this patient further for which of the following?

a)

Pneumonia

b)

Tuberculosis

c)

Bronchitis

d)

Heart failure

70.

What would the nurse expect to hear when auscultating the lungs of a patient with pleuritis?

a)

Friction rub

b)

Decreased breath sounds

c)

Sibilant wheeze

d)

stridor

71.

When assessing whispered pectoriloquy, the nurse would instruct a patient to do which of the following?

a)

Softly repeat the words "one-two-three"

b)

Say "ninety-nine"

c)

Cough each time the stethoscope is moved

d)

Say the letter "e"

72.

Changes in clarity and volume of spoken sounds during auscultation of the lungs can help you distinguish

a)

right from left tracheal deviation

b)

foreign body from mucus

c)

pulmonary edema from pleurisy

d)

consolidation from obstruction

73.

Which of the following would be best for a nurse to use when assessing for fremitus in a client?

a)

Dorsal hand surface

b)

Pads of fingers

c)

Palmar base (ulnar base)

d)

Fist

74.

Select decreased breath sounds in the following common lung diseases (Select all that apply.)

a)

Emphysema: permanent enlargement of air sacs distal to terminal bronchioles and rupture of interalveolar walls due to destruction of pulmonary connective tissue

b)

Heart failure: increased pressure in the pulmonary veins causes congestion and interstitial edema

c)

Pleural effusion: fluid accumulates in the pleural space and separates air-filled lung from the chest wall.

d)

Pneumothorax: when air leaks into the pleural space, partial or complete lung collapse

e)

Atelectasis (Lobar obstruction): when a plug in a mainstem bronchus obstructs air flow, affected lung tissue collapses into an airless state

75.

Please select the normal lung assessment technique

a)

When assessment chest expansion, place your hands on the posterolateral chest wall with thumbs pointing together at the level of T5 or T6.

b)

When examining for tactile fremitus, it is important to palpate the chest symmetrically.

c)

In percussion, start percussing at the base.

d)

Auscultate the lung fields over the anterior chest from the apices in the supraclavicular ares down to the 6th rib.

e)

Inspection includes chest shape and configuration, person's position, skin color, breathing effort, and level of consciousness.

76.

Normal respirate rate for adult is 10-20 breaths per minute.

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Dullness to percussion in intercostal spaces suggests the presence of: (select all that apply.)

a)

Emphysema: permanent enlargement of air sacs distal to terminal bronchioles and rupture of interalveolar walls due to destruction of pulmonary connective tissue

b)

Lobar pneumonia: alveoli fill with fluid or blood cells as in pneumonia, pulmonary edema

c)

Atelectasis (Lobar obstruction): when a plug in a mainstem bronchus obstructs air flow, affected lung tissue collapses into an airless state

d)

Chronic bronchitis: the bronchi are chronically inflamed and a productive cough is present

e)

Pleural effusion: fluid accumulates in the pleural space and separates air-filled lung from the chest wall.

78.

A nurse asks a patient to say "ninety-nine" as the nurse palpates the posterior thorax. The nurse is assessing which of the following?

a)

Fremitus

b)

Egophony

c)

Chest expansion

d)

Bronchophony

79.

Heard from trachea and laynx.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

pleura

80.

Expiration is longer than inspiration

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural

81.

Inspiration is longer than expiration.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleura

82.

Over major bronchi where fewer alveoli are located: posterior, between scapulae; anterior around upper sternum in first and second intercostal spaces.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural

83.

Low pitch and soft amplitude.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural

84.

Over peripheral lung fields where air flows through smaller bronchioes and alveoli.

a)

Bronchial

b)

Vesicular

c)

Bronchovesicular

d)

Pleural

85.

defect or sac formed by dilation in artery wall due to atherosclerosis, trauma, or congenital defect

a)

aneurysm

b)

ascites

c)

borborygmi

d)

bruit

86.

