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EXAM 14: PEDIACTRICS 2

Total questions: 199

Worksheet time: 10hrs 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cardiac disorders in children are divided into which two major groups?

a)

Congenital Heart Disease.

b)

Acquired Heart Disease.

c)

Chronic Heart Disease.

d)

Acute Heart Disease.

2.

Congenital heart disease that is an anatomic abnormality occur when?

a)

Present at birth.

b)

Occurs after birth.

3.

What is the most commonly used diagnostic evaluation preformed for suspected heart disease?

a)

Electrocardiogram (ECG).

b)

Cardiac Catheterization.

c)

Cardiopulmonary Bypass.

d)

X-ray.

4.

A radiopaque catheter that is passed through the femoral artery directly into the heart and large vessels in known as which procedure?

a)

Cardiac Catheterization

b)

PRG.

c)

PIIC line.

d)

Central IV.

5.

Congenital Heart Disease may be caused by genetic or maternal environmental factors such as?

a)

Intrauterine Rubella Exposure.

b)

Advanced Maternal Age.

c)

Chromosomal Abnormalities.

d)

Premature Birth.

e)

Extremely Low Birth Weight.

6.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning post-operative catheter care?

a)

Patient can take baths on the same day of surgery.

b)

Avoid strenuous exercise for several days.

c)

Use acetaminophen or ibuprofen for pain.

d)

Patient may attend school.

7.

Digoxin can be crushed and mixed with formula or food.

a)

False.

b)

True.

8.

You have just administered a dose of Digoxin to a 8 month old child. Approximately 10 minutes later, the infant vomits. Are you able to administer another dose due to the possibility the infant threw up the dose?

a)

No, do not administer again.

b)

Yes, administer another full dose.

c)

Yes, administer another half-dose.

9.

What must an infants heart rate be in order to administer a dost of Digoxin?

a)

Above 90bpm.

b)

Above 60bpm.

c)

Above 70bpm.

d)

Below 100bpm.

10.

A child is admitted to the ER with N/V, headache, bradycardia, and is currently having a dysrhythmia. The mother says that he will not eat since his last dose of digoxin 8 hours ago, what is the most likely Diagnosis?

a)

Digoxin Toxicity.

b)

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

c)

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA).

d)

Digoxin Hypersensitivity.

11.

What are some side effects of acute aspirin poisoning?

a)

Liver toxicity.

b)

Disorientation.

c)

LOC changes.

d)

Fever.

e)

Pulmonary congestion.

12.

A patient comes in with sunken fontanels, grunting, clubbing, dyspnea, and paleness; you fear he has left sided heart failure, and call a MD immediately, which of the following should take priority for monitoring?

a)

Respiratory Rate.

b)

Heart Rate.

c)

Blood Pressure.

d)

Temperature.

13.

Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) is classified as abnormal openings between the atria, allowing blood from the higher pressure left atrium to flow into the lower pressure right atrium. What are the three forms of this condition?

a)

Ostium primum.

b)

Ostium secundum.

c)

Sinus venosus defect.

d)

Ventricular Septal Defect.

e)

Patent Ductus Arteriosus.

14.

Where is a Ostium Primum defect located?

a)

Lower end of atrial septum.

b)

Center of septum.

c)

Superior vena cava and right atrium.

15.

Where is a Ostium Secundum defect located?

a)

Center of atrial septum.

b)

Lower end of septum.

c)

Superior vena cava and right atrium.

16.

Where is a Sinus Venosus defect located?

a)

Superior vena cava and right atrium.

b)

Center of septum.

c)

Lower end of septum.

17.

Which of the following are two forms of medical management for Atrial Septal Defect (ASD) or Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?

a)

Surgical Dacron patch.

b)

Median sternotomy with cardiopulmonary bypass.

c)

Balloon angioplasty.

d)

Left thoracotomy.

18.

An abnormal opening in the intraventricular septum where blood flows from higher-pressure left ventricle (oxygenated blood) to lower pressure right ventricle (unoxygenated blood) is known as what?

a)

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

b)

Atrial Septal Defect (ASD).

c)

Sinus Venosus Defect (SVD).

d)

Ostium Primum (OP).

19.

What are four signs of Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD)?

a)

Loud crying.

b)

Poor feeding.

c)

Pulmonary congestion.

d)

Loud harsh systolic murmur with palpable thrill.

e)

Weak pulses in femoral artery.

20.

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD) may vary from a small pinhole to complete absence of the septum, what can happen if it is a pinhole in size?

a)

Can close on its own.

b)

Become infected.

c)

Get worse over time.

d)

Rupture upon exercise.

21.

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA) is the failure of fetal ductus arteriosus to completely close within first few weeks after birth and can be classified by the following?

a)

Continuous "machinelike" murmur.

b)

Full and bounding pulses due to "runoff".

c)

Wide range between systolic and diastolic blood pressure.

d)

Weak pulses in femoral artery.

e)

Leg cramping on exertion.

22.

Which of the following are two forms of medical management for Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA)?

a)

Left thoracotomy.

b)

Visual-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS).

c)

Median sternotomy with cardiopulmonary bypass.

d)

Surgical Dacron patch.

23.

Coarctation of the Aorta (COA) is the constriction or narrowing of aortic arch, or descending aorta due to stenosis or other defects which will increased pressure proximal to defect and decreased pressure distal to obstruction is shown by which of the following manifestations?

a)

Weak pulses in femoral artery and Bounding pulses in arms.

b)

Leg cramping on exertion in older children.

c)

Epistaxis.

d)

Bounding pulses in femoral artery and weak pulses in arms.

e)

Leg cramping on relaxation in older children.

24.

Which of the following are closed heart surgical interventions for Coarctation of the Aorta (COA)?

a)

Anastomosis.

b)

Graft replacement.

c)

Visual-Assisted Thoracoscopic Surgery (VATS).

d)

Left thoracotomy.

25.

Is a Balloon angioplasty a surgical or nonsurgical intervention for Coarctation of the Aorta (COA)?

a)

Surgical.

b)

Nonsurgical.

