wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Clin Med GI 1 Block - Lecture 1

Total questions: 92

Worksheet time: 49mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

most common type of GI cancer

a)

colon

b)

esophageal

c)

gastric

d)

rectal

2.

2nd most common type of GI cancer

a)

gastric

b)

esophageal

c)

colon

d)

rectal

3.

Hereditary colorectal cancer syndromes typically inherited in an ________ fashion

a)

autosomal dominant

b)

autosomal recessive

c)

X-linked dominant

d)

X-linked recessive

e)

Y-linked inheritance

4.

Germline mutation in the adenomatous polyposis coli (APC) gene located on chromosome 5 --> Loss of this genetic material results in the absence of tumor-suppressor genes

a)

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

b)

Lynch syndrome

5.

In typical _______, numerous colonic adenomas appear during childhood

a)

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

b)

Lynch syndrome

6.

•Extracolonic cancers are very common

--Endometrial carcinoma, may occur in up to 60% of female mutation carriers in some families

a)

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

b)

Lynch syndrome

7.

_______ is more common than ______; accounts for ≈ 3 to 5% of all colonic adenocarcinomas

a)

Lynch syndrome ; FAP

b)

FAP ; Lynch syndrome

8.

Associated with germline mutations of several genes

a)

Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)

b)

Lynch syndrome

9.

Risk factors for Colorectal cancer

a)

Inflammatory bowel disease (Ulcerative colitis, Crohn's)

b)

Abdominal radiation

c)

Diabetes mellitus

d)

Alcohol

e)

Obesity

10.

Risk factors for Colorectal cancer

a)

Cigarette smoking

b)

Long-term consumption of red meat or processed meats

c)

Acromegaly

d)

Race/ethnicity -- African-Americans

e)

GERD

11.

Colorectal Cancer may present in 3 ways

a)

Suspicious signs/symptoms

b)

Asymptomatic individuals discovered on routine screening

c)

Emergency admission with obstruction, peritonitis or GI bleed

d)

With the diagnosis of FAP

12.

simultaneous onset of two or more distinct tumors separated by normal bowel

a)

synchronous cancers

b)

metachronous cancers

13.

non-anastomotic new tumors developing at least six months after the initial diagnosis

a)

synchronous cancers

b)

metachronous cancers

14.

Typical sx from local tumor CRC

a)

Hematochezia

b)

Melena

c)

Abdominal pain

d)

Unexplained iron deficiency anemia

e)

Change in bowel habits

15.

Less common sx from local tumor CRC

a)

Abdominal distention

b)

Nausea and vomiting

c)

Change in bowel habits

d)

Hematochezia

e)

Abdominal pain

16.

Change in bowel habits more common in

a)

left-sided CRCs

b)

lesions of the right colon

c)

rectosigmoid tumors

d)

all sites

e)

rectal cancer

17.

_________________ commonly ulcerate leading tochronic blood loss without change in bowel habits

a)

left-sided CRCs

b)

lesions of the right colon

c)

rectosigmoid tumors

d)

all sites

e)

rectal cancer

18.

Hematochezia is more often caused by

a)

left-sided CRCs

b)

lesions of the right colon

c)

rectosigmoid tumors

d)

all sites

e)

rectal cancer

19.

Abdominal pain can occur with tumors arising at

a)

left-sided CRCs

b)

lesions of the right colon

c)

rectosigmoid tumors

d)

all sites

e)

rectal cancer

20.

Tenesmus most commonly seen with

a)

left-sided CRCs

b)

lesions of the right colon

c)

rectosigmoid tumors

d)

all sites

e)

rectal cancer

21.

Most common sites for CRC metastatic disease are

a)

regional lymph nodes

b)

liver

c)

lungs

d)

peritoneum

e)

prostate

22.

Laboratory studies for CRCs

a)

CBC

b)

CMP

c)

Serum chemistries (LFTs, renal function)

d)

Serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level

23.

-Carries prognostic value for CRC

--Obtained preoperatively

--If highly elevated may indicate more advanced disease

a)

CBC

b)

Serum chemistries (LFTs, renal function)

c)

Serum carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level

24.

[CRC] Useful first step in the evaluation of patients presenting with complications (i.e., bowel obstruction or perforation)

a)

Plain abdominal radiographs

b)

Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

e)

PET/CT

25.

[CRC] used to distinguish between layers of the rectal wall and thus detect depth of tumor penetration and perirectal spread, staging accuracy superior to CT

a)

Plain abdominal radiographs

b)

Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

c)

MRI

d)

PET/CT

26.

[CRC] Staging before surgery, assessing and staging recurrent disease, detecting the presence of distant metastases

--Inadequate bowel preparation and/or distention, flat lesions, and small polyps are causes for missed lesions (false negatives)

a)

Plain abdominal radiographs

b)

Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

e)

PET/CT

27.

Has a definite role in staging of rectal tumors

--Limited accuracy in determining nodal involvement

a)

Plain abdominal radiographs

b)

Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

e)

PET/CT

28.

