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Cardiac surgery quiz

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many litres of blood the human heart pumps per day?

a)

5600mls

b)

6600mls

c)

7600mls

d)

8600mls

2.

Number 2 is pointing to............

a)

Superior Vena cava

b)

Right atrium

c)

Left atrium

d)

Right ventricle

3.

The spike phase of the action potential of the sinoatrial node pacemaker cells of the heart is caused by:

a)

Opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels

b)

Opening of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

c)

Closure of voltage-gated K+ channels

d)

Closure of voltage-gated Ca2+ channels

4.

These cells are known as the primary pacemakers of the heart:

a)

Fibers of the left and right bundle branches

b)

Fibers of the bundle of His

c)

Cells of the atrioventricular (AV) node

d)

Cells of the sinoatrial (SA) node

5.

In cardiac muscle cells, approximately what percentage of cytoplasmic Ca2+ required for contraction enters the cardiac muscle cell from the extracellular fluid?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

6.

All the diagnostics listed below are crucial in diagnosing a heart attack except:

a)

ECG

b)

ECHO

c)

CT Head

d)

Stress test

7.

Hyralazine(Apresoline) is what drug class:

a)

ACE inhibitor

b)

Vasodilator

c)

Betablocker

d)

Diuretic

8.

Doxazosin(Cardura) is what drug class:

a)

Vasodilator

b)

Betablocker

c)

Calcium channel blocker

d)

Alpha receptor blocker

9.

Which of the following strategies would be most appropriate to minimise the risk of postoperative nausea and vomiting?

a)

No antiemetic agent is indicated because she has no previous history of receiving anesthesia.

b)

Ondansetron 4 mg should be given 2 hours before the surgery.

c)

Ondansetron 4 mg should be given at the end of the surgery.

d)

Ondansetron 4 mg plus an additional antiemetic agent should be given at the end of the surgery.

10.

Which of the following regimens is most appropriate to prevent postoperative venous thromboembolism (VTE)?

a)

Aggressive ambulation only.

b)

Sequential compression device.

c)

Enoxaparin 40 mg/d.

d)

Enoxaparin 30 mg bid.

11.
a)

Mesothelioma

b)

calcified pleural plaques

c)

Asbestosis

d)

Pleural effusion

12.

What view of the heart do leads I, aVL, V5 and V6 represent?

a)

Inferior

b)

Anterior

c)

Lateral

d)

Septal

13.

Which artery is most likely to be affected in the context of ST elevation being present in leads V3 and V4?

a)

LAD

b)

RCA

c)

Left circumflex

d)

Diagonal

14.

Which of the following pharmacologic agents may significantly lower myocardial stimulation thresholds?

a)

Fludrocortisone

b)

Lidocaine

c)

Isoproterenol

d)

Verapamil

15.

In a normal person, stroke volume increases by what percentage during exercise?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

50%

d)

70%

16.

A patient’s stimulation threshold was 1.0 V at 0.4 ms pulse duration. The pacemaker is programmed to 2.0 V & 0.8 ms duration. Lead impedance measures 1000 Ohm.

The output energy for this patient would be:

a)

2 X threshold

b)

4 X threshold

c)

6 X threshold

d)

8 X threshold

17.

A 47-year-old patient with myotonic dystrophy comes to the clinic complaining of a reduced exercise capacity for a week. A 24 hour ECG is performed and shows second degree AV block.

Which of the following therapeutic approaches is the most appropriate?

a)

AAIR pacemaker insertion

b)

DDDR pacemaker insertion

c)

Implantable loop recorder insertion

d)

VVIR pacemaker insertion

18.

Which of the following patients with atrial fibrillation would have a CHA2DS2-VASc score of two?

a)

Male aged 60 with diabetes

b)

Female aged 70 with hypertension

c)

Male, aged 70 with hypertension

d)

Male aged 80 with a previous CVA

19.

Describe the pathology

a)

Moderate Aortic Insufficiency (AI)

b)

Mid to moderate AI

c)

Mild AI

d)

Normal Aortic valve

20.

