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Worksheets

Test

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which type of culture media is shown in this

image?

a)

Solid media

b)

Semi solid media

c)

Liquid media

d)

All of the above

2.

Donated blood undergoes screening

for which diseases?

a)

HIV

b)

Viral Hepatitis

c)

Diabetes

d)

Both A & B

3.

In a blood transfusion, the infectious agent or

infection usually has the following

characteristics:

a)

Presence in the blood for long periods

b)

Stability in blood stored at 4 degree C or lower

c)

Long incubation period

d)

All of the above

4.

In syphilis, a primary lesion usually occurs

about three weeks after exposure is called?

a)

Boils

b)

Chancre

c)

Checer

d)

All of the above

5.

Immunity acquired after an infection is

a)

Active immunity

b)

Passive immunity

c)

Innate immunity

d)

Both B & C

6.

Match the following

a)

A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

b)

A-2, C-1, B-3, D-4

c)

A-1,B-2, C-4, D-3

d)

A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

7.

How often these blood components can

be donated

a)

A(1), B(2), C(4), D(3)

b)

A(1), B(4), C(2),D(3)

c)

A(4), B(I), C(2), D(3)

d)

A(1), B(4), C(3), D(2)

8.

An autoimmune disorder may result in:

a)

The destruction of one or more types of body

tissue

b)

Abnormal growth of an organ

c)

Changes in organ function

d)

All of these

9.

Rheumatoid arthritis is an..……………disease that affects

the…………

a)

Autoimmune/nerves

b)

Autoimmune/ joints

c)

Immunodeficiency/ muscles

d)

Allergic/ muscles

10.

An autoimmune disorder affecting the myelin

sheath

- the protective coating that surrounds

nerve cels

a)

Rheumatoid arthritis

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Myasthenia gravis

d)

Multiple sclerosis

11.

In Hashimoto's thyroiditis, thyroid hormone

production

a)

Slows

b)

Increases

c)

Remain same

d)

Doesn't affect thyroid.

12.

• Pernicious anemia affects a protein called

intrinsic factor that helps the intestines

absorb -------------from food

a)

Vitamin B-6

b)

Vitamin B-12

c)

Protein

d)

All of the above

13.

What type of angulation of tilting of the slide is required to spread the culture on slide in

negative staining?

a)

Acute angle

b)

Obtuse angle

c)

Right angle

d)

Reflex angle

14.

What is the name of the procedure performed

under sterile conditions to eliminate

contamination in hopes to obtain a pure

culture of one type of microorganism?

a)

Sterilization technique

b)

Disinfectant technique

c)

Aseptic Condition

d)

Pathogen technique

15.

What is the purpose of adding nutrients to the

culture media?

a)

Microbial growth

b)

To kill microbes

c)

To provide variety in growth

d)

To remove toxicity in the culture

16.

At what temperature is the medium allowed to

cool after the agar is melted perfectly?

a)

35c

b)

40c

c)

45c

d)

20c

17.

Which method is shown in this image?

a)

Tube method

b)

Streak plate technique

c)

Spread method

d)

None of the above

18.

Which is the preferred method of specimen

collection for a urine culture?

a)

Mid stream urine

b)

Clean catch urine

c)

Whole urine

d)

None of the above

19.

Choose the right quantity of peptone & agar

for MacConkey agar.

a)

17 g/ 13.5 g

b)

15 g/ 12.5 g

c)

12 g/ 10.5 g

d)

10 g/ 15.5 g

20.

Which of the following is not a component of

LJ medium?

a)

Dextrose

b)

Malachite green

c)

Egg suspension

d)

Monopotassium phosphate

21.

Which of the following things do we need to

avoid while preparing the LJ medium?

a)

Air bubbles

b)

Aseptically mixing of component

c)

121°C temperature

d)

Slanted position of tubes

22.

For which of the following microorganisms is

the SDA used?

a)

Yeasts, molds and aciduric bacteria

b)

Yeasts, parasites and aciduric bacteria

c)

Yeasts, virus and aciduric bacteria

d)

Fungi, protozoa and aciduric bacteria

23.

At what temperature and duration should the

test tube be incubated in the test tube method

of coagulase test?

a)

40 - 47° C for 6 hours

b)

25 - 30° C for 3 to 4 hours

c)

35 - 37° C for 10 - 12 hours

d)

35 - 37° C for 3 to 4 hours

24.

In what type of agar plate the direct plate

method of oxidase test is carried out?

a)

Non-selective agar plate

b)

Selective agar plate

c)

Heating plate

d)

Nutrient plates

25.

In the test-tube method of oxidase test,

the color changes to purple within 2 to 3

minutes.

What does it represent?

a)

Oxidase positive

b)

Oxidase negative

c)

Delayed oxidase positive

d)

None of the above

26.

Which of the following is not the component of

gaspak anaerobic system?

a)

Anaerobic jar

b)

Lid with gasket

c)

Indicator strip

d)

Non catalyst

27.

