WorksheetsMod A final
Total questions: 179
Worksheet time: 6hrs 58mins
After the insertion of an arteriovenous graft (AVG) in the right forearm, a patient complains of pain and coldness of the right fingers. Which action should the nurse take?
Teach the patient about normal AVG function.
Remind the patient to take a daily low-dose aspirin tablet.
Report the patient’s symptoms to the health care provider.
Elevate the patient’s arm on pillows to above the heart level.
When a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has an arterial blood pH of 7.30, the nurse will expect an assessment finding of
persistent skin tenting
rapid, deep respirations.
hot, flushed face and neck.
bounding peripheral pulses.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with severe heart failure who has developed elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. The primary treatment goal in the plan will be
augmenting fluid volume.
maintaining cardiac output.
diluting nephrotoxic substances.
preventing systemic hypertension.
A patient who has acute glomerulonephritis is hospitalized with hyperkalemia. Which information will the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the prescribed calcium gluconate IV?
Urine volume
Calcium level
Cardiac rhythm
Neurologic status
Which statement by a patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease (CKD) indicates that the nurse’s teaching about management of CKD has been effective?
“I need to get most of my protein from low-fat dairy products.”
“I will increase my intake of fruits and vegetables to 5 per day.”
“I will measure my urinary output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink.”
“I need to take erythropoietin to boost my immune system and help prevent infection.”
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is ordered for a patient with hyperkalemia. Before administering the medication, the nurse should assess the
bowel sounds.
blood glucose.
blood urea nitrogen (BUN).
level of consciousness (LOC).
Which menu choice by the patient who is receiving hemodialysis indicates that the nurse’s teaching has been successful?
Split-pea soup, English muffin, and nonfat milk
Oatmeal with cream, half a banana, and herbal tea
Poached eggs, whole-wheat toast, and apple juice
Cheese sandwich, tomato soup, and cranberry juice
Before administration of calcium carbonate to a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse should check laboratory results for
potassium level.
total cholesterol.
serum phosphate.
serum creatinine.
A 37-yr-old female patient is hospitalized with acute kidney injury (AKI). Which information will be most useful to the nurse in evaluating improvement in kidney function?
Urine volume
Creatinine level
Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level
A patient will need vascular access for hemodialysis. Which statement by the nurse accurately describes an advantage of a fistula over a graft?
A fistula is much less likely to clot.
A fistula increases patient mobility.
A fistula can accommodate larger needles.
A fistula can be used sooner after surgery.
When caring for a patient with a left arm arteriovenous fistula, which action will the nurse include in the plan of care to maintain the patency of the fistula?
Auscultate for a bruit at the fistula site.
Assess the quality of the left radial pulse.
Compare blood pressures in the left and right arms.
Irrigate the fistula site with saline every 8 to 12 hours.
A patient who has had progressive chronic kidney disease (CKD) for several years has just begun regular hemodialysis. Which information about diet will the nurse include in patient teaching?
Increased calories are needed because glucose is lost during hemodialysis.
More protein is allowed because urea and creatinine are removed by dialysis.
Dietary potassium is not restricted because the level is normalized by dialysis.
Unlimited fluids are allowed because retained fluid is removed during dialysis.
Which information in a patient’s history indicates to the nurse that the patient is not an appropriate candidate for kidney transplantation?
The patient has type 1 diabetes.
The patient has metastatic lung cancer.
The patient has a history of chronic hepatitis C infection.
The patient is infected with human immunodeficiency virus.
Which assessment finding may indicate that a patient is experiencing adverse effects to a corticosteroid prescribed after kidney transplantation?
Postural hypotension
Recurrent tachycardia
Knee and hip joint pain
Increased serum creatinine
The nurse in the dialysis clinic is reviewing the home medications of a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which medication reported by the patient indicates that patient teaching is required?
Acetaminophen
Calcium phosphate
Magnesium hydroxide
Multivitamin with iron
Before administration of captopril to a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the nurse will check the patient’s
glucose.
potassium.
creatinine.
phosphate.
A patient with diabetes who has bacterial pneumonia is being treated with IV gentamicin 60 mg IV BID. The nurse will monitor for adverse effects of the medication by evaluating the patient’s
blood glucose.
urine osmolality.
serum creatinine.
serum potassium.
A 55-yr-old patient with end-stage kidney disease (ESKD) is scheduled to receive a prescribed dose of epoetin alfa (Procrit). Which information should the nurse report to the health care provider before giving the medication?
Creatinine 1.6 mg/dL
Oxygen saturation 89%
Hemoglobin level 13 g/dL
Blood pressure 98/56 mm Hg
A 25-yr-old male patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider?
Serum creatinine level of 2.1 mg/dL
Serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
White blood cell count of 11,500/µL
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 56 mg/dL
A 62-yr-old female patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL.
Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL.
The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL.
The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2.
A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the patient’s health care provider.
Document the QRS interval measurement.
Review the chart for the patient’s current creatinine level.
Check the medical record for the most recent potassium level.
A 42-yr-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first?
Insert a urinary retention catheter.
Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit).
Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
During routine hemodialysis, a patient complains of nausea and dizziness. Which action should the nurse take first?
Slow down the rate of dialysis.
Check the blood pressure (BP).
Review the hematocrit (Hct) level.
Give prescribed PRN antiemetic drugs.
After receiving change-of-shift report, which patient should the nurse assess first?
Patient who is scheduled for the drain phase of a peritoneal dialysis exchange
Patient with stage 4 chronic kidney disease who has an elevated phosphate level
Patient with stage 5 chronic kidney disease who has a potassium level of 3.4 mEq/L
Patient who has just returned from having hemodialysis and has a heart rate of 124/min
Which information will be included when the nurse is teaching self-management to a patient who is receiving peritoneal dialysis (select all that apply)?