26.

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) defect decreases pulmonary return and manifest as which of the following signs?

a)

Feeding problems.

b)

Growth retardation.

c)

Dyspnea on exertion.

d)

Paroxysmal hyper cyanotic episodes.

e)

Polycythemia.

27.

A child who often has to rest in the squatting position can be a sign for dyspneic cyanotic spell (aka blue spell), what are some first line interventions?

a)

Minimize crying by anticipating needs.

b)

Properly position baby on shoulder.

c)

Feed the baby, so that they fall asleep.

d)

Swaddle the baby to keep heat in.

28.

Underdevelopment of the left side of the heart, resulting in an absent or nonfunctional ventricle and hypoplasia of the ascending aorta causing a decrease in pulmonary blood-flow is known as what?

a)

Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS).

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF).

c)

Patent Ductus Arteriosus (PDA).

d)

Ventricular Septal Defect (VSD).

29.

Initial survival of infant with Hypoplastic Left Heart Syndrome (HLHS) depends what two defects?

a)

Foramen ovale.

b)

ductus arteriosus.

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot.

d)

Coarctation of the Aorta.

30.

The inability of the (left/right side of the) heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures to meet the metabolic demands of the body is known as what?

a)

Congestive Heart Failure.

b)

Cardiomegaly.

c)

Cardio-insufficiency.

d)

Left Heart Syndrome.

31.

Impaired Myocardial Functioning is a form of Congestive Heart Failure that exhibits which of the following signs?

a)

Tachycardia.

b)

Decreased peripheral pulses.

c)

Gallop rhythm.

d)

Cardiomegaly.

e)

Bradycardia.

32.

Pulmonary Congestion is a form of Congestive Heart Failure that has which of the following manifestations?

a)

Retractions and nasal flaring.

b)

Orthopnea.

c)

Wheezing, Cough, hoarseness.

d)

Weight gain.

e)

Neck vein distension.

33.

Systemic Venous Congestion is a form of heart failure than has which of the following manifestations?

a)

Weight gain

b)

Peripheral edema and ascites.

c)

Neck vein distension.

d)

Retractions and nasal flaring.

e)

Tachypnea and dyspnea.

34.

A gallop heart rhythm is a common manifestation of which type of heart failure?

a)

Impaired Myocardial Functioning.

b)

Pulmonary Congestion.

c)

Systemic Venous Congestion.

35.

Retractions and nasal flaring is a common manifestation of which type of heart failure?

a)

Pulmonary Congestion.

b)

Impaired Myocardial Functioning.

c)

Systemic Venous Congestion.

36.

Neck vein distension is a common manifestation of which type of heart failure?

a)

Systemic Venous Congestion.

b)

Pulmonary Congestion.

c)

Impaired Myocardial Functioning.

37.

In what procedure is systemic venous return directed to the lungs without a ventricular pump through surgical connections between the right atrium and the pulmonary artery?

a)

Modified Fontan procedure.

b)

Balloon angioplasty.

c)

Surgical Dacron patch.

d)

Median sternotomy with cardiopulmonary bypass.

38.

A Modified Fontan procedure is used to treat which two conditions?

a)

Tricuspid Atresia.

b)

Hypoplastic left heart syndrome.

c)

Bicuspid Atresia.

d)

Hyperplastic left heart syndrome

39.

Captopril (Capoten) is a ACE inhibitor, commonly administered how often?

a)

3 times a day.

b)

2 times a day.

c)

Once a day.

40.

Enalapril (Vasotec) is a ACE inhibitor, commonly administered how often?

a)

2 times a day.

b)

3 times a day.

c)

Once a day.

d)

4 times a day.

41.

Most Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme (ACE) inhibitors end with which suffix?

a)

Pril.

b)

olol.

c)

ime.

d)

sol.

42.

Infection of the valves and inner lining of the heart is know as which condition?

a)

Bacterial/Infective Endocarditis.

b)

Bacterial/Infective Cuspiditis.

c)

Bacterial/Infective Epicarditis.

d)

Bacterial/Infective Myocarditis.

43.

Bacterial/Infective Endocarditis is the Infection of the valves and inner lining of the heart that is most often caused by which the following?

a)

Streptococcus viridans.

b)

Staphylococcus aureus.

c)

Group A Streptococcus.

d)

Group B Streptococcus.

44.

Once a patient has been diagnosed with bacterial endocarditis, what must be done in order to prevent recurrence in high-risk patients prior to invasive procedures?

a)

Prophylactic antibiotic therapy 1 hour prior to procedures.

b)

Prophylactic antibiotic therapy 4 hours prior to procedures.

c)

Prophylactic antiviral therapy 1 hour prior to procedures.

d)

Prophylactic antiviral therapy 4 hours prior to procedures.

45.

An inflammatory disease that occurs after infection with group A β-hemolytic streptococcal pharyngitis that involves the joints, skin, brain, serous surfaces, and heart is known as what?

a)

Rheumatic Fever.

b)

Cardiomyopathy.

c)

Rheumatic arthritis.

d)

Hemophilia.

46.

What two medications should be used for a patient with rheumatic fever to Eradicate group A β-hemolytic streptococcal infection to prevent permanent cardiac damage?

a)

Penicillin.

b)

Erythromycin.

c)

β-blockers.

d)

Acyclovir.

e)

oseltamivir phosphate.

47.

You are caring for a 3 year old with rheumatic fever. His health record says that he has a hypersensitivity to Penicillin. What medication would most like be used in place of Penicillin to prevent permanent cardiac damage?

a)

Erythromycin.

b)

zanamivir.

c)

peramivir

d)

Fosinopril.

e)

Vancomycin.

48.

Hypercholesterolemia is a general term for excessive cholesterol what would excessive lipids in the blood be referred to as?

a)

Hyperlipidemia.

b)

Hypolipidemia.

c)

Secondary hypertension.

d)

Cholestyramine

49.