[CRC] Calculates a semiquantitative measure of uptake, known as standard uptake value (SUV)

--Used in pretreatment staging, post-treatment follow-up, and surveillance

a)

Plain abdominal radiographs

b)

Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS)

c)

CT scan

d)

MRI

e)

PET/CT

29.

gold standard screening for CRC ***

a)

Colonoscopy

b)

Flexible sigmoidoscopy

c)

CT colonography AKA “virtual colonoscopy”

d)

Fecal occult blood test

e)

Stool DNA test

30.

Average risk for CRC > 50 years with negative family history has the screening option to get a colonoscopy

a)

every 10 years

b)

annually

c)

every 5 years

31.

Average risk for CRC > 50 years with negative family history has the screening option to get a fecal-based test

a)

every 10 years

b)

annually

c)

every 5 years

32.

Histology: Hyperplastic on polyp screening

a)

Nonademonatous (benign)

b)

Adenomatous (malignant potential)

33.

Adenomatous (malignant potential) polyps on screening can have histology of

a)

hyperplastic

b)

tubular

c)

villous (papillary)

d)

tubulovillous

34.

[CRC surgery] lesions in cecum and right colon

a)

Right hemicolectomy

b)

Extended right hemicolectomy

c)

Left hemicolectomy

d)

Total abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis

35.

[CRC surgery] : lesions in proximal or middle transverse colon

a)

Right hemicolectomy

b)

Extended right hemicolectomy

c)

Left hemicolectomy

d)

Total abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis

36.

[CRC surgery]: lesions in splenic flexure and left colon

a)

Right hemicolectomy

b)

Extended right hemicolectomy

c)

Left hemicolectomy

d)

Total abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis

37.

[CRC surgery]: Lynch syndrome, FAP, metachronous cancers in separate colon segments

a)

Right hemicolectomy

b)

Extended right hemicolectomy

c)

Left hemicolectomy

d)

Total abdominal colectomy with ileorectal anastomosis

38.

[CRC] Curative intent for localized disease (stage I-III)

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

39.

[CRC]

•Not standard of care

•Consider if positive surgical margin

•Palliation of symptoms

a)

Surgery

b)

Chemotherapy

c)

Radiation

40.

Standard of care for rectal cancer ***

a)

Sphincter-saving procedures

b)

Radiation Therapy

c)

Chemotherapy

41.

--Lesions in the middle and upper third of the rectum

--Will not have a permanent colostomy; temporary colostomy or ileostomy may be necessary

a)

Low anterior resection (LAR)

b)

Colo-anal anastomosis (CAA)

c)

Abdominal perineal resection (APR)

42.

--Very distal rectal cancers that are located just above the sphincter

--Increased frequency and urgency of bowel movements, as well as some incontinence to flatus and stool are possible

a)

Low anterior resection (LAR)

b)

Colo-anal anastomosis (CAA)

c)

Abdominal perineal resection (APR)

43.

--Lower-third rectal cancers

--Performed in patients in whom negative margin resection will result in loss of anal sphincter function

a)

Low anterior resection (LAR)

b)

Colo-anal anastomosis (CAA)

c)

Abdominal perineal resection (APR)

44.

Risk factors for squamous cell esophageal cancer

a)

Cigarette smoking

b)

Chronic alcohol consumption

c)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

45.

Risk factors for adenocarcinoma esophageal cancer

a)

Cigarette smoking

b)

Chronic alcohol consumption

c)

Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

46.

How deeply the cancer has grown into the wall of the esophagus or into nearby structures

a)

T stage

b)

N stage

c)

M stage

47.

Only in the epithelium (the top layer of cells lining the inside of the esophagus)

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

48.

Growing into the tissue under the epithelium

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

49.

Growing into the thick muscle layer (muscularis propria)

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

50.

Growing into the outer layer of the esophagus (the adventitia)

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

51.

Growing into nearby structures

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

52.

Esophageal cancer: most common presenting symptom ***

a)

Dysphagia

b)

Odynophagia

c)

Hoarseness

d)

Persistent cough

53.

Allows direct visualization and biopsy of the tumor [esophageal cancer]

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

54.

Gold standard for diagnosis of esophageal cancer ***

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

55.

Assesses both morphology and motility [esophageal cancer]

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

56.

Most sensitive test for determining depth of tumor penetration (T staging) and presence of enlarged periesophageal lymph nodes (N staging) [esophageal cancer]

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

57.

Evaluate extent of local tumor as well as presence of lymph nodes and distant metastases (M staging) to the lungs and liver [esophageal cancer]

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

58.

Increasingly becoming standard in staging *** [esophageal cancer]

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)

b)

Barium swallow

c)

Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS)

d)

CT

e)

PET/CT

59.

Targeted therapy for HER2 overexpressing available in

a)

colorectal cancer

b)

esophageal cancer

c)

gastric cancer

60.

Average risk for CRC > 50 years with negative family history has the screening option to get a flexible sigmoidoscopy

a)

every 10 years

b)

annually

c)

every 5 years

61.

Average risk for CRC > 50 years with negative family history has the screening option to get a flexible CTC

a)

every 10 years

b)

annually

c)

every 5 years

62.