Avoid commercial salt substitutes.
Restrict fluid intake to 1000 mL daily.
Take phosphate binders with each meal.
Choose high-protein foods for most meals.
Have several servings of dairy products daily.
A client is at high risk for developing ascites because of cirrhosis of the liver. How should the nurse assess for the presence of ascites?
Observe the client for signs of respiratory distress.
Percuss the client’s abdomen and listen for dull sounds.
Palpate the lower extremities over the tibia and observe for edema
Listen for decreased or absent bowel sound while auscultation the abdomen.
A client is admitted to the hospital for acute gastritis and ascites secondary to alcoholism and cirrhosis. For which condition is it most important for the nurse to assess this client?
Nausea.
Blood in the stool.
Food intolerances.
Hourly urinary output.
What will the nurse do to assess a client's response to ongoing serum albumin therapy for cirrhosis of the liver?
Monitor the client’s vital signs.
Measure the client’s urine output every half hour.
Obtain the client’s weight at least once every day.
Determine the client’s urine albumin level each shift.
The nurse is administering lactulose to a client with a history of cirrhosis of the liver. The client asks the nurse why this medication is needed because the client is not constipated. How will the nurse respond?
“This medication helps you to stop drinking so much alcohol.”
“This medication helps you relax and not feel anxious.”
“This medication helps you lower the high ammonia level caused by your liver disease.
“This medication helps you keep your abdomen from being so distended.”
A client with cirrhosis of the liver develops ascites, and the health care provider prescribes spironolactone. What should the nurse monitor the client for?
Bruising
Tachycardia
Hyperkalemia
Hypoglycemia
Neomycin is prescribed for a client with cirrhosis. What should the nurse explain is the reason for taking this medication?
Prevents an infection.
Limits abdominal distention.
Minimizes intestinal edema.
Reduces the blood ammonia level.
A nurse administers lactulose to a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory test change leads the nurse to determine that the lactulose is effective?
Decreased amylase.
Decreased ammonia.
Increased potassium
Increased hemoglobin
A client is diagnosed with acute gastritis secondary to alcoholism and cirrhosis. The client reports frequent nausea, pain that increases after meals, and black, tarry stools. The client recently joined Alcoholics Anonymous. The nurse should give priority to which client history item?
Black, tarry stools
Frequent nausea
Joining Alcoholics Anonymous
Pain that increases after meals
The nurse is assessing a client with severe cirrhosis and discovers fetor hepaticus. What did the nurse assess?
Urine
Stool
Hands
Breath
A client with hepatic cirrhosis begins to develop slurred speech, confusion, drowsiness, and a flapping tremor. Which diet can the nurse expect will be prescribed for this client based upon the assessment?
No protein
Moderate protein
High protein
Strict protein restriction
A client with a long history of alcohol abuse is admitted to the hospital with ascites and jaundice. A diagnosis of hepatic cirrhosis is made. Which is a nursing priority?
Institute fall prevention/safety measures.
Monitor respiratory status.
Measure abdominal girth daily.
Test stool specimens for blood.
The serum ammonia level of a client with hepatic cirrhosis and ascites is elevated. What nursing intervention is the priority?
Weigh the client daily.
Restrict the client’s oral fluid intake.
Measure the client’s urine specific gravity.
Observe the client for increasing confusion.
A nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor that, when abnormal, might identify a client who may benefit from neomycin enemas?
Ammonia level
Culture and sensitivity
White blood cell count
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level
A client with cirrhosis is scheduled for a liver biopsy. The client asks if there are any risks after the procedure. Which response by the nurse is the best?
“There are relatively no risks associated with this procedure.”
“The major is infection at the biopsy site.”
“The major risk is bleeding post procedure.”
“The major risk is liver failure post procedure.”
A client with hepatitis B (HBV) develops cirrhosis and is hospitalized. One potential sequela of chronic liver disease is fluid and electrolyte imbalance. The nurse determines that this may be attributed to a decrease in serum albumin level. Which of these conditions results from this imbalance?
Hemorrhage with subsequent anemia.
Diminished resistance to bacterial insult.
Malnutrition of cells, especially hepatic cells.
Reduction of colloidal osmotic pressure in the blood.
A client with cirrhosis of the liver and ascites is scheduled to have a paracentesis. What should the nurse do to prepare the client for the procedure?
Instruct the client to void.
Tell the client not to eat for four hours.
Give the client an analgesic.
Have the client turn to the lateral position.
A client with a history of alcoholism and cirrhosis is admitted with severe dyspnea as a result of ascites. Which process that most likely caused the ascites should the nurse consider when planning care?
Increased secretion of bile salts
Increased pressure in the portal vein
Increased interstitial osmotic pressure
Increased production of serum albumin
A nurse is performing the physical assessment of a client admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis. The nurse expects to observe what skin conditions? Select all that apply.
Vitiligo
Hirsutism
Melanosis
Ecchymoses
Telangiectasis
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of cirrhosis of the liver. For which assessment signs of hepatic encephalopathy should the nurse assess this client? Select all that apply.
Mental confusion
Increased cholesterol
Brown-colored stools
Flapping hand tremors
Musty, sweet breath odor
A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client diagnosed with cirrhosis and varices. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching session? Select all that apply.
Adhering to a low-carbohydrate diet.
Avoiding aspirin and aspirin-containing products.
Limiting alcohol consumption to two drinks weekly
Avoiding acetaminophen and products containing acetaminophen.
Avoiding coughing, sneezing, and straining to have a bowel movement.
