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Psychopathology - 40 questions to test your knowledge

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

'Statistical Infrequency' as a description of abnormality uses which type of statistical calculation?

a)

Standard Deviation

b)

Normal Distribution

c)

Normal Deviation

d)

Standard Distribution

2.

When referring to IQ, what percentage of people are considered to have an 'abnormal' score at the bottom end of the range?

a)

The lowest 1%

b)

The lowest 2%

c)

The lowest 5%

d)

The lowest 10%

3.

Tick all of the responses below which are accurate evaluations of the 'statistical infrequency' description of abnormality:

a)

There is real life application

b)

Unusual characteristics can often be seen as positive

c)

Judgements around abnormality can be subjective

d)

Being labelled as abnormal can have negative effects on an individual

4.

Which of the following is NOT a deviation from a social norm?

a)

Antisocial personality disorder

b)

Dressing in bright clothes at a funeral

c)

Making funny noises during a lecture

d)

Acting aggressively in a contact sport

5.

Tick all of the following which are relevant evaluation points to the 'deviation from social norms' description of abnormality:

a)

There is real life application

b)

It is unlikely to be the sole reason for abnormality

c)

Social norms vary from one culture to another

d)

All deviation from social norms is considered to be abnormal behaviour

6.

Tick all of the following that were identified by Rosenhan and Seligman as signs that someone is not functioning adequately with the demands on their live:

a)

When someone cannot maintain eye contact and respect personal space

b)

When a person spends too much time away from home

c)

When a person experiences severe personal distress

d)

When a person's behaviour becomes irrational or dangerous

7.

Which of the following is NOT a relevant evaluation point for the 'failure to function adequately' description of abnormality:

a)

It takes into account the patient's perspective

b)

It portrays some aspects of abnormality as positive

c)

It involves selective judgements

d)

It is very similar to the 'deviation from social norms' description

8.

Who proposed the characteristics of good mental health in 1958?

a)

David Rosenhan

b)

Marie Jahoda

c)

Martin Seligman

d)

Aaron Beck

9.

Tick all of the following which, according to research, are considered to be criteria of good mental health:

a)

Accurate perception of ourselves

b)

Coping with stress

c)

Good self esteem

d)

Can work independently of other people

10.

In some cultures, positive mental health can be viewed differently. An example of this is:

a)

Independence from other people is seen as a bad thing

b)

Stress is important to challenge yourself

c)

Having occasional guilt should be seen as a positive experience

d)

Work should not be seen as an enjoyable activity

11.

The DSM (version 5) is the manual for diagnosing mental health conditions. What does DSM stand for?

a)

Dealing, Solving, and Monitoring of Mental Disorders

b)

Doctor's Standard Manual of Mental Disorders

c)

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

d)

Diagnosing Situations and Mechanisms of Mental Disorders

12.

"An irrational fear of an object or situation" is a definition of:

a)

Phobias

b)

Depression

c)

OCD

d)

Anxiety

13.

Ophidiophobia is the fear of:

a)

Snakes

b)

Spiders

c)

Clowns

d)

Beards

14.

Tick all of those below that are behavioural characteristics of phobias:

a)

Panic

b)

Avoidance

c)

Endurance

d)

Compulsions

15.

Which of the following is an emotional characteristic of phobias?

a)

Fear

b)

Sadness

c)

Anger

d)

Humour

16.

"An unpleasant state of high arousal" is a definition of:

a)

Anxiety

b)

OCD

c)

Depression

d)

Phobias

17.

Tick all of those below that are behavioural characteristics of depression:

a)

Lowering of activity levels

b)

Disruption to sleep patterns

c)

Change of eating behaviour

d)

Compulsion to do certain activities

18.

Which of the following is not an emotional characteristic of OCD?

a)

Anxiety

b)

Lowered mood

c)

Guilt

d)

Compulsions

19.

Trichotillomania is a condition often related to someone with OCD. What does it involve?

a)

Comulsive eating

b)

Compulsive exercise

c)

Compulsive hair pulling

d)

Compulsive working

20.

