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Worksheets

STAAR

Total questions: 232

Worksheet time: 5hrs 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How do viruses reproduce?
a)
They copy their own genetic material inside a protein coat.
b)
They kill a cell and reproduce inside it.
c)
They invade a living cell and use the cell's functions to replicate their genetic material.
d)
They do not reproduce because they are not technically living things.
2.
What is the capsid of a virus?
a)
the disease it causes
b)
the receptors to which it binds
c)
the genetic material
d)
its protein coat
3.
Which cell part is present in eukaryotic cells, but not in prokaryotic cells?
a)
cell membrane
b)
cell wall
c)
cytoplasm
d)
nucleus
4.
Which of the following is a possible result of a disruption in the cell cycle?
a)
cancer
b)
photosynthesis
c)
cellular respiration
d)
protein synthesis
5.
Which organic macromolecules are composed of chains of amino acids that join to form the structural components of organisms?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
nucleic acids
c)
proteins
d)
lipids
6.
This cell is undergoing mitosis.  What stage of mitosis is shown?
a)
prophase
b)
metaphase
c)
anaphase
d)
telophase
7.
The ability to taste a bitter chemical called PTC is a dominant trait in humans.  The Punnett square below shows a cross between two parents who are heterozygous for the ability to taste this chemical.  What is the probability, expressed as a percentage, that these parents will produce an offspring who is homozygous recessive for the tasting trait?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
8.
Which of these substances stores and transmits the information that specifies the traits of an organism?
a)
DNA
b)
RNA
c)
enzymes
d)
carbohydrates
9.
A strand of DNA with the sequence A-C-T-T-G serves as a template to form a strand of mRNA with the sequence U-G-A-A-C.  During which process would this happen?
a)
replication
b)
transcription
c)
translation
d)
meiosis
10.
The diagram summarizes two stages in the production of the specialized cells used for sexual reproduction.
What happens in the stage labeled "process 2"?
a)
The chromosomes cross over.
b)
Th chromosomes number is reduced by half.
c)
The chromosomes move to opposite end of the cell.
d)
Four identical gametes form.
11.
Proteins are formed in the cytoplasm of cell using genetic instructions from DNA, which is located in the cells nucleus.  Which of the following best explains how the genetic information gets to the site of protein synthesis?
a)
DNA is divided during mitosis, and one strand travels outside the nucleus to bind with RNA and form a protein
b)
DNA is copied to make mRNA. The mRNA leaves the nucleus and goes to the ribosomes, where the information is used to guide protein synthesis.
c)
Genetic information travels from DNA in the nucleus along a strand of mRNA that is connected to ribosomes in the cytoplasm where proteins are made.
d)
The genetic code is transferred to ribosomes on tRNA molecules, which can pass through the nuclear membrane.
12.
The diagram shows the base sequence of a strand of DNA.
From left to right, what is the sequence of the complementary strand of DNA in this molecule?
a)
T G A A C
b)
A C T  T G
c)
T G U U C
d)
U C T T G
13.
The table shows several DNA codons and their corresponding amino acids.
If a sequence of DNA reads AGTGGGTCT, for what sequence of amino acids does it code?
a)
arginine-glycine-serine
b)
serine-arginine-arginine
c)
serine-arginine-glycine
d)
serine-glycine-serine
14.
The legs of crocodiles and mice have similar bone structures and develop in a similar way.  What type of structures are the leg bones?
a)
homologous structures
b)
analogous structures
c)
fossilized structures
d)
vestigial structures
15.
The standardized system for naming organism is known as binomial nomenclature.  What two pieces of information are used to name and identify organisms using this system?
a)
genus and species
b)
class and genus
c)
class and species
d)
domain and kingdom
16.

NUCLEOTIDES ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

17.

AMINO ACIDS ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF...

a)

CARBHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

18.

FATTY ACIDS AND GLYCEROL ARE THE BUILDING BLOCKS OF..

a)

CARBOHYDRATES

b)

LIPIDS

c)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

d)

PROTEINS

19.

WHAT ELEMENTS DO ALL BIOMOLECULES (LIPIDS, PROTEINS, NUCLEIC ACIDS, CARBS) HAVE IN COMMON?

a)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, FLOURINE

b)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, CHLORINE

c)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, IODINE

d)

CARBON, HYDROGEN, OXYGEN

20.

WHICH BIOMOLECULES STORES LONG-TERM ENERGY?

a)

PROTEIN

b)

CARBS

c)

LIPIDS

d)

NUCLEIC ACIDS

21.

This cell is a -

a)

PROKARYOTIC

b)

PLANT

c)

ANIMAL

d)

PROTIST

22.