You are caring for a patient in the emergency room who does not give a past medical history but presents with a one-week history of shortness of breath. An arterial blood gas is obtained, and the results are as follows: The pH is 7.31, the PaCO2 is 72 mm Hg, and the bicarbonate is 35 mEq/L. What does the blood gas show?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
You are caring for a patient who presents with a two-day history of diarrhea. An arterial blood gas is obtained, revealing a pH of 7.25, a PaCO2 of 24 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate of 10 mEq/L. What does the blood gas tell you in this situation?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The patient is a 21-year-old male with a depressed mental status in the emergency department for reasons that are not completely clear. An arterial blood gas is obtained with a pH of 7.26, PaCO2 of 70 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate of 31 mEq/L. What does the arterial blood gas tell you about this patient?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The patient is a 13-year-old female with a depressed mental status and abdominal pain. She does not have a significant past medical history. Her ABG is drawn, showing a pH of 7.14, a PaCO2 of 15 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate of 5 mEq/L. What does the arterial blood gas tell you about this patient?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
You are caring for a figure skater who presents with weakness and no other past medical history. An arterial blood gas is obtained showing a pH of 7.54, a PaCO2 of 45, and a bicarbonate of 38. Electrolytes are obtained showing sodium is 140, potassium is 2.8, and chloride is 95. What do the patient's laboratory studies say about her?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The patient is an 80-year-old man who has a history of congestive heart failure. He says he has been sick for about a week and has been vomiting. He has been short of breath for several days. His arterial blood gas shows a pH of 7.54, a PaCO2 of 21, and a bicarbonate of 19 mEq/L. What does the patient’s arterial blood gas say about him?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
You are caring for an older woman from a nursing home who presents with weakness. She has been taking a sleeping pill but takes no other medications. An arterial blood gas is drawn, showing a pH of 7.58, a PaCO2 of 53, and a bicarbonate of 44 mEq/L. What does the arterial blood gas reveal about her?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The patient is a 32-year-old female with a history of asthma. She checks into the emergency department stating she is short of breath. An arterial blood gas is obtained on room air showing a pH of 7.3, PaCO2 of 46 mm Hg, bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L, and a PaO2 of 56. What does the patient’s blood gas say about her?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The patient is a 3-day old infant who is not interested in feeding and has a rapid respiratory rate. An arterial blood gas is obtained on the baby, revealing a pH of 7.53, a PaO2 of 103 mm Hg. A PaCO2 of 27 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate of 24 mEq/L. What does the baby’s arterial blood gas say about her?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
The infant is a newborn with tachypnea and cyanosis. An arterial blood gas is obtained on room air, showing a pH of 7.1, a PaCO2 of 40 mm Hg, and a bicarbonate of 12 mEq/L. The PaO2 is 60 mm Hg. What does the blood gas say about this infant?
Respiratory Alkalosis
Respiratory Acidosis
Metabolic Alkalosis
Metabolic Acidosis
Which intervention will be included in the plan of care for a patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) who has a temporary vascular access catheter in the left femoral vein?
Restrict the patient’s oral protein intake.
Restrict physical activity to bed rest.
Discontinue the urethral retention catheter.
Start continuous pulse oximetry.
A 25-yr-old male patient has been admitted with a severe crushing injury after an industrial accident. Which laboratory result will be most important to report to the health care provider?
Serum potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L
White blood cell count of 11,500/µL
Serum creatinine level of 2.1 mg/dL
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 56 mg/d
A 72-yr-old patient with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is admitted with acute urinary retention and elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels. Which prescribed therapy should the nurse implement first?
Infuse normal saline at 50 mL/hour.
Insert urethral catheter
Obtain renal ultrasound.
Draw a complete blood count.
A 62-yr-old female patient has been hospitalized for 4 days with acute kidney injury (AKI) caused by dehydration. Which information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider?
The creatinine level is 3.0 mg/dL.
Urine output over an 8-hour period is 2500 mL
The glomerular filtration rate is less than 30 mL/min/1.73 m2.
The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is 67 mg/dL
A patient with acute kidney injury (AKI) has longer QRS intervals on the electrocardiogram (ECG) than were noted on the previous shift. Which action should the nurse take first?
Notify the patient’s health care provider.
Review the chart for the patient’s current creatinine level
Document the QRS interval measurement.
Check the medical record for the most recent potassium level.
A 42-yr-old patient admitted with acute kidney injury due to dehydration has oliguria, anemia, and hyperkalemia. Which prescribed action should the nurse take first?
Place the patient on a cardiac monitor.
Insert a urinary retention catheter.
Administer epoetin alfa (Epogen, Procrit).
Give sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
A patient has arrived for a scheduled hemodialysis session. Which nursing action is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to a dialysis technician?
Teach the patient about fluid restrictions.
Determine the ultrafiltration rate for the hemodialysis.
Assess for causes of an increase in predialysis weight.
Check blood pressure before starting dialysis.
A licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN) is caring for a patient with stage 2 chronic kidney disease. Which observation by the RN requires an intervention?
The LPN/LVN administers the iron supplement and phosphate binder with lunch.
The LPN/LVN administers the erythropoietin subcutaneously.
The LPN/LVN assists the patient to ambulate out in the hallway.
The LPN/LVN carries a tray containing low-protein foods into the patient’s room
A female patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving peritoneal dialysis with 2-L inflows. Which information should the nurse report promptly to the health care provider?
The patient’s peritoneal effluent appears cloudy.
The patient’s abdomen appears bloated after the inflow.
The patient has an outflow volume of 1800 mL.
The patient has abdominal pain during the inflow phase.
The nurse is assessing a patient 4 hours after a kidney transplant. Which information is most important to communicate to the health care provider?
The blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine levels are elevated.
The patient’s central venous pressure (CVP) is decreased.
The patient has a level 7 (0- to 10-point scale) incisional pain.
The urine output is 900 to 1100 mL/hr.
The nurse is caring for a patient who has cirrhosis. Which data obtained by the nurse during the assessment will be of most concern?
