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NEURO REVIEWER

Total questions: 119

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

2 Structures of CNS

a)

Brain

b)

Spinal Cord

c)

Spinal Nerves

d)

Cranial Nerves

2.

2 Structures of Peripheral Nervous System

a)

Brain

b)

Spinal Cord

c)

Spinal Nerves

d)

Cranial Nerves

3.

ANATOMIC DIVISION OF THE

NERVOUS SYSTEM (2)

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Sensory Division

d)

Motor Division

4.

Made up of all the nerves of the nervous system

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Sensory Division

d)

Motor Division

5.

PHYSIOLOGIC DIVISION OF THE

NERVOUS SYSTEM

a)

Central Nervous System

b)

Peripheral Nervous System

c)

Sensory Division

d)

Motor Division

6.

CELLS OF THE NERVOUS SYSTEM

a)

Neurons

b)

Neuroglia

c)

Serotonin

d)

Dopamine

7.

2 Structures of Motor Division

a)

Somatic Nervous System

b)

Autonomic Nervous System

c)

Cranial Nerves

d)

Spinal Nerves

8.

Consists of the nerves that carry sensory information

towards the central nervous system (ascending tracts)

a)

Sensory Division

b)

Motor Division

c)

Peripheral Nervous System

d)

Central Nervous System

9.

Consists of all the nerves that carry motor impulses to

the effector organs (descending tracts)

a)

Sensory Division

b)

Motor Division

c)

Peripheral Nervous System

d)

Central Nervous System

10.

➢Main cells of the nervous system

➢Conducts nerve impules (action potential)

a)

Neuroglia

b)

Neurons

c)

NEUROTRANSMITTERS

11.

Supporting cells of the nervous system

a)

Neuroglia

b)

Neurons

c)

NEUROTRANSMITTERS

12.

- Communicate messages from one neuron to

another.

- Stored in synaptic vesicles and released at the

synaptic cleft.

- Could either be excitatory or inhibitory.

a)

Neuroglia

b)

Neurons

c)

NEUROTRANSMITTERS

13.

➢Responsible for higher order brain functions

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brainstem

14.

➢Responsible for regulatory functions

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brainstem

15.

➢Responsible for gait, balance and coordination

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brainstem

16.

➢Responsible for vital functions

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Diencephalon

c)

Cerebellum

d)

Brainstem

17.

What are the parts of Cerebrum

a)

Frontal Lobe

b)

Parietal Lobe

c)

Temporal Lobe

d)

Occipital Lobe

e)

Hypothalamus

18.

Diencephalon consists of the following parts:

a)

Epithalamus

b)

Hypothalamus

c)

Thalamus

d)

Midbrain

e)

Medulla Oblongata

19.

Brainstem consists of the following parts

a)

Pons

b)

Midbrain

c)

Medulla Oblongata

d)

Hypothalamus

e)

Thalamus

20.

PROTECTIVE STRUCTURES OF THE

BRAIN

a)

Skull

b)

Meninges

c)

Cerebrospinal Fluid

d)

None of the above

e)

Arachnoid Villus

21.

Meninges consist of the ff:

a)

Dura Mater

b)

Arachnoid Mater

c)

Pia Mater

d)

Gray Mater

e)

White Mater

22.

Cranial Nerve I (Function)

a)

(Olfactory)

Sense of Smell

b)

(Optic)

Visual acuity and visual fields

c)

(Oculomotor)

Muscles that move the eye and lid, pupillary constriction, lens accomodation

d)

(Trochlear)

Muscles that move the eye

23.

Cranial Nerve II (Function)

a)

(Olfactory)

Sense of Smell

b)

(Optic)

Visual acuity and visual fields

c)

(Oculomotor)

Muscles that move the eye and lid, pupillary constriction, lens accomodation

d)

(Trochlear)

Muscles that move the eye

24.

Cranial Nerve III (Function)

a)

(Olfactory)

Sense of Smell

b)

(Optic)

Visual acuity and visual fields

c)

(Oculomotor)

Muscles that move the eye and lid, pupillary constriction, lens accomodation

d)

(Trochlear)

Muscles that move the eye

25.

Cranial Nerve IV (Function)

a)

(Olfactory)

Sense of Smell

b)

(Optic)

Visual acuity and visual fields

c)

(Oculomotor)

Muscles that move the eye and lid, pupillary constriction, lens accomodation

d)

(Trochlear)

Muscles that move the eye

26.

Cranial Nerve V (Function)

a)

(Trigeminal)

Facial sensation, corneal reflex, mastication

b)

(Abducens)

Muscles that move the eye

c)

(Facial)

Symmetry of facial expressions and muscle movement in upper and lower face....

d)

(Acoustic)

Hearing and equilibrium

27.

Cranial Nerve VI (Function)

a)

(Trigeminal)

Facial sensation, corneal reflex, mastication

b)

(Abducens)

Muscles that move the eye

c)

(Facial)

Symmetry of facial expressions and muscle movement in upper and lower face....

d)

(Acoustic)

Hearing and equilibrium

28.

Cranial Nerve VII (Function)

a)

(Trigeminal)

Facial sensation, corneal reflex, mastication

b)

(Abducens)

Muscles that move the eye

c)

(Facial)

Symmetry of facial expressions and muscle movement in upper and lower face....

d)

(Acoustic)

Hearing and equilibrium

29.