WHAT ELEMENT DO AMINO ACIDS AND NUCLEOTIDES HAVE THAT THE OTHERS DO NOT HAVE?

a)

PHOSPHATE

b)

NITROGEN

c)

CARBON

d)

OXYGEN

23.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
24.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
25.
At high temperatures enzyme activity declines because of:
a)
Denaturation
b)
Decreased Kinetic Motion
c)
Increased H-Bonding
d)
Dissociation of Ionic Compounds
26.

What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...

a)

store genetic information

b)

have chloroplasts

c)

use glucose for cellular respiration

d)

have endoplasmic reticulum

27.

Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing (exploding)?

a)

lytic

b)

mitosis

c)

lysogenic

d)

S phase

28.
Which phase of which process does this picture show?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
29.
How would the DNA sequence GCTATA be transcribed to mRNA?
a)
GCUAUA
b)
CGATAT
c)
CGAUAU
d)
GCUTUT
30.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
31.

STRUCTURE: What Nitrogenous Base does RNA contain that DNA does not?

a)

Thymine

b)

Uracil

c)

Adenine

d)

Love

32.

HISTORY: Rosalind Franklin used x-ray crystallography to determine that the shape of the DNA molecule is:

a)

a cloverleaf

b)

a braided rope

c)

a pleated sheet

d)

a twisted ladder

33.

STRUCTURE: Nucleotides monomers are made up of a sugar, a phosphate, and a:

a)

nitrogenous base

b)

nucleic acid

c)

cholesterol

d)

fatty acid

34.

GENERAL: What kind of organic molecule is DNA?

a)

Protein

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Lipid

d)

Carbohydrate

35.

PROCESSES: DNA making RNA is called:

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Transference

d)

Translocation

36.

PROCESSES: RNA making a protein is called:

a)

Transmutation

b)

Transferrance

c)

Transcription

d)

Translation

37.

TRANSCRIPTION: What is the complementary mRNA base sequence for: CAGTTCCAG

a)

GUCAAGGUC

b)

GTGAAGGTC

38.

TRANSLATION:

Translation occurs in the:

a)

office

b)

cytoplasm

c)

nucleus

d)

cell membrane

39.
Fruit fly body cells have 8 chromosomes. After mitosis, you would expect a resulting fruit fly daughter cell to have ...
a)
16 chromosomes.
b)
46 chromosomes.
c)
8 chromosomes.
d)
4 chromosomes.
40.
What is the purpose of the cell cycle?
a)
To create new daughter cells
b)
To prevent cancer from developing
c)
To help the body fight viruses and bacteria
41.

Uncontrolled cell division which usually leads to tumors and disease is called:

a)

Metaphase

b)

Cytokinesis

c)

Cancer

d)

Diabetes

42.
During which parts of the cell cycle does the cell grow?
a)
G1 and G2
b)
G1 and S
c)
M phase and cytokinesis
43.
During which part of the cell cycle is DNA copied?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
S phase
44.

The correct sequence of mitosis:

a)

metaphase, anaphase, telophase, prophase

b)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

d)

telophase, metaphase, prophase, anaphase

45.

Having only one copy of each chromsome

a)

haploid

b)

diploid

c)

triploid

d)

octoploid

46.

You can learn a lot from a GIF.

Check the products (things that are made) during photosynthesis. There are two:

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose (sugar)

d)

water

e)

sunlight

47.

There are levels of organization we use to talk about what our bodies are made of. Select the correct order of the four levels below from least to most complex:

a)

cells → organs → tissues → organ systems

b)

organ systems → organs → tissues → cells

c)

tissues → organs → cells → organ systems

d)

cells → tissues → organs → organ systems

48.
The purpose of cellular respiration is to 
a)
make water
b)
make ATP
c)
make glucose
d)
make  oxygen
49.
What is the correct equation for cellular respiration?
a)
6O2 + C6H12O6 -> 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy
b)
6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy -> 6CO2 + 6H2O
c)
6CO2 + 6H2O -> 6O2 + C6H12O6 + Energy
d)
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy -> 6O2 + C6H12O6
50.
Cells produce ATP most efficiently in the presence of
a)
water
b)
carbon dioxide
c)
oxygen
d)
radiant energy
51.

The cladogram shows the evolution of land plants as indicated by fossil records.

Which discovery would challenge the validity of this cladogram?

a)

A large aquatic vascular plant about 200 million years old

b)

A species of algae that has existed for less than one million years

c)

A moss species that has existed for less than 380 million years

d)

A fossil of a fern more than 425 million years old

52.

Scientists estimate that there are more than 20,000 species of ants. The species range in size from 1 mm long to 38 mm long and live in most environments. The diets of ants range from flowers and seeds to fluids from their own larvae. Ants have been able to successfully inhabit so many different environments because their populations have been able to --

a)

hybridize with other species of insects

b)

adapt to a variety of habitats and food sources

c)

fill niches usually occupied by mammals

d)

occupy habitats that have no other life-forms

53.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All of the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

54.