What is the primary form of treatment for hyperlipidemia after diagnosis is confirmed?

a)

Dietary restricting intake of cholesterol and fat.

b)

Extreme exercise.

c)

Weight reduction/control.

d)

Intermitted fasting to reduce lipid serum levels.

50.

What are two medications used for the treatment of hyperlipidemia?

a)

Cholestyramine.

b)

Colestipol.

c)

Zanamivir.

d)

Pseudoephedrine.

51.

Abnormality in the myocardium where cardiac contraction is impaired effecting lung and liver function is what condition?

a)

Cardiomyopathy

b)

Cardio-Atrophy.

c)

Endocarditis.

d)

Cardioperiopathy.

52.

Stage 1 systemic hypertension is also know as?

a)

Significant hypertension.

b)

Severe hypertension.

c)

Essential Hypertension.

d)

Secondary hypertension.

53.

Stage 2 systemic hypertension is also know as?

a)

Significant hypertension.

b)

Severe hypertension.

c)

Essential Hypertension.

d)

Secondary hypertension.

54.

Systemic Hypertension can be broken down into what two major categories?

a)

Significant hypertension.

b)

Severe hypertension.

c)

Essential Hypertension.

d)

Secondary hypertension.

55.

What are some clinical manifestations of Systemic Hypertension in an infant?

a)

Wakes up screaming at night.

b)

Head-banging/ rubbing

c)

Enlarged non-tender cervical lymph nodes.

d)

Polymorphous rash.

56.

What are some clinical manifestations of Systemic Hypertension in an Adolescent?

a)

Frequent headaches.

b)

Dizziness.

c)

Changes in vision.

d)

Polymorphous rash.

57.

What are 3 pharmacologic interventions for systemic hypertension?

a)

Nutrition counseling.

b)

Counsel adolescents on effects of drug, alcohol and tobacco use.

c)

β-blockers.

d)

Diuretics.

e)

ACE inhibitors.

58.

An acute systemic vasculitis of unknown cause but 75-80% occurs in children <5yrs; initially it is a extensive inflammation but can progress to coronary artery aneurysms is which condition?

a)

Kawasaki Disease.

b)

Rheumatic fever.

c)

Iron Deficiency Anemia

d)

Rheumatic heart disease.

59.

What is three form of management for Kawasaki Disease?

a)

Provide cool cloths.

b)

Unscented lotions.

c)

Soft & loose clothing.

d)

Exercise.

e)

8 glasses of water a day.

60.

Molly, with suspected rheumatic fever, is admitted to the pediatric unit. When obtaining the child’s history, the nurse considers which information to be most important?

a)

A recent episode of pharyngitis.

b)

A fever that started 3 days ago.

c)

Lack of interest in food.

d)

Vomiting for 2 days.

61.

When educating the parents of Jessica diagnosed with pulmonic stenosis (PS), LPN Corker would keep in mind that this disorder involves which of the following?

a)

Obstruction of blood flow from the right ventricle.

b)

A single vessel arising from both ventricles.

c)

Obstruction of blood flow from the left ventricle.

d)

Return of blood to the heart without entry to the left atrium.

62.

Which of the following disorders leads to cyanosis from deoxygenated blood entering the systemic arterial circulation?

a)

Tetralogy of Fallot.

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

c)

Coarctation of aorta.

d)

Aortic stenosis (AS).

63.

Betty is a 9-year-old girl diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following must Nurse Archie keep in mind when developing a care plan for the child?

a)

Pulmonary secretions are abnormally thick.

b)

Elevated levels of potassium are found in sweat.

c)

CF is an autosomal dominant hereditary disorder.

d)

Obstruction of the endocrine glands occurs.

64.

Mr. and Ms. Byers’ child failed to pass meconium within the first 24 hours after birth; this may indicate which of the following?

a)

Hirschsprung's disease.

b)

Celiac disease.

c)

Intussusception.

d)

Abdominal-wall defect.

65.

An infant with a patent ductus arteriosus is admitted to the pediatric unit ward. The nurse anticipates which of the following medications will be given to the infant?

a)

Ibuprofen.

b)

Prednisone.

c)

Penicillin.

d)

Albuterol.

66.

Nurse Corker is assessing a child with pyloric stenosis; she is likely to note which of the following?

a)

Projectile vomiting.

b)

Steatorrhea.

c)

Regurgitation.

d)

"Currant jelly" stools.

67.

Clay is an 8-year-old boy diagnosed with heart failure. Which of the following shows that he is strictly following the directed therapeutic regimen?

a)

Normal weight for age.

b)

Daily use of an antibiotic.

c)

Pulse rate less than 50 beats/minute.

d)

Elevation in red blood cell (RBC) count.

68.

Bryce is a child diagnosed with Coarctation of aorta. While assessing him, Nurse Corker would expect to find which of the following?

a)

Absent or diminished femoral pulses.

b)

Squatting posture.

c)

Severe cyanosis at birth.

d)

Cyanotic ("tet") episodes.

69.

Which of the following is an effective nursing intervention to decrease cardiac demands and minimize cardiac workload in children with heart disease?

a)

Scheduling care to provide for uninterrupted rest periods.

b)

Feeding the infant over long periods.

c)

Allowing the infant to have her way to avoid conflict.

d)

Developing and implementing a consistent care plan.

70.

A 4-month-old is diagnosed with Tetralogy of Fallot. You’re providing an illustration to help the parents understand the pathophysiology of this condition. What defects must be present in the illustration? Select all that apply:

a)

Ventricular septal defect.

b)

Right ventricular hypertrophy.

c)

Displacement of the aorta.

d)

Pulmonic stenosis.

e)

Coarctation of aorta.

71.

While feeding a 3-month-old infant, who has Tetralogy of Fallot, you notice the infant’s skin begins to have a bluish tint and the breathing rate has increased. Your immediate nursing action is to?

a)

Stop feeding the infant and place the infant in the knee-to-chest position and administer oxygen.

b)

Continue feeding the infant and place the infant on oxygen.

c)

Stop feeding the infant and provide suction.

d)

Assess the infant’s heart rate and rhythm.

