wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

GI Disorders (Patho)

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Select the 4 classes of symptoms and signs of GI diseases.

a)

Abdominal or chest pain

b)

Altered ingestion of food

c)

Altered bowel movements

d)

GI tract bleeding

e)

Ankle pain

2.

________ is a rare disorder of the esophagus characterized by impaired ability to push food down toward the stomach (peristalsis), failure of the ring-shaped muscle at the bottom of the esophagus, the lower esophageal sphincter (LES, AKA cardiac sphincter), to relax. Manifests as: dysphagia, regurgitation, chest pain

a)

Achalasia

b)

GERD

c)

Cholelithiasis

d)

Gastroparesis

3.

___________: the formation of gallstones in the gall bladder while ____________ is inflammation of the gall bladder.

a)

cholelithiasis, cholecystitis

b)

Cholecystitis, Cholelithiasis

4.

___________ is the general name for a common condition that causes small bulges or sacs to form in the wall of the large intestine.

a)

Diverticular disease

b)

Gastroparesis

c)

Gastroenteritis

d)

Dumping syndrome

5.

______________: a condition that affects the stomach muscles and prevents proper stomach emptying.

a)

Gastroparesis

b)

Gastroenteritis

c)

Dumping syndrome

6.

___________: an intestinal infection marked by diarrhea, cramps, nausea, vomiting, and fever.

a)

Gastroenteritis

b)

Gastroparesis

c)

Dumping syndrome

7.

___________: is rapid gastric emptying due to a surgery that removed part of your stomach.

a)

Dumping syndrome

b)

Gastroparesis

c)

Gastroenteritis

8.

______________: a type of nerve damage that can occur with diabetes.

a)

diabetic autonomic neuropathy

b)

irritable bowel syndrome

c)

varices

9.

____________: an intestinal disorder causing pain in the belly, gas, diarrhea, and constipation.

a)

diabetic autonomic neuropathy

b)

irritable bowel syndrome

c)

varices

10.

________: abnormal veins in the lower part of the tube running from the throat to the stomach. Usually develop when blood flow to the liver is blocked. They often occur in people with advanced liver disease.

a)

varices

b)

mucosal laceration

c)

diabetic autonomic neuropathy

d)

irritable bowel syndrome

11.

__________________: deep intraoral lip laceration that needs repair.

a)

Mucosal laceration

b)

Varices

c)

Irritable bowel syndrome

d)

Diabetic autonomic neuropathy

12.

Sepsis can result from ____________________ against pathogens in the environment, including bacterial colon.

a)

disruption of the barrier function

b)

malnutrition and deficiency states

13.

Chronically, GI disease can be complicated by ____________________. These occur because many primary GI diseases result in malabsorption.

a)

disruption of the barrier function

b)

malnutrition and deficiency states

14.

Select the GI tract wall mucosa components

a)

specialized epithelial cells that line the lumen

b)

the underlying lamina propria, a layer of connective tissue that contains small blood and lymphatic vessels, immune cells, and nerve fibers

c)

the muscularis mucosa, a thin layer of muscle cells

15.

The submucosa contains larger blood and lymphatic vessels and a nerve plexus of the enteric nervous system, termed the submucosal nerve (Meissner) plexus. This nerve plexus ___________________________.

a)

is particularly important for secretion control in the GI tract

b)

is called the lamina propria

c)

in an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer

d)

is a sheet of squamous mesothelial cells

16.

The _________________ is composed of an inner circular and an outer longitudinal layer of smooth muscle and is responsible for the motility of the GI tract. Between these muscle layers lies the myenteric nerve plexus, a division of the enteric nervous system that regulates motility.

a)

muscularis externa

b)

serosa

17.

The serosa is an outer sheath of _________________ and connective tissues, where larger nerves and blood vessels travel in a bed of connective and adipose tissue.

a)

squamous mesothelial cells

b)

smooth muscle

18.

Simple diffusion is passive transport of ______________ across a concentration or electric gradient.

a)

uncharged molecules

b)

charged molecules

19.