Quantify the lesion

a)

Severe mitral stenosis

b)

Moderate mitral stenosis

c)

Mild mitral stenosis

d)

Normal Mitral valve

21.

Number 8 indicates which artery?

a)

Conus branch

b)

Sinoatrial node branch

c)

Acute marginal artery

d)

Diagonal artery

22.

Number 5 indicates which artery?

a)

LAD

b)

LCX

c)

Obtuse marginal 1

d)

Diagonal 1

23.

Which of the following is a correct answer about Cardioprotective Q10 rule?

a)

For every 05 degree C drop in temperature, metabolic rate decreases by 30%

b)

For every 05 degree C drop in temperature, metabolic rate decreases by 50%

c)

For every 10 degree C drop in temperature, metabolic rate decreases by 30%

d)

For every 10 degree C drop in temperature, metabolic rate decreases by 50%

24.

Myocardial protection of arrested heart is achieved in 3 ways. Which of the following answers are correct?

a)

1. Electrochemical silence

2. Hypothermia

3. Lack of distention

b)

1. Electrochemical stimulation

2. Hyperthermia

3. Lack of distention

c)

1. Electrochemical silence

2. Normothermia

3. Lack of volume

25.

In most patients, which of the two valves are affected by endocarditis?

a)

Aortic and Mitral valves

b)

Mitral and Tricuspid valves

c)

Aortic and pulmonary valves

d)

Tricuspid and pulmonary valves

26.

What two valves get affected by endocarditis on patients who continuously use IV illegal drugs?

a)

Aortic and Mitral valves

b)

Mitral and Tricuspid valves

c)

Tricuspid and Pulmonary valves

d)

Aortic and pulmonary valves

27.

What is the most frequent etiologic agent of acute infective endocarditis in IV drug abusers?

a)

Streptococcus viridans

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

Streptococcus bovis

28.

What gross histological change correlates with white blood cells’ (WBCs) invasion into cardiac tissue during the first week after an MI?

a)

Dark discolouration

b)

White scar

c)

Red border around yellow pallor

d)

Yellow pallor

29.

What does the ECG show in prinzmetal angina?

a)

Absent P waves

b)

Prolonged PR interval

c)

ST segment elevation

d)

ST segment depression

30.

What is the main complication of the macrophage phase (4 to 7 days) after an MI?

a)

Fibrinous pericarditis

b)

Arrhythmia

c)

Cardiac tamponade / Shunt through the ventricular wall / Mitral insufficiency

d)

Aneurysm / Mural thrombus / Dressler's syndrome

31.

What is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death (SCD)?

a)

Cocaine abuse

b)

Mitral valve prolapse

c)

Cardiomyopathy

d)

Ventricular arrhythmia

32.

Choose the complete and accurate grouping of right to left shunts

a)

Atrial septal defect (ASD), Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

b)

Truncus arteriosus, Transposition of great vessels, Tricuspid atresia, Tetralogy of Fallot, Total anomalous pulmonary venous return (TAPVR)

c)

ASD, TAPVR, VSD

d)

PDA, Truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot

33.

What is the best description of Eisenmenger’s syndrome?

a)

It occurs when a right to left shunt becomes left to right due to a build-up of pressure on the left side of the heart.

b)

An initial left to right shunt becomes right to left due to increased pulmonary blood flow and eventual right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH).

c)

It is due to lack or aorticopulmonary septum formation.

d)

It is due to failure of the aorticopulmonary septum to spiral.

34.

What are the classic signs of a cardiac tamponade?

a)

Tachycardia, dyspnoea, fever

b)

Bradycardia, weakness in arms, diaphoresis

c)

Hypotension, muffled heart sounds, increased jugular venous distension (JVD)

d)

Hypertension, palpitations, chest pain

35.
a)

AP view of the chest X-ray with normal heart

b)

pericardial effusion

c)

Left side pleural effusion.

d)

PA view of the chest X-ray with normal heart

36.

When was the first Enhanced Recovery After Surgery model of care introduced?

a)

1987

b)

1997

c)

2000

d)

2007