72.

A two-month-old is showing signs and symptoms of heart failure. An echocardiogram is ordered. The test shows the infant has a ventricular septal defect (VSD). Which statement below best describes the blood flow in the heart due to this congenital heart defect?

a)

“The blood in the heart is shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, which is increasing pulmonary blood flow.”

b)

“The blood in the heart is shunting from the left ventricle to the right ventricle, which is decreasing pulmonary blood flow.”

c)

“The blood in the heart is shunting from the right ventricle to the left ventricle, which is increasing pulmonary blood flow.”

d)

“The blood in the heart is bypassing the left ventricle and is being shunted to the right ventricle, which is decreasing lung blood flow.”

73.

A 4-month-old is scheduled to take Digoxin for treatment of a ventricular septal defect. The patient’s apical pulse is 89 beats per minute. As the nurse you will?

Select all that apply:

a)

Hold the dose.

b)

Notify the physician.

c)

Administer the dose as scheduled.

d)

Recheck the pulse via the brachial artery.

74.

You’re caring for a child with Coarctation of the aorta and educating the parents about the child’s condition. Which statement by the parents demonstrates they understood the pathophysiology of this defect?

a)

“The narrowing of the aorta leads to a high blood pressure in the arteries that are found before the site of narrowing in the aorta.”

b)

“This condition can lead to right-sided heart failure.”

c)

“The dilation of the aorta leads to a decrease blood pressure in the arteries that are found after the site of dilation.”

d)

“The upper and lower extremities will experience a decrease in blood flow due to the defect in the aorta.”

75.

A newborn has severe Coarctation of the aorta. What signs and symptoms would you expect to find in this patient?

Select all that apply:

a)

Very strong bounding pulses in the upper extremities.

b)

Cool legs and feet.

c)

Absent/diminished femoral pulses.

d)

Machine-like murmur only on systole.

e)

Severe cyanosis.

76.

You are working in the NICU providing care to a neonate and while performing your head-to-toe assessment, you notice a loud harsh machine like murmur upon auscultation. You as the LPN would immediately notify the physician because you know that this would indicate which heart disorder?

a)

Patent Ductus Arteriosus.

b)

Tetralogy of Fallot.

c)

Pulmonic stenosis.

d)

Aortic stenosis.

77.

A common sign or symptom of patent ductus arteriosus and septal defects is?

a)

murmur.

b)

Chest pain.

c)

Hypotension.

d)

Headache.

78.

The nurse recognizes that the majority of congenital heart defects are treated with?

a)

Surgery.

b)

Diet.

c)

Exercise.

d)

Medication.

79.

In coarctation of the aorta, the blood pressure in the arms will be _____ higher than that in the legs?

a)

20 mm Hg.

b)

25 mm Hg.

c)

15 mm Hg.

d)

10 mm Hg.

80.

The LPN is aware that the most common clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta is?

a)

Upper extremity hypertension.

b)

Clubbing of the digits.

c)

Pedal edema and portal congestion.

d)

Loud systolic ejection murmur.

81.

The nurse instructs the mother of a child with a ventricular septal defect that she can expect the child to become cyanotic when the child does what?

a)

Cries vigorously.

b)

Eats.

c)

Sleeps on the left side.

d)

Experiences an elevation in temperature.

82.

A newborn is diagnosed with a congenital heart defect (CHD).  The test reveal that the lumen between the aorta and pulmonary artery is open.  The nurse is aware that this is?

a)

Patent ductus arteriosus.

b)

Ventricular septal defect.

c)

Tetralogy of Fallot.

d)

Coarctation of the aorta.

83.

What should the nurse assess prior to administering digoxin?

a)

Apical pulse.

b)

Sclera.

c)

Cough.

d)

Liver function test.

84.

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) involves which defects? Select all that apply.

a)

VSD.

b)

Right ventricular hypertrophy.

c)

Overriding aorta.

d)

Pulmonic stenosis.

e)

Left ventricular hypertrophy.

85.

While assessing a newborn with respiratory distress, the nurse auscultates a machine-like heart murmur. Other findings are a wide pulse pressure, periods of apnea and fatigue. The nurse suspects that the newborn has?

a)

Patent ductus arteriosus.

b)

Ventricular septal defect.

c)

Coarctation of the aorta.

d)

Pulmonary hypertension.

86.

In which congenital heart defect (CHD) would the nurse need to take upper and lower extremity BPs?

a)

Coarctation of the aorta.

b)

Patent ductus arteriosus.

c)

Ventricular septal defect.

d)

Pulmonary hypertension.

87.

During a well-child checkup for an infant with tetralogy of Fallot (TOF), the child develops severe respiratory distress and becomes cyanotic. The nurse’s first action should be to?

a)

Hold the child in knee-chest position to decrease venous blood return.

b)

Lay the child flat to promote hemostasis.

c)

Lay the child flat with legs elevated to increase blood flow to the heart.

d)

Sit the child on the parent’s lap, with legs dangling, to promote venous pooling.

88.

A nurse would expect that during play, a toddler with a history of tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) might assume which position?

a)

Squatting.

b)

Supine.

c)

Sitting.

d)

Standing.

89.

A 10-year-old has undergone a cardiac catheterization. At the end of the procedure, the nurse should first assess?

a)

Pulses.

b)

Provide sedation for patient.

c)

Hemoglobin and hematocrit.

d)

Pain.

90.

Maria is a 4-year-old child scheduled for a cardiac catheterization. Preoperative teaching should be?

a)

Adapted to his level of development so that he can understand.

b)

Done several days before the procedure so that he will be prepared.

c)

Detailed in regard to the actual procedures so he will know what to expect.

d)

Directed at his parents because he is too young to understand.

91.