Facilitated diffusion is passive transport of ______________ utilizing channels or transporters (water is polar and absorbed by special water channels called "aquaporins." Fructose I spoiler and is absorbed by the glucose transporter GLUTS.

a)

uncharged molecules

b)

charged molecules

20.

Na/K ATPase pump hydrolyzes ATP and use the energy directly to drive 3 Na ions outside and 2 K ions inside (against concentration gradients). This unequal transport of ions generates a transmembrane potential (negative inside; ie, transport is electrogenic)

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Secondary active transport

21.

No ATP hydrolysis by the transporter. Instead, the transport depends on an electrochemical gradient generated by a neighbor primary active transport. For example, glucose is absorbed against a concentration gradient across the apical membrane of epithelial cells in the small intestine by secondary active transport with Na ions by the SGLT1 transporter. Two Na+ ions are transported down their electrochemical gradient (generated by the Na+-K+ ATPase), dragging with them one glucose molecule.

a)

Primary active transport

b)

Secondary active transport

22.

_______: sodium-dependent glucose transporter. It is a cotransporter.

a)

SGLT

b)

primary active transport

c)

secondary active transport

23.

transport occurs by fusion of membrane vesicles with the plasma membrane resulting in uptake into epithelial cells

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

24.

transport occurs by pinching off membrane vesicles from the plasma membrane resulting in export out of the epithelial cells

a)

endocytosis

b)

exocytosis

25.

______________ (specific populations of dendritic cells and macrophages) extend processes that interact with the intestinal epithelial barrier to sense the luminal environment.

a)

Myeloid-derived cells

b)

Aggregates of lymphoid cells

26.

_____________________ include Peyer's patches and isolated lymphoid follicles located throughout the intestine. These also play important roles in immune surveillance.

a)

myeloid-derived cells

b)

aggregates of lymphoid cells

27.

Select the parts of the lamina propria

a)

B and T lymphocytes

b)

eosinophils

c)

plasma cells

d)

macrophages

e)

mast cells

28.

Innate immunity and GIT: the secretion of ________ (gastric acid) and ________ to neutralize and flush away potentially damaging bacteria and macromolecules

a)

fluid, electrolytes

b)

electrolytes, fluid

29.

Innate immunity and GIT: the _____________ between epithelial cells prevent the secretions from ingressing into tissues

a)

tight junctions

b)

macrophages

30.

Innate immunity and GIT- ______ is secreted by specialized goblet cells. The mucus forms a protective layer over the epithelial cells. Paneth cells are specialized cells in the small intestine that produce and secrete lysozyme and alpha-defensins (antibacterial peptide) that contribute to defense.

a)

Mucus

b)

Antibodies

31.

The enteric nervous system (ENS) can regulate the GI tract _________________________________. For this reason, it is often called the "little brain." Enteric neurons use many neurotransmitters, most notably neuropeptides.

a)

in a reflex manner without input from the CNS

b)

with direct management from the CNS

32.

An enteric neuron has its cell body within the wall of the GI tract and is thus __________ to the gut.

a)

intrinsic

b)

extrinsic

33.

The ENS comprises a series of ganglionated nerve plexuses that extend from the esophagus to the rectum and are organized into two principle components: They myenteric or __________, plexus, which is sandwiched between the layers of the muscularis externa. The submucosal or __________ plexus, which lies in the submucosa.

a)

Auerbach, Meissner

b)

Meissner, Auerbach

34.

In ______________, as a result of enteric nervous system defects, the body of the esophagus is quiet and the lower sphincter is contracted, making ingestion of food difficult or impossible.

a)

esophageal achalasia

b)

GERD

35.

__________ have cell bodies outside the gut wall

a)

extrinsic neurons

b)

intrinsic neurons

36.

GI hormones are invariably peptides, and many of these peptides are present not only in endocrine cells but also in the nerves of the enteric system and CNS. Thus, they have dual functions as ____________________.

a)

hormones and neurotransmitters

b)

insulin and antidepressants

37.

Which of the following inhibits the release of most other peptide hormones (ie gastrin)?

a)

somatostatin

b)

prostaglandin

c)

histamine

38.