The patient’s abdominal skin has multiple spider-shaped blood vessels.
The patient complains of right upper-quadrant pain with palpation.
The patient’s hands flap back and forth when the arms are extended.
The patient has ascites and a 2-kg weight gain from the previous day
A patient with cirrhosis and esophageal varices has a new prescription for propranolol (Inderal). Which finding is the best indicator to the nurse that the medication has been effective?
The patient reports no chest pain.
Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg
The apical pulse rate is 68 beats/minute.
Stools test negative for occult blood.
Which response by the nurse best explains the purpose of ranitidine (Zantac) for a patient admitted with bleeding esophageal varices?
The medication will inhibit development of gastric ulcers.
The medication will reduce the risk for aspiration.
The medication will prevent irritation of the enlarged veins.
The medication will decrease nausea and improve the appetite
When taking the blood pressure (BP) on the right arm of a patient with severe acute pancreatitis, the nurse notices carpal spasms of the patient’s right hand. Which action should the nurse take next?
Check the calcium level in the chart.
Notify the health care provider immediately.
Ask the patient about any arm pain.
Retake the patient’s blood pressure.
A patient with acute pancreatitis is NPO and has a nasogastric (NG) tube to suction. Which information obtained by the nurse indicates that these therapies have been effective?
Bowel sounds are present.
Electrolyte levels are normal
Abdominal pain is decreased.
Grey Turner sign resolves.
Which assessment finding is of most concern for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
Abdominal tenderness
Left upper quadrant pain
Palpable abdominal mass
Absent bowel sounds
Which action will be included in the care for a patient who has recently been diagnosed with asymptomatic nonalcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)?
Review the patient’s current medication list.
Teach symptoms of variceal bleeding.
Discuss the need to increase caloric intake.
Draw blood for hepatitis serology testing.
A patient with chronic hepatitis C infection has several medications prescribed. Which medication requires further discussion with the health care provider before administration?
Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) 50 mg PO every 6 hours PRN nausea
Diphenhydramine 25 mg PO every 4 hours PRN itching
Ribavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bidRibavirin (Rebetol, Copegus) 600 mg PO bid
Pegylated a-interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys) 1.5 mcg/kg PO dail
During change-of-shift report, the nurse learns about the following four patients. Which patient requires assessment first?
A 55-yr-old patient with cirrhosis and ascites who has an oral temperature of 102° F (38.8° C)
A 58-yr-old patient who has compensated cirrhosis and is complaining of anorexi
A 36-yr-old patient recovering from a laparoscopic cholecystectomy who has severe shoulder pain
A 40-yr-old patient with chronic pancreatitis who has gnawing abdominal pai
Which goal has the highest priority in the plan of care for a 26-yr-old patient who is homeless who was admitted with viral hepatitis who has severe anorexia and fatigue?
Establish a stable environment.
Maintain adequate nutrition.
Increase activity level.
Identify source of hepatitis exposure.
Which action should the nurse in the emergency department take first for a new patient who is vomiting blood?
Draw blood for coagulation studies.
Insert a large-gauge IV catheter.
Place the patient in the supine position.
Check blood pressure and heart rate.
The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute severe pancreatitis. The highest priority patient outcome is
expressing satisfaction with pain control.
having adequate fluid and electrolyte balance.
developing no ongoing pancreatic disease.
maintaining normal respiratory function.
The nurse is caring for a patient with pancreatic cancer. Which nursing action is the highest priority?
Administer prescribed opioids to relieve pain as needed.
Teach about the need to avoid scratching any pruritic areas
Offer high-calorie, high-protein dietary choices
Offer psychologic support for depression.
Which assessment information will be most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider about a patient with acute cholecystitis?
The patient has increased pain after eating.
The patient complains of chronic heartburn.
The patient’s stools are tan colored.
The patient’s urine is bright yellow.
A patient had an incisional cholecystectomy 6 hours ago. The nurse will place the highest priority on assisting the patient to
ambulate the evening of the operative day.
choose preferred low-fat foods from the menu.
turn, cough, and deep breathe every 2 hours.
perform leg exercises hourly while awake.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has been diagnosed with chronic hepatitis B?
Schedule for liver cancer screening every 6 months.
Monitor anti-hepatitis B surface antigen (anti-HBs) levels.
Initiate administration of the hepatitis C vaccine series.
Advise limiting alcohol intake to 1 drink daily.
A patient born in 1955 had hepatitis A infection 1 year ago. According to Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines, which action should the nurse include in care when the patient is seen for a routine annual physical examination?
Test for anti-hepatitis-A virus immune globulin M (anti-HAV-IgM).
Start the hepatitis B immunization series.
Ask whether the patient has been screened for hepatitis C.
Teach the patient about hepatitis A immune globulin
A 36-yr-old female patient is receiving treatment for chronic hepatitis C with pegylated interferon (PEG-Intron, Pegasys), ribavirin (Rebetol), and telaprevir (Incivek). Which finding is important to communicate to the health care provider to suggest a change in therapy?
Positive urine pregnancy test
Weight loss of 2 lb (1 kg)
Hemoglobin level of 10.4 g/dL
Complaints of nausea and anorexia
A patient with septicemia develops prolonged bleeding from venipuncture sites and blood in the stools. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?
Notify the health care provider.
Give prescribed proton-pump inhibitors.
Apply dressings to the sites.
Avoid other venipunctures.
A patient with possible disseminated intravascular coagulation arrives in the emergency department with a blood pressure of 82/40, temperature of 102° F (38.9° C), and severe back pain. Which prescribed action will the nurse implement first?
Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV.
Schedule complete blood count and coagulation studies.
Give acetaminophen (Tylenol) 650 mg.
Infuse normal saline 500 mL over 30 minutes.