Which explanation regarding cardiac catheterization is appropriate for a preschool child?

a)

When the procedure is done, you will have to keep your leg straight for at least 4 hours.

b)

The test is short, usually taking less than 1 hour.

c)

It is necessary to be completely “asleep” during the test.

d)

Postural drainage will be performed every 4 to 6 hours after the test.

92.

Which is best described as the inability of the heart to pump an adequate amount of blood to the systemic circulation at normal filling pressures?

a)

Heart failure.

b)

Systemic venous congestion.

c)

Congenital heart defect.

d)

Pulmonary congestion.

93.

A nurse is preparing to administer an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. Which drug should the nurse be administering?

a)

Captopril (Capoten).

b)

Furosemide (Lasix).

c)

Spironolactone (Aldactone).

d)

Chlorothiazide (Diuril).

94.

An 8-year-old child is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the medication if the apical pulse is less than _____ beats/min?

a)

70 bpm.

b)

60 bpm.

c)

90 bpm.

d)

100 bpm.

95.

A 6-month-old infant is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin). The nurse should notify the practitioner and withhold the medication if the apical pulse is less than _____ beats/min?

a)

90-110 bpm.

b)

110-120 bpm.

c)

70 bpm.

d)

60 bpm.

96.

As part of the treatment for heart failure, the child takes the diuretic furosemide (Lasix). As part of teaching home care, the nurse encourages the family to give the child foods such as bananas, oranges, and leafy vegetables. These foods are recommended because they are high in?

a)

Potassium.

b)

Sodium.

c)

Vitamins.

d)

Chlorides.

97.

The mother of a patient asks the LPN, what causes bacterial endocarditis? The nurse will state that the causative agent is?

a)

Streptococcus viridans.

b)

Staphylococcus albus.

c)

Staphylococcus albicans.

d)

Vitamins.

98.

Which painful, tender, pea-sized nodules may appear on the pads of the fingers or toes in bacterial endocarditis?

a)

Osler nodes.

b)

Subcutaneous nodules.

c)

Aschoff nodes.

d)

Janeway lesions.

99.

The nurse is aware that _______ is the most common and serious complication of rheumatic fever.

a)

Cardiac valve damage.

b)

Pulmonary hypertension.

c)

Cardiac arrhythmias.

d)

Seizures.

100.

When discussing hyperlipidemia with a group of adolescents, the LPN should explain that cardiovascular disease can be prevented by high levels of?

a)

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs).

b)

Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs).

c)

Triglycerides.

d)

Cholesterol.

101.

The nurse is caring for an infant with congestive heart disease (CHD). The nurse should plan which intervention to decrease cardiac demands?

a)

Organize nursing activities to allow for uninterrupted sleep.

b)

Allow the infant to sleep through feedings during the night.

c)

Wait for the infant to cry to show definite signs of hunger.

d)

Discourage parents from rocking the infant.

102.

Congenital heart defects are usually treated with?

a)

Surgery.

b)

Diet.

c)

Exercise.

d)

Medication.

103.

What should be done to facilitate the collection of urine from a infants diaper?

a)

Slit the diaper.

b)

Weigh the diaper.

c)

Squeeze the diaper.

104.

What is the recommended time allotted for oropharyngeal suctioning via bulb syringe, where you suction the mouth first followed by the nose?

a)

5 seconds.

b)

10 seconds.

c)

3 seconds.

d)

15 seconds.

105.

What are some ways you as a nurse can ease some of the stressors of hospitalization?

a)

Allow parents to "room-in" and participate in care.

b)

Maintain home daily routine

c)

Allow familiar items from home.

d)

Insist the child to stay in their room to promote healing.

e)

Instill a strict hospital routine to establish structure and ease of care.

106.

When can a child learn to use a PCA?

a)

5 years.

b)

10 years.

c)

3 years.

d)

8 years.

107.

What is the average BP for infants?

a)

90/60mmHg.

b)

120/90mmHg.

c)

60/90mmHg.

d)

100/60mmHg.

108.

Is a respiratory rate of 55 normal for a newborn?

a)

Yes.

b)

No.

109.

What is the average range for a toddlers HR?

a)

90 - 120 bpm.

b)

100 - 120 bpm.

c)

50 - 120 bpm.

d)

60 - 100 bpm.

110.

What is the normal HR for an infant?

a)

120 bpm.

b)

150 bpm.

c)

100 bpm.

d)

80 bpm.

111.

What position should a baby be in for lumbar puncture?

a)

Side lying position with the head flexed and the knees drawn up to the chest.

b)

Side lying position with the head flexed and the legs dangling.

c)

Supine lying position with the head flexed and the knees drawn up to the chest.

d)

Supine lying position with the head flexed and the legs dangling.

112.

What should be used when an infant or small child requires short-term restraint for examination or treatment that involves the head and neck such as Jugular Venipuncture, Throat examination, and a Gavage feeding aka NG tube?

a)

Mummy (SRD) Restraint.

b)

Straight (SRD) Restraint.

c)

Plank (SRD) Restraint.

d)

Zombie (SRD) Restraint.

113.

You are about to administer eye ointment and drops to a patient with bacterial conjunctivitis (also known as pink eye), how should this be done?

a)

Drops first, Wait 3 min, then apply Ointment.

b)

Apply ointment, wait 3 min, then drops.

c)

No particular order.

d)

Mix medications together then administer as one dose.

114.

A newly circumcised infant is in need of a diaper change what should be used to clean the peritoneal area?

a)

Water.

b)

Mild soap.

c)

Baby wipes.

d)

Antibacterial agent.

115.

A newly circumcised infant is in need of a diaper change what should be used afterwards to avoid the diaper from sticking if not contraindicated?

a)

Petroleum Jelly.

b)

Wet-to-dry dressing.

c)

KY antibacterial Jelly

d)

Water.

116.

What two positions should an infant be in when going to sleep?

a)

Supine.

b)

Side.

c)

Prone.

117.

What side should a baby be placed on after a feeding to reduce the risk of aspiration?

a)

Right side.

b)

Left side.

c)

Prone.

d)

Supine.

118.