The picture shows bean-shaped glands called nodes. The clusters of cells in the nodes include macrophages that break down viruses and other potentially harmful materials. Nodes also contain cells that produce protein particles capable of capturing harmful materials that flow in tissue fluid through the nodes. Different parts of the body are drained by nodes in different regions of the body.


Which body systems are directly responsible for regulating these nodes and protecting the body from harmful materials in tissue fluid?

a)

Immune and lymphatic systems

b)

Digestive and nervous systems

c)

Endocrine and digestive systems

d)

Circulatory and nervous systems

55.

Organisms are classified today using the Linnaean system, and the following table shows the taxonomic classification of two marine organisms living along the Pacific Coast.


Taxonomic classification is important to marine biologists because it provides a way to -

a)

prove that marine evolution occurs

b)

discover and name every marine organism on Earth

c)

designate Latin as the universal language of marine biology

d)

identify marine organisms and find evolutionary relationships between them

56.

When a person is suddenly cut by a sharp object, a nervous impulse is sent along a sensory neuron to the spinal cord. The impulse is immediately transmitted through motor neurons to produce a response. Which of the following correctly identifies and describes this response?

a)

It is a conditioned response that occurs only to prevent injury.

b)

It is a learned response that does not occur in infants and small children.

c)

It is a reflex response that causes various muscles to contract in order to move away from the object.

d)

It is a voluntary response that is initiated only after the impulse has been carried to the relevant area in the brain.

57.

A student conducted an investigation to study phototropism in grasses. The only difference between the control group and the experimental group was the light conditions. The control group was provided full light, while the experimental group was shaded on one side. The diagrams show the average heights and positions of blades of grass in the investigation. (View Image)


Which statement best explains why the grass tips of the experimental group bent toward the light?

a)

Water evaporated faster on the side of the plant having full light.

b)

Light sensors in the grass tips simulated a hormone in the shoot system.

c)

The xylem in the roots system absorbed more nutrients from the shaded side.

d)

The side facing the light has greater chance of absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

58.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled in the image. (View image)


What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

Deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

Transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

59.

The energy pyramid shows the energy made available by producers. (View Image)


Base on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1,000 joules

d)

50 joules

60.

Nitrogenous bases are located on both strands of the DNA double helix. What is the significance of the nitrogenous bases?

a)

The number of adenines and cytosines determines the type of RNA that will be produced.

b)

The order of nitrogenous bases determines the order of amino acids in the proteins synthesized.

c)

The amount of thymine and guanine in the DNA molecules determines the length of the genes.

d)

The type of hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases determines which amino acid will be added to the peptide chain.

61.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP Production is inhibited.

b)

Cell division is unregulated.

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited.

d)

Antibody Activity is unregulated.

62.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the shells of three eggs and used the eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions. (View Image)


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

The cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

The cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

The cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

The cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

63.

Viruses can be transmitted through air, water, food, insect bites, and direct skin contact. Once a virus gains entry to the body, it invades a host cell in order to --

a)

deactivate the host cell's defences

b)

synthesize antibodies for defence

c)

metabolize host proteins and grow

d)

access cellular processes for replication

64.

The diagram shows cells in different phases of mitosis. A student is trying to find a cell in a particular phase of mitosis. The student is looking for evidence that spindle fibers are separating the chromosomes to ensure that each new nucleus has one copy of each chromosome. (View Image)


Which cell is in the phase of mitosis that the student is searching for?

a)

Cell 1

b)

Cell 2

c)

Cell 3

d)

Cell 4

65.

Albinism is an autosomal recessive condition. Which circle graph shows the genotype probability when an albino female mates with a male that is heterozygous for the albinism trait? (View Image)

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

66.

The complex carbohydrates pictured (View Image) are made by linking molecules of glucose.


In all three complex carbohydrates, the subunits of glucose are bonded together differently. Because they have different structures, they most likely --

a)

contain different chemical elements

b)

form different proteins

c)

carry different nucleotides

d)

perform different functions

67.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

68.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited. (View Image)


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

69.

Four common relationships between organisms are listed in the box. (View Image)


Which statements best describe these relationships?

a)

Relationships 1 and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 2 is an example of commensalism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

b)

Relationships 1, 2, and 4 are examples of mutualism.

Relationship 3 is an example of parasitism.

70.

Having a standard taxonomic system benefits the scientific community by allowing scientists

from all over the world to do which of the following?

a)

Have a common system for the classification of locations containing fossils

b)

Use a similar system to classify the impact of removing species from ecosystems

c)

Have a common understanding in the classification of organisms

d)

Understand how other scientists classify predator–prey relationships

71.