The nurse determines that demeclocycline is effective for a patient with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) based on finding that the patient’s
peripheral edema is increased.
urinary output is increased.
urine specific gravity is increased.
weight has increased.
The nurse determines that additional instruction is needed for a patient with chronic syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) when the patient makes which statement?
“I should eat foods high in potassium because diuretics cause potassium loss.”
“I need to limit my fluid intake to no more than 1 quart of liquids a day.”
“I need to shop for foods low in sodium and avoid adding salt to food.”
“I should weigh myself daily and report any sudden weight loss or gain.”
A 56-yr-old patient who is disoriented and reports a headache and muscle cramps is hospitalized with possible syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH). The nurse would expect the initial laboratory results to include a(n)
decreased serum sodium.
low urine specific gravity.
elevated hematocrit.
increased serum chloride.
An expected patient problem for a patient admitted to the hospital with symptoms of diabetes insipidus is
risk for impaired skin integrity related to generalized edema.
sleep pattern disturbance related to frequent waking to void.
impaired gas exchange related to fluid retention in lungs.
excess fluid volume related to intake greater than output.
The nurse is caring for a woman recently diagnosed with viral hepatitis A. Which individual should the nurse refer for an immunoglobulin (IG) injection?
A caregiver who lives in the same household with the patient
A child living in the home who received the hepatitis A vaccine 3 months ago
A friend who delivers meals to the patient and family each week
A relative with a history of hepatitis A who visits the patient daily
The nurse is caring for a 55-yr-old man patient with acute pancreatitis resulting from gallstones. Which clinical manifestation would the nurse expect?
Left upper abdominal pain
Ascites and peripheral edema
Temperature over 102o F (38.9o C)
Hematochezia
The nurse is caring for a woman recently diagnosed with viral hepatitis A. Which individual should the nurse refer for an immunoglobulin (IG) injection?
A friend who delivers meals to the patient and family each week
A relative with a history of hepatitis A who visits the patient daily
A child living in the home who received the hepatitis A vaccine 3 months ago
A caregiver who lives in the same household with the patient
The nurse instructs a 50-yr-old woman about cholestyramine to reduce pruritus caused by gallbladder disease. Which patient statement indicates understanding of the instructions?
“I will apply the medicated lotion sparingly to the areas where I itch.”
“The medication is a powder and needs to be mixed with milk or juice.”
“This medication will help me digest fats and fat-soluble vitamins.”
“I should take this medication on an empty stomach at the same time each day.”
The family of a patient newly diagnosed with hepatitis A asks the nurse what they can do to prevent becoming ill. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
“The hepatitis vaccine will provide immunity from this and future exposures.”
“An immunoglobulin injection will be given to prevent infection or limit symptoms.”
“You will need to be tested first; then treatment can be determined.”
“There is nothing you can do since the patient was infectious before admission.”
A patient with hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg) present in the serum is being discharged with pain medication after knee surgery. Which medication order should the nurse question?
Tramadol
Oxycodone with aspirin (Percodan)
Hydromorphone (Dilaudid)
Hydrocodone with acetaminophen
The condition of a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver has deteriorated. Which diagnostic study would help determine if the patient has developed liver cancer?
Abdominal girth measurement
Hepatic structure ultrasound
Ventilation/perfusion scan
Serum á-fetoprotein level
The patient with right upper quadrant abdominal pain has an abdominal ultrasound that reveals cholelithiasis. What is the nurse’s priority?
Prevent all oral intake
Control abdominal pain.
Provide enteral feedings.
Avoid dietary cholesterol.
A patient with cholelithiasis is being prepared for surgery. Which patient assessment represents a contraindication for a cholecystectomy?
Low-grade fever of 100°F and dehydration
Abscess in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen
Multiple obstructions in the cystic and common bile duct
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 54 seconds
The patient with cirrhosis is being taught self-care. Which statement indicates the patient needs more teaching?
“A scrotal support may be more comfortable when I have scrotal edema.”
“I need to take good care of my belly and ankle skin where it is swollen.”
“If I notice a fast heart rate or irregular beats, this is normal for cirrhosis.”
“I can use pillows to support my head to help me breathe when I am in bed.”
A patient with sudden pain in the left upper quadrant radiating to the back and vomiting was diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which intervention should the nurse include in the patient’s plan of care?
Initiate early prophylactic antibiotic therapy to prevent infection.
Insert an NG and maintain NPO status to allow pancreas to rest
Administer acetaminophen (Tylenol) every 4 hours for pain relief.
Immediately start enteral feeding to prevent malnutrition.
Diffusion, osmosis, and ultrafiltration occur in both hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis. Which strategy is used to achieve ultrafiltration in peritoneal dialysis?
Decreasing the concentration of the dialysate
Increasing the pressure gradient
Increasing osmolality of the
Decreasing the glucose in the dialysate
During hemodialysis, the patient develops light-headedness and nausea. What should the nurse do first?
Administer a blood transfusion.
Administer hypertonic saline.
Decrease the rate of fluid removal
Administer antiemetic medications.
Which findings will the nurse expect when caring for a patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) (select all that apply.)?
Hypercalcemia
Hypertension
Dehydration
Increased risk for fractures
Anemia
Which assessment findings would alert the nurse that the patient has entered the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury (AKI) (select all that apply.)?
Hypernatremia
Dehydration
Hypokalemia
BUN increases
Urine output increases
A patient in the oliguric phase after an acute kidney injury has had a 250-mL urine output and an emesis of 100 mL in the past 24 hours. What is the patient’s fluid restriction for the next 24 hours? (Include ml after your answer).
(a)
For the strip above, what is the HR?
60 bpm
40 bpm
65 bpm
70 bpm
For the strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Sinus Bradycardia
Normal Sinus Rhythm
Junctional Rhythm
Sinus Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the HR?