What is used to calculate baby surface area?

a)

West Normigram.

b)

West Nomogram.

c)

East Nomogram.

d)

North Nomogram.

119.

What are three rapid growth periods?

a)

Prenatal.

b)

Infancy.

c)

Adolescence.

d)

School age.

e)

Toddler.

120.

You walk in on a toddler in respiratory distress with intercostal retractions and difficulty breathing, what type of O2 therapy would allow easy visualization of the chests rise and fall?

a)

Oxygen Hood.

b)

Incubator.

c)

Isolation oxygen.

d)

Nasal cannula.

121.

What position should a infant be placed in if administering <1mL of medication into the vastus lateralis?

a)

Supine Position with legs straitened out.

b)

Supine Position with legs tucked close to the chest.

c)

Prone Position with leg straitened out.

d)

Side laying position with legs tucked close to the chest.

122.

How long should a apical pulse and respiratory rate be taken for children less than 5yrs?

a)

Full minute.

b)

2 minutes.

c)

5 minutes.

d)

30 seconds.

e)

At least 15 seconds.

123.

How often should blood pressure be measured for children 3 years old to adolescence?

a)

Annually.

b)

Quarterly.

c)

Bi-annually.

d)

Tri-Annually

e)

Every month.

124.

What is the preferred site to check temperature for an infant?

a)

Axillary.

b)

tympanic.

c)

Oral.

d)

Rectal.

125.

What is the preferred site to check temperature for a child older than 5 years of age?

a)

Oral.

b)

Axillary.

c)

Tympanic.

d)

Rectal.

126.

What is the preferred site to check temperature for a child with a fever (100.4)?

a)

Rectal.

b)

Oral.

c)

Axillary.

d)

Tympanic.

127.

Elderly patients should be monitored for signs of withdrawal, isolation, alcoholism, loneliness, and disengagement?

a)

True.

b)

False.

128.

What is chorea?

a)

Involuntary twitching.

b)

Profuse vomiting.

c)

Intermitted coma-like state.

d)

Light green stool.

129.

What is number one nursing intervention for a patient with Chorea?

a)

Make sure to protect from injury and provide privacy.

b)

Time the twitching spells.

c)

Administer prescribed anticonvulsants.

d)

Hold the patient still to prevent injury.

130.

A child is thrown off his rocking-horse and sustains a head injury, he is moaning and the parent states he is in pain. What can be used to objectively measure the child's level of consciousness?

a)

The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS).

b)

The Glascow Coma Scale (GCS).

c)

Orientation check (person, place, time, situation).

d)

Ask for pain level.

131.

Prolonged mood or behavior change such as lowered grades in school; lack of interest in doing homework or achieving in school is known as what?

a)

Depression.

b)

Mood suppression.

c)

Ageism.

d)

Gerontoly.

132.

A child comes in who is possibly compromised due to a biochemical agent, which of the following would you not immediately asses?

a)

Developmental Mile Stones.

b)

Heart Rate.

c)

Skin Color.

d)

Respiratory efforts.

133.

Most older adults live in nursing homes.

a)

False.

b)

True.

134.

What are three Ritalin side effects?

a)

Insomnia.

b)

Lethargy.

c)

Stunted Growth.

d)

Drowsiness.

e)

Diarrhea.

135.

The last stage in the life cycle is known as which of the following?

a)

Senescence.

b)

Pathognomonic.

c)

Ageism.

d)

Gerontology.

136.

The study of aging, including physiological, psychological, and social aspects is known as which of the following?

a)

Gerontology.

b)

Senescence.

c)

Ageism.

d)

Pathognomonic.

137.

What is it called if someone is unfairly characterizing all elderly patient as being sick, feeble or demented?

a)

Ageism.

b)

Presbyopia.

c)

Kyphosis.

d)

Presbycusis.

138.

Decreased vision associated with aging is known as which of the following?

a)

Presbyopia.

b)

Hemiplegia.

c)

Presbycusis.

d)

Kyphosis.

139.

Which of the following is the medical term for a type of scoliosis that can also be known as hunchback?

a)

Kyphosis.

b)

Presbycusis.

c)

Hemiplegia.

d)

Presbyopia.

140.

Decreased hearing associated with aging is known as which of the following?

a)

Presbycusis.

b)

Senile.

c)

Hemiplegia.

d)

Dysphagia.

141.

A state of physical and mental deterioration associated with aging is known as which of the following?

a)

Senile.

b)

Presbycusis.

c)

Hemiplegia.

d)

Dysphagia.

142.

Paralysis on one side of the body is known as which of the following?

a)

Hemiplegia.

b)

Presbycusis.

c)

Senile.

d)

Dysphagia.

143.

Difficulty swallowing is known as which of the following?

a)

Dysphagia.

b)

Presbycusis.

c)

Senile.

d)

Hemiplegia.

144.

The inability to feel pleasure is known as which of the following?

a)

Anhedonia.

b)

Aphasia.

c)

Dysarthria.

d)

Akinesia.

145.

Defective or absent vocal function is known as which of the following?

a)

Aphasia.

b)

Anhedonia.

c)

Dysarthria.

d)

Akinesia.

146.

Difficulty speaking is known as which of the following?

a)

Dysarthria.

b)

Anhedonia.

c)

Aphasia.

d)

Akinesia.

147.

Abnormal state of motor and psychic hypoactivity is known as which of the following?

a)

Akinesia.

b)

Anhedonia.

c)

Aphasia.

d)

Dysarthria.

148.

Is mg/kg/d acceptable?

a)

No. Needs to be more specific.

b)

Yes. This contains approved abbreviations.

149.

What is the maximum time/pressure that should be spent on one suctioning attempt for infants during tracheostomy care?

a)

<5 seconds for infants at <100mmHg.

b)

<10 seconds for infants at <100mmHg.

c)

<15 seconds for infants at <100mmHg.

d)

<20 seconds for infants at <100mmHg.

150.

A patient with cerebral palsy is in need of his Broncho-dilator, should this be administered before or after meals and chest physical therapy?

a)

Before.

b)

After.