Please select INCORRECT statement about split S2.

a)

A split S2 occurs toward the end of inspiration in some people.

b)

In split S2, the aortic valve closes slightly before the pulmonic valve toward the end of the inspiration.

c)

A split S2 is heard only in the aortic valve area, the second right interspace.

d)

The split S2 occurs because inspiration separates the timing of the aortic and pulmonic valve's closures due to the effects of respiration on heart.

87.

A pathologic S4 (artrial gallop) occurs with coronary artery disease (CAD) or cardiomyopathy.

a)

True

b)

False

88.

A pathologic S3 (Ventricular gallop) occurs with heart failure and volume overload.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

The nurse notices that the heart rate is irregular. What is the next step?

a)

Listen for extra heart sounds.

b)

Listen for murmurs.

c)

Auscultate all auscultatory areas.

d)

Check for a pulse deficit.

90.

The examiner is palpating the apical impulse. Which is a normal-sized impulse?

a)

Less than 1 cm

b)

Approximately 1x 2 cm

c)

3 cm

d)

Varies depending on the size of the person

91.

You'll hear a split S2 most clearly in what area?

a)

Right 2nd inter costal space

b)

Left second inter costal space

c)

Left sternal border

d)

Left 5th inter costal space at midclavicular line

92.

The second heart sound is the result of: __________ of the _______ valve and _____ valve.

(a)  

93.

The heart's filling phase

a)

Apex

b)

Systole

c)

Diastole

d)

Ventricle

94.

Blowing, swooshing sound heard through a stethoscope when an artery is partially occluded

a)

S4

b)

Apical impulse

c)

Bruit

d)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

95.

A heart sound that is very soft, low-pitched, ventricular filling sound that occurs in late diastole; heard immediately before S1

a)

S4

b)

Bruit

c)

Apical impulse

d)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

96.

Pulsation created as the left ventricle rotates against the chest wall during systole, normally at the 5th left intercostal space in the midclavicular line

a)

Apical impulse

b)

S4

c)

Bruit

d)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

97.

Increase in thickness of myocardial wall that occurs when the heart pumps against chronic outflow obstruction

a)

Thrill

b)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

c)

Apical impulse

d)

S4

98.

Palpable vibration on the chest wall accompanying severe heart murmur

a)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

b)

Apical impulse

c)

Thrill

d)

Tachycardia

99.

Rapid heart rate, >100 beats per minute in the adult

a)

Thrill

b)

Vetnricular hypertrophy

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Apical impulse

100.

Tip of the heart pointing down toward the 5th left intercostal space

a)

Mitral valve

b)

Bicuspid valve

c)

Tricuspid valve

d)

Apex

101.

Uncomfortable awareness of rapid or irregular heart rate

a)

palpitation

b)

anxiety

c)

S3

d)

heart failure

102.

A heart sound that is soft, low-pitched, ventricular filling sound that occurs in early diastole and may be an early sign of heart failure; heard right after S2.

a)

S1

b)

S2

c)

S3

d)

S4

103.

A heart sound that occurs with closure of the atrioventricular (AV) valves signaling the beginning of systole

a)

s1

b)

s2

c)

s3

d)

s4

104.

Flat endpiece of the stethoscope used for hearing relatively high-pitched heart sounds

a)

Bell

b)

Diaphragm

c)

Pods

d)

mic

105.
a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

Normal S1 & S2

c)

Tachycardia

d)

Atrial flutter

e)

Bradycardia

106.

a)

S3

b)

Normal S1 & S2

c)

S4

d)

Premature contractions

107.

a)

S3

b)

Normal S1& S2

c)

S4

d)

Premature contractions

108.

a)

Ventricular fibrillation

b)

MURMUR Mitral Regurgitation

c)

MURMUR Aortic Stenosis

d)

Atrial fibrillation

109.

a)

Atrial fibrillation

b)

MURMUR: Aortic Stenosis

c)

MURMUR: Mitral Regurgitation

d)

Atrial flutter