45 bpm
40 bpm
50 bpm
30 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Normal Sinus Rhythm
NSR with PAC
Sinus Bradycardia
Junctional Bradycardia
For the above strip, what is the HR?
120 bpm
125 bpm
130 bpm
135 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Sinus Tachycardia
Supraventricular Rhythm
Supraventricular Tachycardia
Premature Ventricular Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the HR?
105 bpm
180 bpm
175 bpm
110 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Sinus Tachycardia
Supraventricular Tachycardia
Junctional Tachycardia
Premature Atrial Contraction
For the above strip, what is the HR?
100 bpm
105 bpm
110 bpm
120 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Asystole
Sinus Tachycardia
Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia
Junctional Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Ventricular Fibrillation
Sinus Tachycardia
Atrial Flutter
Junctional Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Atrial Fibrillation
Atrial Fibrillation with Controlled Ventricular Response
Ventricular Fibrillation
Asystole
For the above strip, what is the HR?
20 bpm
30 bpm
40 bpm
50 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Junctional Escape Dysrhythmia
Junctional Tachycardia
Sinus Tachycardia
Bradycardia
For the above strip, what is the HR?
40 bpm
45 bpm
50 bpm
55 bpm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
First Degree AV Block
Second Degree AV Block
Bradycardia
Junctional Escape Rhythm
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Normal Sinus Rhythm with PVC
Normal Sinus Rhythm with PAC
Normal Sinus Rhythm
Normal Sinus Rhythm with AVB
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Tachycardia
Atrial Fibrillation
Sinus Tachycardia
Ventricular Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Asystole
Atrial Fibrillation
Ventricular Fibrillation
Ventricular Tachycardia
For the above strip, what is the EKG rhythm?
Asystole
Atrial Fibrillation
Ventricular Tachycardia
Ventricular Fibrillation
While auscultating the heart, a healthcare provider notices S3 heart sounds in four clients. Which client is at more risk for heart failure?
Child client
Pregnant client
Older adult client
Young adult client
Which serum laboratory values in a client with urinary problems may indicate the risk of developing muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias?
Calcium of 9.5 mg/dL (2.375 mmol/L)
Potassium of 7.02 mEq/L (7.02 mmol/L)
Bicarbonate of 22.8 mEq/L (22.8 mmol/L)
Phosphorus of 4.1 mg/dL (1.3243 mmol/L)
A client with hypertensive heart disease, who had an acute episode of heart failure, is to be discharged on a regimen of metoprolol and digoxin. What outcome does the nurse anticipate when metoprolol is administered with digoxin?
Headaches
Bradycardia
Hypertension
Junctional tachycardia
A client with a history of cirrhosis of the liver develops heart failure. When ventricular bigeminy develops, the provider orders lidocaine. What alterations in lidocaine dosages does the nurse anticipate?
Higher to compensate for the impaired liver function.
Lower because the drug is metabolized at a diminished rate.
Reduced because other organs will compensated for the sluggish liver.
Equal to that needed for other clients to provide a loading dose for the myocardium.
A client with heart failure is digitalized (given a loading dose of digoxin) and placed on a maintenance dose of digoxin 0.25 mg by mouth daily. What responses does the nurse expect the client to exhibit when a therapeutic effect of digoxin is achieved?
Diuresis and decreased pulse rate.
Increased blood pressure and weight loss.
Regular pulse rhythm and stable fluid balance.
Corrected heart murmur and decreased pulse pressure.
A client is taking furosemide and digoxin for heart failure. Why does the nurse advise the client to drink a glass of orange juice every day?
Maintaining potassium levels
Preventing increased sodium levels
Limiting the drugs’ synergistic effects
Correcting the associated dehydration.
A client who develops heart failure has a serum potassium level of 2.3 mEq/L (2.3 mmol/L). Digoxin and potassium chloride are prescribed. What action should the nurse take?
Double the dose of potassium chloride and administer it with the prescribed digoxin.
Hold the dose of digoxin, administer the potassium chloride, and call the primary healthcare provider immediately.
Give the digoxin and potassium chloride as prescribed and report the laboratory results to the primary healthcare provider.
Administer the prescribed digoxin and potassium chloride with a glass of orange juice and continue to monitor the client.
When an older client with heart failure is transferred from the emergency department to the medical service, what should the nurse on the unit do first?
Interview the client for a health history.
Assess the client’s heart and lung sounds.
Monitor the client’s pulse and temperature.
Obtain the client’s blood specimen for electrolytes.
To manage heart failure a client has been taking several medications, including furosemide 40 mg by mouth twice a day. The client develops severe muscle cramps and fatigue, and laboratory tests confirm the presence of hypokalemia. Potassium chloride intravenously (IV) and ECG monitoring have been prescribed. Which ECG change associated with hypokalemia should the nurse expect to observe?
Inverted P waves
Flattened T waves
Absence of U waves
Elevated ST segment
An older client who has had multiple hospital admissions for recurring heart failure is returned to the hospital by an adult child. The client is admitted for observation to the coronary care unit and calmly states, "I know I’m sick, but I can really take care of myself at home." What should the nurse conclude that the client most likely is attempting to do?
Suppress fears
Deny the illness
Maintain independence
Reassure the adult child
A nurse expects that a client with right-sided heart failure will exhibit which of these signs or symptoms?
Oliguria
Pallor
Cool extremities
Distended neck veins
The family of a client with right ventricular heart failure expresses concern about the client’s increasing abdominal girth. What physiologic change should the nurse consider when explaining the client’s condition?
Loss of cellular constituents in blood.
Rapid osmosis from tissue spaces to cells.
Increased pressure within the circulatory system.
Rapid diffusion of solutes and solvents into plasma.