Some organisms have genes that improve their ability to survive and reproduce. If the genes

also help their offspring survive and reproduce, then which of the following will most likely

increase?

a)

The frequency of the genes in one individual

b)

The frequency of the genes in the population

c)

The number of genes in one chromosome

d)

The number of genes in the species

72.

The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its herd, joins

another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd,

which of these most likely increases?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic variation

c)

Environmental fitness

d)

Reproductive mutations

73.

Zoogeographic regions are characterized by the presence of specific groups of animals. These

regions are determined by the taxonomic or phylogenetic relationships of animals. The map

shows the zoogeographic regions proposed by the naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace in 1876.The similarities of organisms in which two areas numbered above provide the best evidence

for common ancestry between the organisms in both locations?

a)

1 and 2

b)

3 and 4

c)

5 and 6

d)

7 and 8

74.

Arthropods are joint-legged animals. Spiders, crabs, pill bugs, centipedes, and millipedes

are examples of the many types of arthropods. Which of these arthropods are most closely

related?

a)

Arthropods of the same family

b)

Arthropods of the same class

c)

Arthropods of the same genus

d)

Arthropods of the same species

75.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. The family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family’s geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals —

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

76.

A prey population consists of individuals with a variety of running speeds. The adaptation that allows some of these animals to run fast would be an example of natural selection if it helps them —

a)

survive and undergo mutations in their DNA

b)

lower the mortality rates of the population

c)

produce offspring that run at average speeds

d)

reproduce and increase the frequency of their genes in the population

77.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid

sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.Which organism is the LEAST related to the other three organisms?

a)

Organism 1

b)

Organism 2

c)

Organism 3

d)

Organism 4

78.

A student used a microscope to study four members of the phylum Ciliophora. Members of

this phylum move when propelled by hundreds of tiny cilia.Although these organisms belong to the same phylum, they are classified as different —

a)

families

b)

species

c)

kingdoms

d)

orders

79.

The gray squirrel, Eastern fox squirrel, and red squirrel are all different species of squirrels.

Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

To prevent existing named organisms from having their names changed as they become

extinct

b)

To keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

To allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

To standardize the naming and organization of organisms to avoid confusion

80.

The diagram shows light- and dark-colored beetles that live on a tree.Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

81.

Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould researched the lenses of the eyes of fossil trilobites of

different species. In 1972 they published a paper in which they described the tendency of a

species to remain the same until a sudden change in the environment causes a new related

species to appear.

Which hypothesis was most challenged by the work of Eldredge and Gould?

a)

Redi’s hypothesis that spontaneous generation does not occur

b)

Haeckel’s hypothesis that embryological development mimics the evolution of species

c)

Wallace’s hypothesis that geography affects the distribution of species

d)

Darwin’s hypothesis that the development of species is a slow, gradual process

82.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram.Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede

orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to

Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to

Glomeridesmida.

83.

This diagram shows cell activity across a cell membrane. Which two processes does the model best represent?

a)

Energy conversion and making new molecules

b)

Synthesis of new molecules and homeostasis

c)

Transport of molecules and energy conversions

d)

Transport of molecules and homeostasis

84.

Which statement best describes the role of the vesicles in this image?

a)

They deliver packages from the Golgi apparatus

b)

They exchange genetic material

c)

They are extracting viruses from the Golgi apparatus

d)

They are transports for gas exchange only

85.

Which of these correctly compliments the following DNA strand during replication: AGGTCA

a)

UCCAGU

b)

TCCAGT

c)

ACCAGU

d)

TGGAGT

86.

What part of a DNA molecule is directly responsible for coding a specific trait in an organism?

a)

the number of hydrogen bonds in the DNA

b)

the number of carbons in DNA

c)

the sequence of nucleotide bases in DNA

d)

the sequence of phosphates along the backbone

87.

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)

Mitosis

b)

G1 phase

c)

G2 phase

d)

S phase

88.

What do the 2 arrows represent in this diagram?

a)

arrow 1 is prophase; arrow 2 is interphase

b)

arrow 1 is mitosis; arrow 2 is meiosis

c)

arrow 1 is interphase; arrow 2 is mitosis

d)

arrow 1 is meiosis; arrow 2 is prophase

89.

During the cell cycle, cells go through checkpoints. If DNA damaged is detected, it is repaired before mitosis. Why is repairing DNA important?

a)

so the spindle fibers and centrioles will work correctly during division

b)

so chromosomes will align correctly during metaphase

c)

so the cytoplasm can be divided equally during cytokinesis

d)

so healthy daughter cells are produced and can continue to grow

90.

Which of these describes a difference between a virus and a cell?

a)

cells contain protein, viruses only contain carbohydrates

b)

viruses have flagella, cells have cilia

c)

cells reproduce independently, viruses require a host cell to replicate

d)

viruses have a protein membrane, cells have membranes made of nucleic acids

91.