Which of the following increases mucus and bicarbonate secretion from gastric mucosa?

a)

somatostatin

b)

prostaglandin

c)

histamine

39.

Which of the following stimulates gastric acid secretion?

a)

somatostatin

b)

prostaglandins

c)

histamine

40.

________ stimulates gastric acid secretion.

a)

gastrin

b)

CCK

c)

secretin

d)

GIP

41.

_________ stimulates pancreatic bicarbonate secretion, biliary bicarbonate secretion, growth of exocrine pancreases, pepsin secretion and inhibits gastric acid secretion

a)

gastrin

b)

Secretin

c)

GLP-1

d)

Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP)

42.

________ stimulates gallbladder contraction, pancreatic enzyme and bicarbonate secretion and growth of exocrine pancreas

a)

CCK

b)

GLP-1

c)

Motilin

d)

Pancreatic Polypeptide

43.

________ gastrin inhibitory peptide and recently changed to glucose-dependent insulinotropic peptide. Stimulates insulin release (inhibits gastric acid secretion)

a)

GIP

b)

gastrin

c)

GLP-1

d)

Motilin

44.

________ (Glucagon like peptide) stimulates insulin secretion

a)

GLP-1

b)

GIP

c)

Gastrin

d)

Pancreatic Polypeptide (PP)

45.

___________ stimulates gastric and duodenal motility

a)

gastrin

b)

GIP

c)

Motilin

d)

GLP-1

46.

__________ secreted by islets of Langerhans and inhibits pancreatic bicarbonate and enzyme secretion

a)

pancreatic polypeptide (PP)

b)

Motilin

c)

gastrin

d)

CCK

47.

Ingestion of caustic reagents or acid reflux cause damage to the smooth muscles and ______________.

a)

esophageal structures

b)

cardiac muscles

c)

skeletal muscles

48.

Abnormal neural control of motility is seen in _______________.

a)

esophageal achalasia

b)

GERD

c)

dyspepsia

49.

GI motility examples for stomach- _______________ (decrease in ability to empty the food in the small intestine). A common complication for diabetes

a)

gastroparesis

b)

vagotomy

c)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

50.

GI motility examples for stomach- ___________: surgical transection of the vagus nerve trunks. Affects both motility and acid secretion. This is still performed sometimes as a treatment for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome (acid hypersecretion and severe peptic ulcer disease caused by a gastrin-secreting tumor)

a)

gastroparesis

b)

vagotomy

c)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

51.

GI motility examples for stomach- _______________: food cannot pass freely out of the stomach owing to spasmodic narrowing of the pyloric outlet caused by hypertrophy of the pyloric musculature

a)

gastroparesis

b)

vagotomy

c)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

52.

GI motility example for small intestine and colon-__________: abdominal pain, bloating and diarrhea alternating with constipation in the absence of detectable organic disease and structural abnormalities

a)

gastroparesis

b)

vagotomy

c)

hypertrophic pyloric stenosis

d)

irritable bowel syndrome

53.

Elevated acid secretion relating to an H pylori infection, increases the likelihood of developing a __________.

a)

duodenal ulcer

b)

resistance to antacids

54.

In the presence of an H pylori infection, _____________ (from diminished mucus secretion in some cases) is a more crucial factor in the development of gastric ulcer.

a)

diminished mucosal defense

b)

duodenal ulcer

55.

What disease is characterized by damage of the neural plexuses of the esophagus by the parasite Trypanosoma cruzi?

a)

Esophageal achalasia

b)

Chagas disease

56.

Over months and years, LES dysfunction results in tremendous enlargement of the esophagus holding as much as 1L of putrid, infected material and imposing a high risk of what?

a)

aspiration pneumonia

b)

Chagas disease

c)

walking pneumonia

d)

heartburn

57.

Choose the symptoms of reflux

a)

heartburn

b)

sour taste

c)

symptoms worsen at night when lying down and after drinking caffeinated beverages

d)

aspiration pneumonia

e)

walking pneumonia

58.