How can the nurse best describe heart failure to a client?
A cardiac condition caused by inadequate circulating blood volume.
An acute state in which the pulmonary circulation pressure decreases.
An inability of the heart to pump blood in proportion to metabolic needs.
A chronic state in which the systolic blood pressure drops below 90 mm Hg.
The nurse is assessing a client with the diagnosis of chronic heart failure. Which clinical finding should the nurse expect the client to experience?
Dependent edema in the evening.
Chest pain that decreases with rest.
Palpitations in the chest when resting.
Frequent coughing with yellow sputum.
A nurse is obtaining a health history on a client admitted to the hospital with heart failure. Which assessment finding will the nurse expect the client to report?
Feeling bloated after eating.
Tingling in the upper extremities.
Needing to use three pillows at night to sleep.
Swelling of the ankles that is more apparent in the morning.
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted to the hospital with early heart failure. Which client statement indicates a clinical manifestation that is related to heart failure?
I see spots before my eyes.
I am tired at the end of the day.
I feel bloated when I eat a large meal.
I have trouble breathing when I climb a flight of stairs.
The nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with the diagnosis of mild heart failure. Which type of lung sounds should the nurse expect to hear?
Stridor
Crackles
Wheezes
Friction rubs
A client with heart failure has anxiety. Which effect of anxiety makes it particularly important for the nurse to reduce the anxiety of this client?
Increases the cardiac workload.
Interferes with usual respirations.
Produces an elevation in temperature.
Decreases the amount of oxygen used.
A client with a history of heart failure is experiencing dyspnea with a respiratory rate of 32. Crackles are noted bilaterally. The client is in Sims position, receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which action should the nurse take first?
Raise the client to high-Fowler position.
Obtain the apical pulse and blood pressure.
Call the primary healthcare provider immediately.
Monitor the pulse oximeter to ascertain the oxygen level.
A client with congestive heart failure is receiving intravenous digoxin (Cardoxin) therapy. The registered nurse identifies that which items on the client’s care plan are appropriate for a licensed practical nurse (LPN) to perform? Select all that apply.
Help the client ambulate when required.
Monitor the client’s vitals every 30 minutes.
Administer adequate oral fluids to the client.
Prepare the nursing diagnosis after assessing the client.
Administer digoxin (Cardoxin) if the client has chest pain.
To determine whether there is a delay in impulse conduction through the ventricles, the nurse will measure the duration of the patient’s
P wave.
Q wave.
PR interval.
QRS complex.
The nurse needs to quickly estimate the heart rate for a patient with a regular heart rhythm. Which method will be best to use?
Count the number of large squares in the R-R interval and divide by 300.
Print a 1-minute electrocardiogram (ECG) strip and count the number of QRS complexes.
Use the 3-second markers to count the number of QRS complexes in 6 seconds and multiply by 10.
Calculate the number of small squares between one QRS complex and the next and divide into 1500.
A patient has a junctional escape rhythm on the monitor. The nurse will expect the patient to have a heart rate of _____ beats/min.
15 to 20
20 to 40
40 to 60
60 to 100
What rhythm is this?
atrial fibrillation.
sinus tachycardia.
ventricular fibrillation.
ventricular tachycardia.
The nurse notes that a patient’s heart monitor shows that every other beat is earlier than expected, has no visible P wave, and has a QRS complex that is wide and bizarre in shape. How will the nurse document the rhythm?
Ventricular couplets
Ventricular bigeminy
Ventricular R-on-T phenomenon
Multifocal premature ventricular contractions
A patient has a sinus rhythm and a heart rate of 72 beats/min. The nurse determines that the PR interval is 0.24 seconds. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse would be to
notify the health care provider immediately.
document the finding and monitor the patient.
give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
prepare the patient for temporary pacemaker insertion.
A patient who was admitted with a myocardial infarction experiences a 45-second episode of ventricular tachycardia, then converts to sinus rhythm with a heart rate of 98 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take next?
Immediately notify the health care provider.
Document the rhythm and continue to monitor the patient.
Prepare to give IV amiodarone per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
Perform synchronized cardioversion per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
After the nurse gives IV atropine to a patient with symptomatic type 1, second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, which finding indicates that the drug has been effective?
Increase in the patient’s heart rate
Increase in strength of peripheral pulses
Decrease in premature atrial contractions
Decrease in premature ventricular contractions
A patient with dilated cardiomyopathy has new onset atrial fibrillation that has been unresponsive to drug therapy for several days. Teaching for this patient would include information about
anticoagulant therapy.
permanent pacemakers.
emergency cardioversion.
IV adenosine (Adenocard).
Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient who is scheduled for a radiofrequency catheter ablation for treatment of atrial flutter?
The procedure prevents or minimizes the risk for sudden cardiac death.
The procedure uses cold therapy to stop the formation of the flutter waves.
The procedure uses electrical energy to destroy areas of the conduction system.
The procedure stimulates the growth of new conduction pathways between the atria.
The nurse knows that discharge teaching about the management of a new permanent pacemaker has been most effective when the patient states
“It will be several weeks before I can return to my usual activities.”
“I will avoid cooking with a microwave oven or being near one in use.”
“I will notify the airlines when I make a reservation that I have a pacemaker.”
“I won’t lift the arm on the pacemaker side until I see the health care provider.”
Which intervention by a new nurse who is caring for a patient who has just had an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) inserted indicates a need for more teaching about the care of patients with ICDs?
The nurse administers amiodarone (Cordarone) to the patient.
The nurse helps the patient fill out the application for obtaining a Medic Alert device.
The nurse encourages the patient to do active range of motion exercises for all extremities.
The nurse teaches the patient that sexual activity can be resumed when the incision is healed.
Which action should the nurse perform when preparing a patient with supraventricular tachycardia for cardioversion who is alert and has a blood pressure of 110/66 mm Hg?