Viruses can be transmitted by air, food, water and direct contact. Once a virus enters a body, it invades a cell immediately to-

a)

access cell processes to replicate viruses

b)

metabolize proteins for the cell

c)

synthesize antibodies for defense

d)

grow new viruses using the cell's ribosomes

92.

A prey population of varying running speeds exists in an area as shown in the graph. If natural selection works as it should the prey-

a)

with average speeds will increase over time

b)

with slower speeds should increase over time

c)

with faster speeds will increase over time

d)

with faster speeds will decrease over time

93.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, what is fitness?

a)

being able to escape from predators

b)

being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

being able to survive long enough to reach an adult age

94.

Scientists can determine how closely organisms are related using DNA and their amino acid sequences. Using the chart, which organisms is LEAST related to the other three.

a)

organism 1

b)

organism 2

c)

organism 3

d)

organism 4

95.

Which organism is the most closely related to the Sun Bear in this cladogram?

a)

Lesser panda

b)

Giant panda

c)

Raccoon

d)

Spectacled Bear

96.

Genome maps illustrate DNA similarities in organisms. What is a reason as to why a scientist would use a genome map?

a)

to predict new species a

b)

the show how organisms could share a common ancestor

c)

to show how proteins are made

d)

to demonstrate the importance of the cell cycle

97.

Which type of mutation does the model demonstrate?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

substitution

d)

translocation

98.

A mutation in which types of cells would only affect the organism and not future generations?

a)

Egg cell and liver cell

b)

Sperm cell and egg cell

c)

Nerve cell and brain cell

d)

Sperm cell and lung cell

99.

What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

deleting information in the DNA template

c)

transcribing information in the DNA sequence to be used by the cell

d)

producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence

100.

Two frog species are recovered from a forest in order to help them begin to repopulate. The frogs within their own populations bred just fine however, they would not breed with the other frog population. What could be a possible explanation?

a)

They are the same species but in different kingdoms

b)

They are in the same class but different phyla

c)

They are in the same family but different orders

d)

They are in the same genus but are different species

101.

All the animals to the right of the hagfish have the common characteristic of-

a)

fur

b)

claws or nails

c)

lungs

d)

jaws

102.

A recent dog advertisement says that it's food will build lean muscle and provide energy to the dogs. What two biomolecules must be present for this to be true

a)

protein and carbohydrates

b)

carbohydrates and lipids

c)

nucleic acids and carbohydrates

d)

lipids and nucleic acids

103.

Four different nucleotides are used to build a DNA molecule. Which of the following can be used to distinguish one nucleotide to another?

a)

the nitrogen base

b)

the shape of the sugar

c)

the length of the phosphate group

d)

the type of fatty acid

104.

Carbohydrates are more easily metabolized than lipids. However, on a gram to gram basis, lipids provide cells with more-

a)

nitrogen

b)

protein

c)

structure

d)

energy

105.

The building blocks, or subunits, that make up a protein molecule are known as-

a)

fatty acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

monosaccharides

d)

amino acids

106.

Which four systems allow for a person to sneeze?

a)

muscular, immune, nervous, respiratory

b)

nervous, respiratory, circulatory, skeletal

c)

respiratory, endocrine, skeletal, circulatory

d)

lymphatic, skeletal, respiratory, muscular

107.

The response represented in the illustration would most likely be caused by-

a)

a reduced supply of oxygen

b)

long periods of rainfall

c)

high concentration of glucose

d)

little available water

108.

The rocky material left behind after a glacier receeds is called a moraine. Which organisms will help the rocky moraine begin the process of primary succession?

a)

insects

b)

lichens

c)

grasses

d)

trees

109.

Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between humans and bacteria?

a)

Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from food and provide vitamin K for humans

b)

bacteria become resistant to antibiotics used to fight infection

c)

invasive bacteria invade an injured area and produced harmful toxin to human

d)

bacteria found in improperly prepared food causes food poisoning for human

110.

Remora fish attach to sharks to feed on scraps created by the sharks after meals. The suction disk on the remora mouth does not damage the shark's scaly skin. This type of symbiotic relationship is known as-

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

mutualism

d)

commensalism

111.

Green algae grows on the backs of some aquatic spiders to be near sunlight. The algae camouflages the spider from predators. This type of of relationship is known as-

a)

mutualism

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

predation

112.

Which of these organisms will likely increase if a disease affects and starts to kill off the horn lizard population?

a)

grasshoppers and ants

b)

ants and cottonmouths

c)

cottonmouths and hawks

d)

ants and hawks

113.

Which statement best describes why there is a difference in biomass at each level of this diagram?

a)

organisms at higher levels have less energy available to them

b)

organisms at higher trophic levels need smaller habitats

c)

organisms at lower levels need less energy

d)

organisms at lower levels outcompete the higher level organisms

114.