Adjuvant chemotherapy for CRC, survival benefit in

a)

Stage I disease

b)

Stage II disease

c)

Stage III disease

63.

Only 20% of patient who survive a total resection live 5 years

a)

Colorectal cancer

b)

Esophageal cancer

c)

Gastric cancer

64.

Only in the top layer of cells of the mucosa

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

65.

Growing from the top layer of cells of the mucosa into the next layers below such as the lamina propria, the muscularis mucosa, or submucosa

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

66.

Growing into the muscularis propria

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

67.

Growing into the subserosa layer

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

68.

Growing into the serosa and may be growing into a nearby organ (spleen, intestines, pancreas, kidney, etc.) or other structures such as major blood vessels

a)

Tis

b)

T1

c)

T2

d)

T3

e)

T4

69.

Germline truncating mutations of the E-cadherin gene (CDH1) are detected in 50% of diffuse-type _________

a)

gastric cancers

b)

colorectal cancers

c)

esophageal cancers

70.

Smoking risk factor is Dose-dependent; both number of cigarettes and duration of smoking

a)

gastric cancer

b)

colorectal cancer

c)

esophageal cancer

71.

Pernicious anemia (B12 Deficiency) is a risk factor for

a)

colorectal cancer

b)

gastric cancer

c)

esophageal cancer

72.

radiation exposure -- particularly survivors of atomic bomb blasts, is a risk factor for

a)

gastric cancer

b)

colorectal cancer

c)

esophageal cancer

73.

Gastric cancer risk factors

a)

Helicobacter pylori

b)

EBV

c)

Prior gastric surgery (inculding gastric bypass)

d)

Obesity

e)

Long term ingestion of high concentration of nitrates

74.

Enlarged lymph nodes in left supraclavicular ***

a)

Virchow's node

b)

Irish node

c)

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

d)

Blumer's shelf

e)

Krukenberg tumor

75.

Enlarged lymph nodes in anterior axillary

a)

Virchow's node

b)

Irish node

c)

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

d)

Blumer's shelf

e)

Krukenberg tumor

76.

palpable nodule bulging into the umbilicus ***

a)

Virchow's node

b)

Irish node

c)

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

d)

Blumer's shelf

e)

Krukenberg tumor

77.

malignancy in the ovary that metastasized from a primary site other than the ovary

a)

Virchow's node

b)

Irish node

c)

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

d)

Blumer's shelf

e)

Krukenberg tumor

78.

metastasis to the peritoneal cul-de-sac palpable on rectal or vaginal exam

a)

Virchow's node

b)

Irish node

c)

Sister Mary Joseph nodule

d)

Blumer's shelf

e)

Krukenberg tumor

79.

Tumor markers such as CEA and CA 19-9 can be used as a lab study in

a)

gastric cancer

b)

colorectal cancer

c)

esophageal cancer

80.

Primary method to obtain tissue diagnosis in gastric cancer

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

b)

Endoscopic ultrasound

c)

Upper GI and barium swallow

d)

CT scan

81.

[gastric cancer]

--Staging tool

--Assess depth of tumor penetration or involvement of adjacent structures

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

b)

Endoscopic ultrasound

c)

Upper GI and barium swallow

d)

CT scan

82.

[gastric cancer]

Helpful in delineating the extent of disease when obstructive symptoms are present or when bulky proximal tumors prevent passage of the endoscope to examine the stomach distal to an obstruction

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

b)

Endoscopic ultrasound

c)

Upper GI and barium swallow

d)

CT scan

83.

[gastric cancer] Assess local disease and evaluate for metastases

a)

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy

b)

Endoscopic ultrasound

c)

Upper GI and barium swallow

d)

CT scan

84.

Esophagogastroduodenoscopy: Biopsy of any ulcerated lesion should include at least ___ specimens taken from around the lesion because of variable malignant transformation

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

85.

mainstay of gastric cancer tx ***

a)

surgery

b)

radiation

c)

chemotherapy

d)

targeted therapy

e)

immunotherapy

86.

immunotherapy -- pembrolizumab (Keytruda) for gastric cancer expressing

a)

PD-L1

b)

HER2

87.

Esophageal cancer tx: chemotherapy and radiation therapy

a)

better survival w combo

b)

better survival w RT alone

88.

gastric cancer tx: _______ after surgery does not improve survival, used primarily for palliation of pain

a)

surgery

b)

radiation

c)

chemotherapy

d)

targeted therapy

e)

immunotherapy

89.

Primary Gastric Lymphoma: 95% are ________ B cell lymphoma

a)

non-Hodgkin’s

b)

Hodgkin’s

90.

Primary Gastric Lymphoma risk factor

a)

H. pylori

b)

EBV

c)

Prior gastric surgery (inculding gastric bypass)

d)

Obesity

e)

Long term ingestion of high concentration of nitrates

91.

Primary Gastric Lymphoma tx for high grade lesions

a)

Antibiotic treatment to eradicate H. pylori

b)

Subtotal gastrectomy, usually followed by combination chemotherapy

92.

______ far more treatable than _______

a)

Primary Gastric Lymphoma

b)

Adenocarcinoma