Tick all of the features below that are indicative of the compulsive behaviours of people with OCD:

a)

Compulsions are repetitive

b)

Compulsions are inconsistent

c)

Compulsions reduce anxiety

d)

Compulsions are harmful

21.

Phobias are acquired as a result of:

a)

Classical conditioning and vicarious reinforcement

b)

Classical conditioning and operant conditioning

c)

Operant conditioning and identification

d)

Operant conditioning and vicarious reinforcement

22.

With regard to phobias, what is 'Biological Preparedness'?

a)

An innate sense to ignore fears

b)

An innate sense to deal with fears

c)

An innate sense to acquire fears

d)

An innate sense to pass fears on to other people

23.

The learning of a different response to treat a phobia is known as:

a)

Alternative conditioning

b)

Vicarious conditioning

c)

Operant conditioning

d)

Counter conditioning

24.

Tick all of the following which are involved in the process of systematic desensitisation:

a)

Anxiety heirachy

b)

Relaxation

c)

Exposure

d)

Flooding

25.

'Flooding' can help to treat phobias by avoiding a response to a stimulus. This is called:

a)

Inhibition

b)

Extinction

c)

Reverse conditioning

d)

Counter conditioning

26.

'Flooding' can help to treat phobias by avoiding a response to a stimulus. This is called:

a)

Inhibition

b)

Extinction

c)

Reverse conditioning

d)

Counter conditioning

27.

Which of the following is an accurate strength of 'Flooding'?

a)

It is cost effective

b)

It is effective for all types of phobia

c)

It is a comfortable treatment for patients

d)

It is an appropraite treatment for young children

28.

Tick all of those below that are a part of Beck's Cognitive theory of depression:

a)

Faulty information processing

b)

Negative self schemas

c)

Negative triad

d)

Negative feedback

29.

Albert Ellis suggested a cognitive explanation for depression called:

a)

The 1-2-3 model

b)

The A-B-C model

c)

The X-Y-Z model

d)

The 3-2-1 model

30.

CBT is used to treat depression, but what does CBT stand for?

a)

Challenging behavioural therapy

b)

Cognitive behavioural therapy

c)

Challenging behavioural treatment

d)

Cognitive behavioural treatment

31.

REBT is a cognitive technique used to treat depression, but what does REBT stand for?

a)

Reductional emotive behaviour therapy

b)

Reversal emotive behaviour therapy

c)

Realistic emotive behaviour therapy

d)

Rational emotive behaviour therapy

32.

'Behavioural activiation' is a technique used with depression sufferers to try and improve their:

a)

Self esteem

b)

Diet

c)

Avoidance / isolation

d)

Sleeping patterns

33.

According to research, what is the most effective method for treating depression?

a)

CBT

b)

Anti-depressants

c)

CBT & anti-depressants combined

d)

Flooding

34.

Which of the following is a strength of CBT?

a)

It only takes a few sessions to work

b)

It is effective in most cases

c)

It is relatively cheap

d)

There are no ethical considerations

35.

OCD is thought to caused by several genes. What is this called?

a)

Monogenic

b)

Bigenic

c)

Polygenic

d)

Multigenic

36.

Some cases of OCD are due to impaired decision making. What part of the brain is repsonible for this?

a)

Frontal lob

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Occipital lobe

d)

Parietal lobe

37.

What percentage of identical twins share OCD symptoms?

a)

48%

b)

58%

c)

68%

d)

78%

38.

SSRIs are used to treat OCD. What does SSRI stand for?

a)

Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor

b)

Standard Serotonin Reuptake inhibitor

c)

Selective Serotonin Reversal Inhibitor

d)

Standard Serotonin Reversal Inhibitor

39.

Tick all of the following that are side effects of taking SSRIs:

a)

Indigestion

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Loss of libido

d)

Memory loss

40.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

A standard dose of the SSRI Fluoxetine is 20mg a day

b)

SSRIs should ot be combined with any other treatment

c)

Another name for Fluxoxetine is valium

d)

SSRIs can take up to 4 years to have an effect