As energy flows through the organisms of this energy pyramid, how much energy would be available to the secondary consumers?

a)

1000 joules

b)

100 joules

c)

10 joules

d)

1 joule

115.

The cell in the image can best be described as-

a)

Multicellular

b)

Viral

c)

Eukaryotic

d)

Prokaryotic

116.

In cattle the allele for cloven hooves (H) is dominant over the allele for mule-foot hooves (h). The phenotype for each trait is shown in this picture.


What is the probability of cloven hooves in the offspring of parents that are heterozygous for the trait?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

117.

What is the process shown in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

mutation

d)

transformation

118.

What type of mutation is shown in the diagram?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

no change

119.

Use the chart to find to amino acid that corresponds to the codon GGA:

a)

Alanine

b)

Glutamic Acid

c)

Lysine

d)

Glycine

120.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
121.

Which do BOTH prokaryotes and eukaryotes contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell wall

122.

Which does only eukaryotic cells contain?

a)

nucleus

b)

DNA

c)

cell membrane

d)

ribosomes

123.

Prokaryotic cells do not have…….

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

cell membrane

c)

DNA or RNA

d)

life

124.

You can distinguish a prokaryote apart from a nucleus by--

a)

The presence of a ribosome

b)

The presence of a cell membrane

c)

The presence of DNA

d)

The presence of a nuclear membrane

125.

Bacteria is an example of a(n)

a)

prokaryotic cell.

b)

eukaryotic cell.

126.
What biomolecule do enzymes belong to? 
a)
Carbohydrate
b)
Lipid
c)
Nucleic Acid
d)
Protein
127.
Which biomolecule is a main source of quick energy?
a)
Nucleic Acid
b)
Protein
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
128.
What is the function of a nucleic acid?
a)
Stores genetic information
b)
Stores energy
c)
Quick source of energy
d)
Builds structures
129.
Which biomolecule is this a picture of?
a)
Protein
b)
Nucleic Acid
c)
Lipid
d)
Carbohydrate
130.

Which of the following would be a major component in a plant cell wall?

a)

cellulose

b)

starch

c)

glycogen

d)

salivary amylase

131.

What is the function of a protein?

a)

provide a source of immediate energy

b)

provide storage of energy

c)

store your genetic information

d)

growth of muscle and tissues

132.

What are the building blocks of proteins?

a)

nucleic acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

fatty acids

d)

amino acids

133.
Movement of particles from high to low concentration. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
134.
Osmosis is a form of ______________. 
a)
Passive Transport
b)
Active Transport
135.
Osmosis is the movement of _____ across a membrane.
a)
food
b)
energy
c)
oxygen
d)
water
136.
The process where only water is allowed to pass through the cell membrane from a high to low concentration.
a)
meiosis
b)
respiration
c)
diffusion
d)
osmosis
137.
Cells use energy to move materials across a membrane (low to high concentration).
a)
Active transport
b)
Passive transport
c)
Diffusion
d)
Osmosis
138.

Which describes a hypotonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

139.

Which describes a hypertonic environment?

a)

Too much water in the cell will cause the cell to burst - the percentage of water is higher outside the cell than inside the cell

b)

Too little water in the cell will cause the cell to shrink - the percentage of water is lower outside the cell than inside the cell

c)

Concentrations of water are equal inside and outside the cell

140.

The movement of materials that requires energy is called...

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

massive transport

d)

proactive transport

141.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
142.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
143.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
144.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
145.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
146.
Put the following stages of mitosis in order: anaphase, prophase, metaphase, and telophase. 
a)
prophase, metaphase, telophase, anaphase
b)
prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
c)
prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
d)
prophase, telophase, metaphase, anaphase
147.
In the S stage of interphase....
a)
The cell grows
b)
The nucleus divides
c)
The cell membrane divides
d)
The DNA is replicated
148.
Uncontrollable cell growth is known as _____
a)
Obesity
b)
Cancer
c)
Diabetes
d)
Hepatitis
149.

Arrange the following levels of hierarchy from smallest to largest

a)

Organism, Organ, Tissue, Cell, Organelle

b)

Organelle, Cell, Tissue, Organ, Organism

c)

Organism, Cell, Tissue, Organ

d)

Tissue, Cell, Organ, Organism

150.

Name the phase:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

151.
Name the phase:
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
152.

What is happening in this series of images?

a)

Mitosis - nucleus divides

b)

Mitosis - DNA replicates

c)

Interphase - the cell prepares for DNA replication

d)

Interphas - the cell divides

153.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
154.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
155.