151.

How can you facilitate the administration of bitter tasting medications?

a)

Plug nose.

b)

Administer through a straw.

c)

Mix with a large amount of fluid to dilute taste.

d)

Administer in the side of the cheek.

152.

How should you administer oral solutions to an infant?

a)

Slowly.

b)

With rubber tipped syringe.

c)

Side of cheek.

d)

Rapidly.

e)

Back of tongue.

153.

What should be done if there is IV infiltration in a child?

a)

Stop the infusion, Elevate the extremity, Notify the provider.

b)

Stop the infusion, Lower the extremity, Notify the provider.

c)

Continue the infusion, Elevate the extremity, Notify the provider.

154.

What is the best site to deliver IM medications to a toddler?

a)

Vastus Lateralis.

b)

Deltoid.

c)

Gluteal.

155.

A 5 day old infant Crohn's disease needs IV hydration, where is the best site to start the IV in this child?

a)

A superficial vein of the hand or foot.

b)

A deep vein of the hand or foot.

c)

A superficial vein of the Antecubital.

d)

Scalp/ Cephalic vein.

156.

A wet diaper weighs an extra 45 grams, how much urine has the infant put out?

a)

45mL.

b)

40mL.

c)

90mL.

d)

15mL.

157.

Which way should the pinna be pulled when instilling eardrops to a 3.5yr old?

a)

Pull pinna upward and back.

b)

Pull pinna downward and back.

158.

Which way should the pinna be pulled when instilling eardrops to a 2.5yr old?

a)

Pull pinna upward and back.

b)

Pull pinna downward and back.

159.

The doctor has ordered both an eye ointment and an eye drop; how should the medications be given?

a)

Eye drops, wait 3 min, apply ointment.

b)

Eye drops, wait 5 min, apply ointment.

c)

Eye drops, wait 30 min, apply ointment.

d)

Apply ointment, wait 3 min, eye drops.

160.

After Instilling Nose Drops the child should remain in position for how long?

a)

1 min.

b)

3 min.

c)

5 min.

d)

10 min.

161.

Which of the following methods is NOT a viable method of medication administration?

a)

Disposable plastic calibrated cups.

b)

Teaspoons.

c)

Dropper.

d)

Plastic syringe.

162.

Which of the following postoperative interventions should a nurse NOT provide?

a)

Vital signs.

b)

Reassuring results from surgery.

c)

Assessing respiratory status.

d)

Managing pain.

163.

What doctrine permits minors to give consent even though they are not technically adults as long as they demonstrate the ability and maturity to understand the risks and benefits of the treatment?

a)

The Mature Minor's Doctrine.

b)

The Minor's Agreement.

c)

The 1947 Act.

d)

The Maturation Doctrine.

164.

At what age can the deltoid be used as an injection site for IM medications?

a)

18mo (0.5 to 1 mL).

b)

12mo (0.5 to 1 mL).

c)

19mo (0.5 to 1 mL).

d)

15mo (0.5 to 1 mL).

165.

At what age can the Dorsogluteal be used as an injection site for IM medications?

a)

5yrs old (1.5 to 2mL).

b)

7yrs old (1.5 to 2mL).

c)

8yrs old (1.5 to 2mL).

d)

10yrs old (1.5 to 2mL).

166.

What is the maximum amount of volume that can be administered IM to the Vastus lateralis of an infant?

a)

<0.5 mL.

b)

<1 mL.

c)

<5 mL.

d)

<2.5 mL.

167.

What is the maximum amount of volume that can be administered IM to the Vastus lateralis of an toddler?

a)

<1 mL.

b)

<2 mL.

c)

<5 mL.

d)

<2.5 mL.

168.

What is the maximum amount of volume that can be administered IM to the Vastus lateralis of an preschooler?

a)

<2 mL.

b)

<2.5 mL.

c)

<3 mL.

d)

<5 mL.

169.

When should stimulant medications such as Ritalin be given for a 12yr old with ADHD?

a)

In the morning so it can take effect during school.

b)

In the evening so it can take effect when their attention is weak.

c)

In the afternoon so it can take effect during dinner and family activity.

d)

Before bed so it can take effect when they wake up.

170.

What refers to inappropriate degrees of inattention, impulsiveness, and hyperactivity who's symptoms have been present in children 4 to 18 years of age and must be present in more than one major setting and can also have dyslexia or dysgraphia?

a)

Attention Deficit-Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD).

b)

Attention Deficit-Hypoactivity Disorder (ADHD).

c)

Attention Deficit Disorder (ADD).

d)

Inattention Disorder (ID).

171.

Bulimia is characterized by recurrent episodes of uncontrolled binge eating followed by self-induced vomiting and/or misuse of laxatives or diuretics at least twice a week for 3 months, what needs to be assessed when caring for this patient?

a)

Cardiac Monitoring.

b)

Electrolyte Imbalance.

c)

Brittle Teeth/finger nails.

d)

Low grade fever.

e)

Spells of coughing.

172.

What is an eating disorder characterized by a refusal to maintain a minimally normal body weight and by severe weight loss in the absence of obvious physical causes and have a clear disturbance of body image?

a)

Bulimia.

b)

Anorexia nervosa.

c)

Starvation disorder.

d)

Altered metabolic activity.

173.

A term used to describe a lesion or symptom that is characteristic of a specific illness is known as what?

a)

Gerontology.

b)

Senescence.

c)

Pathognomonic.

d)

Ageism.

174.

What is a virus that attacks the body's immune system (helper T lymphocytes) and If not treated, it can lead to AIDS.

a)

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

b)

Human Immuno Virus (HIV).

c)

Human Immunocompromising Virus (HIV).

d)

Human Insufficiency Virus (HIV).

175.

Which type of Hepatitis is transmitted from fecal-oral route, usually from contaminated food or water?

a)

Hepatitis A.

b)

Hepatitis B.

c)

Hepatitis C.

d)

Hepatitis D.