Turn the synchronizer switch to the “off” position.
Give a sedative before cardioversion is implemented.
Set the defibrillator/cardioverter energy to 360 joules.
Provide assisted ventilations with a bag-valve-mask device.
A 20-yr-old patient has a mandatory electrocardiogram (ECG) before participating on a college soccer team and is found to have sinus bradycardia, rate 52. Blood pressure (BP) is 114/54 mm Hg, and the student denies any health problems. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?
Allow the student to participate on the soccer team.
Tell the student to stop playing immediately if any dyspnea occurs.
Obtain more detailed information about the student’s family health history.
Obtain more detailed information about the student’s family health history.
When analyzing the rhythm of a patient’s electrocardiogram (ECG), the nurse will need to investigate further upon finding a(n)
isoelectric ST segment.
PR interval of 0.18 second.
QT interval of 0.38 second.
QRS interval of 0.14 second.
A patient has ST segment changes that suggest an acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. Which lead would be best for monitoring the patient?
I
II
V2
V6
Which laboratory result for a patient with multifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?
Blood glucose of 243 mg/dL
Serum chloride of 92 mEq/L
Serum sodium of 134 mEq/L
Serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L
A patient’s heart monitor shows a pattern of undulations of varying contours and amplitude with no measurable ECG pattern. The patient is unconscious, apneic, and pulseless. Which action should the nurse take first?
Give epinephrine (Adrenalin) IV.
Perform immediate defibrillation.
Prepare for endotracheal intubation.
Ventilate with a bag-valve-mask device.
A patient’s heart monitor shows sinus rhythm, rate 64. The PR interval is 0.18 seconds at 1:00 AM, 0.22 seconds at 2:30 PM, and 0.28 seconds at 4:00 PM. Which action should the nurse take next?
Place the transcutaneous pacemaker pads on the patient.
Give atropine sulfate 1 mg IV per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
Call the health care provider before giving scheduled metoprolol (Lopressor).
Document the patient’s rhythm and assess the patient’s response to the rhythm.
A patient develops sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/min, has a blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and is complaining of feeling faint. Which action should the nurse take next?
Recheck the heart rhythm and BP in 5 minutes.
Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.
Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem).
Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads.
A 19-yr-old student comes to the student health center at the end of the semester complaining that, “My heart is skipping beats.” An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows occasional unifocal premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). What action should the nurse take next?
Insert an IV catheter for emergency use.
Ask the patient about current stress level and caffeine use.
Ask the patient about current stress level and caffeine use.
Have the patient taken to the nearest emergency department (ED).
The nurse has received change-of-shift report about the following patients on the progressive care unit. Which patient should the nurse see first
A patient with atrial fibrillation, rate 88 and irregular, who has a dose of warfarin (Coumadin) due
A patient with second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block, type 1, rate 60, who is dizzy when ambulating
A patient who is in a sinus rhythm, rate 98 and regular, recovering from an elective cardioversion 2 hours ago
A patient whose implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) fired twice today and has a dose of amiodarone (Cordarone) due
A patient who is on the telemetry unit develops atrial flutter, rate 150, with associated dyspnea and chest pain. Which action that is included in the hospital dysrhythmia protocol should the nurse do first?
Obtain a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG)
Notify the health care provider of the change in rhythm.
Give supplemental O2 at 2 to 3 L/min via nasal cannula.
Assess the patient’s vital signs including O2 saturation.
A patient whose heart monitor shows sinus tachycardia, rate 132, is apneic, and has no palpable pulses. What action should the nurse take next?
Perform synchronized cardioversion
Start cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
Give atropine per agency dysrhythmia protocol.
Provide supplemental O2 via non-rebreather mask.
Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who was admitted with syncopal episodes of unknown origin?
Explain the association between dysrhythmias and syncope.
Instruct the patient to call for assistance before getting out of bed..
Teach the patient about the need to avoid caffeine and other stimulants.
Tell the patient about the benefits of implantable cardioverter-defibrillators
Which nursing action can the registered nurse (RN) delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) working as telemetry technicians on the cardiac care unit?
Decide whether a patient’s heart rate of 116 requires urgent treatment.
Observe heart rhythms for multiple patients who have telemetry monitoring.
Monitor a patient’s level of consciousness during synchronized cardioversion.
Select the best lead for monitoring a patient admitted with acute coronary syndrome.
Which action by a new registered nurse (RN) who is orienting to the telemetry unit indicates a good understanding of the treatment of heart dysrhythmias?
Prepares defibrillator settings at 360 joules for a patient whose monitor shows asystole
Injects IV adenosine (Adenocard) over 2 seconds to a patient with supraventricular tachycardia
Turns the synchronizer switch to the “on” position before defibrillating a patient with ventricular fibrillation
Gives the prescribed dose of diltiazem (Cardizem) to a patient with new-onset type II second degree AV block
A patient reports dizziness and shortness of breath for several days. During heart monitoring in the emergency department (ED), the nurse obtains the following electrocardiographic (ECG) tracing. The nurse interprets this heart rhythm as
junctional escape rhythm
accelerated idioventricular rhythm
third-degree atrioventricular (AV) block.
sinus rhythm with premature atrial contractions (PACs).
What rhythm is this?
Normal Sinus Rhythm
Atrial Fibrillation
Ventricular Fibrillation
Asystole
When analyzing an electrocardiographic (ECG) rhythm strip of a patient with a regular heart rhythm, the nurse counts 30 small blocks from one R wave to the next. The nurse calculates the patient’s heart rate as
(a)
What rhythm is this?
(a)
A rhythm in which the heart beats in an irregular or abnormal rhythm
(a)
What is the heart rate for the strip below?
(a)
What rhythm is this?
(a)