CROSSING OVER INCREASES

a)

LIFE SPAN

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

THE NUMBER OF OFF-SPRING

d)

ALL ARE TRUE

156.
Viruses are...
a)
prokaryotic
b)
eukaryotic
c)
non-living
d)
endospores
157.
Viruses 
a)
have many cells
b)
are misfolded proteins
c)
are a protein coat around genetic material
d)
endospores
158.
What is the main function of the projections on the surface of a virus?
a)
They aid in respiration
b)
They help the virus grow
c)
They help the virus invade its host by attaching to specific sites on the host
d)
They help the virus digest food molecules
159.

What is the first step to both viral cycles?

a)

The virus attaches to a host

b)

the virus injects genetic material

c)

the host gets sick

d)

the cell is destroyed

160.

When the viral DNA becomes active in the lysogenic cycle, which life cycle does it enter?

a)

lytic

b)

lysogenic

c)

cell cycle

d)

DNA replication

161.

Choose the correct order of lytic cycle steps

a)

attachment, entry, assembly, replication, release

b)

attachment, entry, replication, assembly, release

c)

attachment, entry, assembly, release, replication

d)

attachment, release, assembly, replication, entry

162.
Which is NOT a characteristic of plants?
a)
Autotroph
b)
Eukaryotic Cell
c)
Unicellular
d)
Cell walls
163.
The plant tissue that carries food DOWNWARD from the leaves to the rest of the pant is the ______.
a)
Phloem
b)
Stomata
c)
Chlorophyll
d)
Xylem
164.
Small openings called ______ are found on the underside of leaves and allow gases to enter or leave the plant cells.
a)
Phloem
b)
Chloroplasts
c)
Xylem
d)
Stomata
165.
Vascular tissue that transports water and minerals UPWARDS from a plant's roots is known as ______.
a)
Cuticle
b)
Phloem
c)
Stomata
d)
Xylem
166.
Plants COULD NOT survive without _____ and ______.
a)
Transpiration and Gravity
b)
Oxygen and Water
c)
Seeds and Water
d)
Carbon Dioxide and Water
167.
The process of photosynthesis takes place in organelles (part of cell) called ______.
a)
Phloem
b)
Xylem
c)
Stomata
d)
Cholorplasts
168.
The male reproductive structure of a flower is the ___.
a)
pistil
b)
ovary
c)
stamen
d)
ovule
169.
The part of a flower that produces the male reproductive cells.
a)
anther
b)
style
c)
stigma
d)
filament
170.
The tip of the style that has sticky hairs to trap pollen is the ___.
a)
stamen
b)
stigma
c)
ovary
d)
style
171.

This example for

a)

Internal stimuli

b)

Thigmotropism

c)

Phototropism

d)

no answer correct

172.

This example for 

a)

Internal stimuli 

b)

Light stimuli

c)

Tough stimuli

d)

Temperature stimuli 

173.

This example for

a)

Internal stimuli

b)

Light stimuli

c)

Thigmotropism

d)

Temperature

174.

This picture would represent which type of tropism?

a)

Phototropism

b)

Geotropism

c)

Thigmotropism

175.

Organisms whose cells do not have a nucleus are called _____.

a)

Eukaryotes

b)

Multicellular

c)

Unicellular

d)

Prokaryotes

176.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
177.
What trait separates sharks from ray-finned fish?
a)
Vertebrae
b)
Bony skeleton
c)
Four limbs
d)
None
178.
The table shows characteristics of several organisms. Based on the information given in the table, which two organisms would you think have the most recent common ancestor?
a)
Turtle and jawed fish
b)
Lamprey and jawed fish
c)
Turtle and frog
d)
Lamprey and frog
179.
Which of the following organisms are LEAST closely related?
a)
organisms that share a domain
b)
organisms that share a family 
c)
organisms that share a genus 
d)
organisms that share a species 
180.
Kingdom, Phylum, Class, _______
a)
Family 
b)
Order
c)
Genus 
d)
Species
181.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
182.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
183.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
184.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
185.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

186.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

187.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

188.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

189.

A string of nucleotides that contain the information to make a specific protein

a)

Ribose

b)

Amino Acids

c)

tRNA

d)

Gene

190.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

191.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

192.
What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Tyrosine
c)
Leucine
d)
Stop codon
193.

What process is happening in the diagram?

a)

transcription

b)

translation

c)

dna replication

d)

mitosis

194.

A nucleotide base is inserted or deleted shifting the entire DNA sequence. Entire protein will be changed.

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Silent Mutation

c)

Frameshift Mutation

d)

Translocation

195.

A frameshift mutation where a nucleotide base

is removed from the DNA sequence.

a)

Deletion Mutation

b)

Substitution Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Silent Mutation

196.
What gamete possibilities could come from this parent's genotype?
a)
AB, AB, aB, aB
b)
Ab, AB, Ab, ab
c)
Ab, Ab, Ab, Ab
d)
AB, aB, ab, aB
197.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
198.
parent 1: GgBB
parent 2: ggBb
Find the gametes for parent 1.
a)
GB, GB, gB, gB
b)
gB, gb, gB, gb
c)
Gg, BB, GB, GB
d)
gg, Bb, gB, gb
199.
Assume dad's gametes are on top, what is his genotype?
a)
AAPP
b)
AaPp
c)
aaPP
d)
Aapp
200.