__________, a disorder in which a portion of the proximal stomach slides up into the chest cavity with upward displacement of the LES, can also contribute to the development of reflux

a)

hiatal hernia

b)

heartburn

c)

alkaline injury

59.

Reflux esophagitis can be caused by ___________ (pancreatic juice or bile refluxing through both an incompetent pyloric sphincter and a relaxed lower esophageal sphincter)

a)

alkaline injury

b)

hiatal hernia

c)

gastroparesis

60.

Select the hormones that increase pressure

a)

gastrin

b)

motilin

c)

substance P

d)

secretin

e)

cholecystokinin

61.

Select the hormones that decrease pressure

a)

secretin

b)

cholecystokinin

c)

somatostatin

d)

vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)

e)

gastrin

62.

Select the neural agents that increase pressure

a)

alpha adrenergic agonists

b)

beta adrenergic antagonists

c)

alpha adrenergic antagonists

d)

beta adrenergic agonists

e)

cholinergic agonists

63.

Select the neural agents that decrease pressure

a)

alpha adrenergic agonists

b)

beta adrenergic antagonists

c)

beta adrenergic agonists

d)

alpha adrenergic antagonists

e)

anticholinergic agonists

64.

Which foods increase pressure?

a)

protein meals

b)

fat

c)

chocolate

d)

peppermint

65.

Which foods decrease pressure?

a)

protein meals

b)

fat

c)

chocolate

d)

peppermint

66.

Other factors that can increase pressure:

a)

histamine

b)

antacids

c)

metoclopramide (reglan)

d)

domperidone

e)

cisapride 1

67.

Other factors that can increase pressure:

a)

prostaglandin F2

b)

baclofen

c)

histamine

d)

theophylline

e)

prostaglandin E2, I2

68.

Other factors that can decrease pressure:

a)

theophylline

b)

prostaglandins E2, I2

c)

serotonin

d)

meperidine

e)

morphine

69.

Other factors that can decrease pressure:

a)

dopamine

b)

calcium channel blocking agents

c)

diazepam

d)

barbiturates

e)

histamine

70.

Recurrent reflux can damage the mucosa, resulting in __________, hence the term "reflux esophagitis."

a)

inflammation

b)

infection

c)

the need for surgery

71.

What predisposes to further reflux because the scarring that occurs with healing of the inflamed epithelium renders the LES progressively less competent as a barrier?

a)

recurrent reflux

b)

GERD

72.

How is gastric ulcer distinguished from erosive gastritis?

a)

depth of the lesions, with gastric ulcers penetrating through the mucosa

b)

if the lesions are on the upper part of the mucosa then it is erosive gastritis

73.

Is there information that supports the theory that gastritis is a lesion that predisposes to the development of gastric ulcer by decreasing mucus, prostaglandin and bicarbonate secretion?

a)

yes

b)

no

74.

Choose the 3 ways in which motility defects have been proposed to contribute to the development of gastric ulcer

a)

incompetent pyloric sphincter allowing reflux of duodenal contents leading to lesser mucosal barrier against acid and pepsin

b)

delayed emptying of gastric contents, including reflux material, into the duodenum

c)

delayed gastric emptying hence food retention, causing increased gastrin secretion and gastric acid production

75.

____________ may play a role in the development of gastric ulcer. Prostaglandins are known to increase mucosal blood flow as well as bicarbonate and mucus secretion and to stimulate mucosal cell repair and renewal.

a)

mucosal ischemia

b)

esophageal achalasia

76.

Select the most notable causes of inflammation from superficial mucosal injury (shallow ulcers- unlike gastric or duodenal ulcers, in erosive gastritis the submucosa and muscular mucosa are not penetrated.

a)

alcohol use

b)

drug use

c)

stress

d)

pharmacy school

77.

Chronic Erosive Gastritis

a)

characterized by inflammatory cell infiltration into the corpus of the stomach with gastric mucosal atrophy that leads to the death of parietal cells, which leads to dropout of gastric glands

b)

atrophic gastritis can be a purely autoimmune disease associated with the production of autoantibodies to parietal cells, intrinsic factor, and gastrin

c)

can be the result of an H pylori infection

d)

H pylori-mediated atrophic gastritis increases risk of inflammatory infiltrate progressing to a lymphoma of MALT

78.