Which of the following are not among the

reducing agents used for the bacterial

cultivation?

a)

0.5% glucose

b)

1% Ascorbic acid

c)

0.1% Cysteine

d)

0.1% Sulphuric acid

28.

Why is paraffin oil put in Robertson cooked

medium after inoculation?

a)

To prevent 02 entry

b)

To prevent CO2 entry

c)

To prevent NO2 entry

d)

To prevent S02 entry

29.

What do you understand by the term colony

morphology?

a)

Preparation and processing of reagents for

culture

b)

Examination of the form and structure of

bacterial colonies

c)

Classification of bacterial colonies in terms of

diseases it cause

d)

Both A & C

30.

Which is the useful preliminary step in

identifying bacteria in bacterial culture?

a)

Colony morphology

b)

Colony histology

c)

Colony physiology

d)

Colony physiology

31.

What would be the appearance of the culture if

some bacteria does not produce any pigment?

a)

Yellow

b)

Pink or Purple

c)

Red

d)

White or Gray

32.

Which statement is true about the nutrient

agar?

a)

Reduces the growth of bacteria

b)

Grow a variety of bacteria and fungi, and

contains many nutrients needed for the

bacterial growth

c)

Grow only few bacteria and fungi, and contains

low nutrients needed for the bacterial growth

d)

Kills all the bacteria

33.

Which of the following is not needed in the

composition of nutrient agar?

a)

10% NaCI

b)

0.3% beef extract/yeast extract

c)

0.5% Peptone

d)

Distilled water

34.

What is the correct amount of nutrient agar

powder and distilled water required for

nutrient agar preparation?

a)

20 g of nutrient agar powder in 1 liter of distilled

water

b)

22 g of nutrient agar powder in 2 liter of distilled

water

c)

24 g of nutrient agar powder in 1 liter of distilled

water

d)

28 g of nutrient agar powder in 1 liter of distilled

water

35.

How do we add extra nutrients to make blood

agar enriched culture media?

a)

By adding blood to the basal medium.

b)

By adding serum to the basal medium.

c)

By adding egg yolk to the basal medium.

d)

All of the above are Correct

36.

Which of the following shows no hemolysis of

RBC?

a)

Beta hemolysis

b)

Delta hemolysis

c)

Alpha hemolysis

d)

Gamma hemolysis

37.

Why does the medium turn brown in chocolate

agar?

a)

Due to the lysis (breakdown) of red blood cells

b)

Due to the bacteria

c)

Due to the proper autoclaving

d)

Due to nutrients

38.

Which of the following is not the indication for

stool chemistry?

a)

Screen colon cancer

b)

Look for parasites like pinworms

c)

Look for causes of urinary tract infection

d)

Check malabsorption syndrome

39.

In which all conditions, plasty stool can be

seen?

a)

Common bile duct obstruction

b)

Celiac diseases

c)

Cystic fibrosis

d)

All of the above

40.

Increased level of ketone bodies in blood

indicates what disease?

a)

Diabetic ketoacidosis

b)

Diabetics mellitus

c)

Diabetes insipidus

d)

None of the above

41.

How is bilirubin formed?

a)

Breakdown in spleen and bone

b)

Breakdown in liver and bone

c)

Breakdown in lymphatics and blood

d)

Breakdown in gall bladder and kidney

42.

What is the most commonly used methods for

bilirubin

a)

Harrison spot test

b)

Hare shred test

c)

Haustin test

d)

Honitus test

43.

What is the shape of yeast cells?

a)

Ovoid bodies

b)

Round bodies

c)

Biconcave bodies

d)

Concave bodies

44.

Yeast cells are found in which diseases?

a)

UTIs

b)

Diabetes mellitus

c)

Vaginal Candidiasis

d)

Gastrointestinal infection

45.

Which of the following is not the function of

serum cholesterol?

a)

Steroid formation

b)

For cellular membranes

c)

For cell wall formation

d)

None of the above

46.

How much is the ideal wavelenght and

temperature used during testing for serum

total cholesterol?

a)

Wavelength (205 nm) & temperature (30

degrees)

b)

Wavelength (305 nm) & temperature (33

degrees)

c)

Wavelength (505 nm) & temperature (37

degrees)

d)

Wavelength (705 nm) & temperature (39

degrees)

47.

What is the normal reference value for healthy

cholesterol?

a)

>200 mg/dl

b)

>400 mg/dI

c)

>600 mg/dl

d)

>800 mg/dl

48.

What is the precipitating reagent used for the

estimation method of serum HDL cholesterol?

a)

Polyethylene methanol

b)

Polyethylene glycol

c)

Poly ethyl ethanol

d)

Polyester

49.

Which of the following are not functions of

phosphorous?

a)

Helps with bone growth

b)

Helps with energy storage

c)

Helps with nerve & muscle production

d)

Helps with exercise

50.

Which is the common method used for serum

phosphorous test?

a)

Mod Gomorri's method

b)

Mod Goon's method

c)

Mod Gomorrah's method

d)

Mod Gorgon's method