The forelimbs of mammals have similar anatomy because these groups descended from a recent common ancestor. Their bone structure is an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

201.
Natural selection is
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
humans change
c)
two species are the same
d)
more animals survive
202.

What is a change in an organism that allows for it to survive in its environment?

a)

homologous

b)

vestigial

c)

variation

d)

adaptation

203.

What is this an example of?

a)

diversity of species

b)

variation

c)

vestigial structures

d)

DNA studies

204.

Genetic drift is change in the allele frequency of a population due to...

a)

random chance

b)

natural selection

c)

non-random mating (sexual selection)

d)

artificial selection

205.

This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.

a)

Extinction

b)

Gene flow

c)

Genetic drift

d)

Natural Selection

206.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
207.
The shrew provides energy for the _______?
a)
cricket
b)
grasshopper
c)
frog
d)
snake
208.
Name the tertiary consumer?
a)
snake
b)
fungi
c)
hawk
d)
mouse
209.

In this food web, which of the following organisms eats the largest variety of different producers?

a)

Mouse

b)

Grasshopper

c)

Dragonfly

d)

Butterfly

210.
An energy pyramid represents what?
a)
How much sunlight is available for the ecosystem to use. 
b)
How much energy a particular organism needs. 
c)
How much energy is needed to build a pyramid. 
d)
The amount of energy available to the next 'feeder' in a food web.
211.

What would happen to the bird if the green fish died out?

a)

the bird population would grow

b)

the bird population would die out

c)

the smaller fish will die out

212.
The diagram represents a pyramid of energy in an ecosystem.  Which level would most likely contain members of the plant kingdom?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
213.
The largest group of organisms found in a food web would be:
a)
Primary Consumers
b)
Producers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Tertiary Consumers
214.
Only 10 percent of the energy stored in an organism can be passed on to the next trophic level. Of the remaining energy, some is used for the organism’s life processes, and the rest is
a)
Used in reproduction
b)
Stored as body fat
c)
Stored as body tissue
d)
Eliminated as heat
215.
Cattle egrets forage (feed) in fields among cattle. The egret gets easy access to flying insects stirred up by the cattle, and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
216.
What type of symbiosis?  Hummingbirds feed on nectar from flowers.  The flowers are pollinated by hummingbirds as they move from flower to flower.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
217.
What type of symbiosis?  Skunks often live in burrows that have been dug and abandoned by woodchucks.  
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
parasitism
d)
predation
218.

Aphids are tiny insects that live on and eat the leaves of plants, removing vital nutrients from the plants.

a)

Predation

b)

Parasitism

c)

Commensalism

d)

Mutualism

219.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that often feed on parasites that infest impala.  This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
220.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
221.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
222.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
223.

The picture display which type of succession?

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

all of the above

224.
Which sequence of DNA bases would pair with this partial strand
ATG TGA CAG
a)
ATG TGA CAG
b)
TAC ACT GTC
c)
GTA AGT GAC
d)
CAT TCA CTG
225.

What 2 systems: Absorb and deliver the digested nutrients to the cells

a)

Digestive and muscular

b)

Muscular and lymphatic

c)

Digestive and circulatory

d)

Nervous and skeletal

226.

What 2 systems: Allow organs to contract and push food through

a)

Muscular and Skeletal

b)

Excretory and Muscular

c)

Endocrine and Muscular

d)

Muscular and Digestive

227.

What 2 systems: Diaphragm controls breathing

a)

Circulatory and Endocrine

b)

Respiratory and Muscular

c)

Muscular and Skeletal

d)

Circulatory and Respiratory

228.
Which two body systems work together to break down food and get rid of wastes?
a)
digestive and excretory
b)
digestive and circulatory
c)
excretory and respiratory
d)
nervous and digestive
229.

A group of the same organisms living together in the same place at the same time is:

a)

An organism

b)

A population

c)

A community

d)

A biome

230.

What are groups of different populations living togther in the same place at the same time called?

a)

An organism

b)

A population

c)

A community

d)

A biosphere

231.

Which choice shows the correct order of the levels of environmental organization?

a)

organism, population, community, ecosystem, biosphere

b)

organism, population, ecosystem, biosphere, community

c)

organism, community, population, ecosystem, biosphere

d)

population, ecosystem, biosphere, organism, community

232.
A __________ includes all living and non-living things in an environment. 
a)
population
b)
niche
c)
abitotic
d)
ecosystem