176.

Which type of Hepatitis is transmitted via blood or blood products contaminated with HBV.

a)

Hepatitis A.

b)

Hepatitis B.

c)

Hepatitis C.

d)

Hepatitis D.

177.

Signs and symptoms of Tuberculosis include?

a)

Low grade fever.

b)

Malaise.

c)

Night sweats.

d)

Anorexia.

e)

Cough.

178.

Pertussis, also known as _____, is a highly contagious respiratory disease. It is caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis.

a)

Whooping Cough.

b)

Hooping Cough.

c)

Rolling Cough.

d)

Sore throat.

e)

Stuffy Nose.

179.

Infectious mononucleosis, or "mono", is an infection usually caused by the Epstein-Barr virus. The virus spreads through saliva, which is why it's sometimes called the "______".

a)

Kissing Disease.

b)

Sore Throat.

c)

Sneezing Disease.

d)

Yuck-Mouth.

180.

Infectious Mononucleosis, or "Mono", displays which of the following symptoms?

a)

Low grade fever.

b)

Malaise.

c)

Enlarged spleen.

d)

Jaundice.

e)

Cough.

181.

Scarlet fever is a bacterial illness that develops in some people who have strep throat. What are the 2 classic signs commonly seen in patients with Scarlet fever?

a)

Strawberry Tongue.

b)

Tachycardia.

c)

Hypertension.

d)

Hypotension.

182.

If a child exhibits Strawberry tongue, Bilateral conjunctivitis, and a Sustained fever what condition would most likely be the diagnosis?

a)

Kawasaki Disease.

b)

Kiwi Disease.

c)

Iron Deficiency Anemia.

d)

Kaweesa Disease.

183.

What are the three main formed elements of blood?

a)

Erythrocytes.

b)

Leukocytes.

c)

Thrombocytes.

d)

Plasma.

e)

Lymph/ Serum fluid.

184.

Reduction in the number of RBCs or hemoglobin is the most common hematologic disorder of infancy and childhood, what is this known as?

a)

Anemia.

b)

Iron Deficiency Anemia.

c)

Polycythemia.

d)

Hypocythemia.

185.

You are teaching a new mom about iron deficiency anemia, of the following items which one is rich in iron?

a)

Egg white.

b)

Bananas.

c)

Carrots.

d)

Cream of wheat cereal.

186.

What is the most prevalent nutritional disorder where children 12 to 36 months are at highest risk and the medication of choice should be taken with orange juice if PO via straw/dropper to back of mouth?

a)

Iron Deficiency Anemia.

b)

Polycythemia.

c)

Bulimia.

d)

Chronic Regurgitation Disorder (CRD).

187.

What condition occurs mainly in African Americans when the child inherits both HbA and HbS but predominately HbS, is generally asymptomatic as a newborn?

a)

Sickle Cell.

b)

Polycythemia.

c)

Aplastic Anemia.

d)

Beta-Thalassemia.

188.

Beta-Thalassemia refers to inherited blood disorders characterized by deficiencies in the rate of production of specific globin chains in Hb that occurs most often in persons living near the Mediterranean sea, what four forms does this disease have?

a)

Minor.

b)

Major aka Cooley Anemia.

c)

Trait.

d)

Intermedia.

e)

Aplastic.

189.

Which of the following is an infectious viral disease that affects the central nervous system and can cause temporary or permanent paralysis?

a)

Poliomyelitis.

b)

Scarlet Fever.

c)

Rubella (German Measles).

d)

Exanthem Subitum (Roseola).

190.

Which of the following is a contagious viral infection best known by its distinctive red Maculopapular rash commonly spread through direct contact with the saliva or mucus of an infected person?

a)

Rubella (German Measles).

b)

Rubealla (German Measles).

c)

MRSA.

d)

Mumps.

191.

Which of the following is a viral infection that affects the parotid glands and salivary glands below and in front of the ears, that is spread through infected saliva?

a)

Mumps.

b)

Measles (Rubeola).

c)

Rubella (German Measles).

d)

Exanthem Subitum (Roseola).

192.

A viral infection that's serious for small children that spreads through the air by respiratory droplets produced from coughing or sneezing. Symptoms don't appear until 10 to 14 days after exposure. They include, inflamed eyes, sore throat, fever, Koplik's spots, and a red, blotchy Maculopapular skin rash. This disease is known as?

a)

Measles (Rubeola).

b)

Exanthem Subitum (Roseola).

c)

Erythema Infectiosum (Fifth Disease).

d)

Mumps.

193.

A common viral infection in young children that may cause high fever and a rash that is caused by two strains of herpes virus, usually affecting children by age two. The rash may appear as many small pink spots. This is known as which disease?

a)

Exanthem Subitum (Roseola).

b)

Measles (Rubeola).

c)

Rubella (German Measles).

d)

Mumps.

194.

Why is a 2 year old patient with Exanthem Subitum (Roseola) given plenty of quiet time and rest?

a)

To prevent febrile seizures.

b)

To prevent atonic seizures.

c)

To prevent perilous seizures.

d)

To prevent pseudoseizures.

195.

What is the priority nursing care for a child that has been maltreated?

a)

Getting them out of the situation.

b)

Confronting the Parents.

c)

Insist the parents to seek counseling.

d)

Tell the child its not that serious.

196.

Lack of food and clean clothes are examples of what type of child maltreatment?

a)

Physical Neglect.

b)

Emotional Abuse.

c)

Safety neglect.

d)

Educational neglect.

197.

Forced isolation, terrorizing, and over pressuring the child are examples of what type of child maltreatment?

a)

Emotional Abuse.

b)

Safety neglect.

c)

Physical abuse.

d)

Educational neglect.

198.

What is a nursing intervention for a toddler with hypoglycemia?

a)

Hard candy.

b)

Regular insulin.

c)

IV fluids.

199.

What is the treatment for hyperglycemia?

a)

Regular insulin.

b)

Hard candy.

c)

IV fluids.

d)

Elevate legs.