Etiology of __________: it is a common complication of poorly controlled diabetes mellitus (type II) with consequent autonomic neuropathy.

a)

gastroparesis

b)

duodenal ulcer

79.

What kind of drugs can be used to improve to motility of the GI and therefore gastroparesis?

a)

prokinetic agents (ie erythromycin as an off label use)

b)

diuretic

c)

opioids

d)

biguanide

80.

Why are treatments for gastroparesis not equally effective for a majority of patients even with the same initial complaints?

a)

different patients have different relative contributions of the intrinsic nervous system, enteric nervous system, autonomic nervous system, higher centers of the CNS and hormones over control of their GI tract motility

b)

has to do with whether or not the patient has type 2 diabetes

81.

Select the clinical manifestations of gastroparesis

a)

development of bezoars (masses of undigestible material in the digestive tract which can cause a blockage. may be in stomach, small intestine, or large intestine (frequency greatest to smallest)

b)

bacterial overgrowth (resulting in malabsorption and diarrhea)

c)

erratic blood glucose control

d)

weight loss (lost appetite)

82.

Select the option(s) containing Cholelithiasis clinical presentation

a)

mild nausea or abdominal discomfort after eating fatty or fried foods

b)

severe right upper quadrant or jaundice

c)

typical patient with gallstones is female due to the role of estrogens in gallstone pathogenesis and in her 40s which reflects the time necessary for progression to symptomatic disease

d)

the typical patient with gallstones is male and in his 40s to show lack of estrogen with time equals progression to symptomatic disease

83.

What are gallstones largely composed of?

a)

cholesterol with or without calcium deposits

b)

calcium with or without cholesterol deposits

c)

calcium

d)

urea deposits

84.

Where is bile stored and concentrated after being produced?

a)

liver

b)

gallbladder

c)

duodenum

d)

stomach

85.

Select the factors that predispose to cholelithiasis

a)

loss of gallbladder muscular wall motility

b)

altered levels of hormones such as CCK or altered neural control

c)

excessive sphincteric contraction which impair emptying

d)

diabetes due to neuropathy (affects wall motility and sphincter contraction)

86.

The formation of gallstones usually requires the formation of bile whose cholesterol is ___________ its percentage solubility.

a)

greater than

b)

less than

87.

The normal processes that prevent gallstone formation probably include the fact that bile does not normally stay in the gallbladder long enough to become _________ (prone to stone formation)

a)

lithogenic

b)

pathogenic

88.

_____________: inflammation of the gallbladder and the major clinical presentation of gallstones; can be acute or chronic

a)

cholecystitis

b)

acute pancreatitis

c)

systemic sepsis

89.

___________: as a consequence of an episode of acute cholecystitis, if a stone travels down the common bile duct but fails to clear the sphincter of Oddi thereby blocking the pancreatic duct

a)

cholecystitis

b)

acute pancreatitis

c)

systemic sepsis

90.

______________: inflamed gallbladder becomes infected

a)

cholecystitis

b)

acute pancreatitis

c)

systemic sepsis

91.

Diverticular Disease:

a)

bowel disease

b)

main symptom is chronic constipation

c)

main symptom is chronic diarrhea

d)

disease of the intestines

92.

What does diverticulosis result from?

a)

an acquired deformity of the colon

b)

pH too high in stomach

c)

a blockage in the stomach or intestines

93.

Does the incidence of diverticulosis increase or decrease with age?

a)

increase

b)

decrease

94.

Epidemiologic studies suggest that with the consumption of highly refined foods and less fiber, with a resulting _________ prevalence of chronic constipation, may be responsible for the increased prevalence of diverticular disease.

a)

increased

b)

decreased

95.

Presentation of diverticulitis:

a)

fever

b)

abdominal guarding

c)

rebound tenderness

d)

absence of bowel sounds

e)

may lead to perforation