Cranial Nerve VIII (Function)

a)

(Trigeminal)

Facial sensation, corneal reflex, mastication

b)

(Abducens)

Muscles that move the eye

c)

(Facial)

Symmetry of facial expressions and muscle movement in upper and lower face....

d)

(Acoustic)

Hearing and equilibrium

30.

Cranial Nerve IX (Function)

a)

(Glossopharyngeal)

Taste, sensation in pharynx, and tongue, pharyngeal muscles, swallowing

b)

(Vagus)

Muscles of pharynx, larynx and soft palate, sensation in external ear

c)

(Spinal Accessory)

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

d)

(Hypoglossal)

movement of the tongue

31.

Cranial Nerve X (Function)

a)

(Glossopharyngeal)

Taste, sensation in pharynx, and tongue, pharyngeal muscles, swallowing

b)

(Vagus)

Muscles of pharynx, larynx and soft palate, sensation in external ear

c)

(Spinal Accessory)

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

d)

(Hypoglossal)

movement of the tongue

32.

Cranial Nerve XI (Function)

a)

(Glossopharyngeal)

Taste, sensation in pharynx, and tongue, pharyngeal muscles, swallowing

b)

(Vagus)

Muscles of pharynx, larynx and soft palate, sensation in external ear

c)

(Spinal Accessory)

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

d)

(Hypoglossal)

movement of the tongue

33.

Cranial Nerve XII (Function)

a)

(Glossopharyngeal)

Taste, sensation in pharynx, and tongue, pharyngeal muscles, swallowing

b)

(Vagus)

Muscles of pharynx, larynx and soft palate, sensation in external ear

c)

(Spinal Accessory)

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

d)

(Hypoglossal)

movement of the tongue

34.

Autonomic Nervous System consist of the ff:

a)

Upper Motor Neurons

b)

Lower Motor Neurons

c)

Cranial Nerves

d)

Spinal Nerves

35.

➢Originate in the cerebral cortex, the cerebellum,

and the brainstem

➢Modulate the activity of the lower motor neurons

a)

Upper Motor Neurons

b)

Lower Motor Neurons

c)

Cranial Nerves

d)

Spinal Nerves

36.

➢Are located in either the anterior horn of the

spinal cord gray matter or the cranial nerve nuclei

in the brainstem

➢Terminates through the skeletal muscle at the

myoneural junction

a)

Upper Motor Neurons

b)

Lower Motor Neurons

c)

Cranial Nerves

d)

Spinal Nerves

37.

What are the Cerebellar Tests?

a)

Rapid Alternating Movements

b)

Point-to-Point Testing

c)

Heel-to-Shin Testing

d)

Romberg Test

e)

Gag reflex

38.

TYPES OF TRAUMATIC BRAIN INJURY

a)

Epidural

Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural

Hemorrhage

c)

Subarachnoid

Hemorrhage

d)

Intracerebral

Hemorrhage

e)

Ischemic Stroke

39.

EPIDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

Where it happens?

a)

Epidural Space

b)

Subdural Space

c)

Subarachnoid Space

d)

Parenchyma/Brain Tissue

40.

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE

Where it happens?

a)

Epidural Space

b)

Subdural Space

c)

Subarachnoid Space

d)

Parenchyma/Brain Tissue

41.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

Where it happens?

a)

Epidural Space

b)

Subdural Space

c)

Subarachnoid Space

d)

Parenchyma/Brain Tissue

42.

SUBDURAL HEMORRHAGE

Where it happens?

a)

Epidural Space

b)

Subdural Space

c)

Subarachnoid Space

d)

Parenchyma/Brain Tissue

43.

EPIDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

How it happens?

a)

•Blunt Trauma and Skull Fracture

(Affects the Middle Meningeal Artery)

b)

Acceleration, Deceleration, and

Rotational Injury (Affects the Bridging

Veins causing rupture and bleeding)

c)

Blunt Trauma (Results from the rupture

of the small arteries and veins on the

surface of the brain)

d)

- Typically penetrating injury

- Can also be from depressed skull fracture

44.

SUBDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

How it happens?

a)

•Blunt Trauma and Skull Fracture

(Affects the Middle Meningeal Artery)

b)

Acceleration, Deceleration, and

Rotational Injury (Affects the Bridging

Veins causing rupture and bleeding)

c)

Blunt Trauma (Results from the rupture

of the small arteries and veins on the

surface of the brain)

d)

- Typically penetrating injury

- Can also be from depressed skull fracture

45.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE:

How it happens?

a)

•Blunt Trauma and Skull Fracture

(Affects the Middle Meningeal Artery)

b)

Acceleration, Deceleration, and

Rotational Injury (Affects the Bridging

Veins causing rupture and bleeding)

c)

Blunt Trauma (Results from the rupture

of the small arteries and veins on the

surface of the brain)

d)

- Typically penetrating injury

- Can also be from depressed skull fracture

46.

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE:

How it happens?

a)

•Blunt Trauma and Skull Fracture

(Affects the Middle Meningeal Artery)

b)

Acceleration, Deceleration, and

Rotational Injury (Affects the Bridging

Veins causing rupture and bleeding)

c)

Blunt Trauma (Results from the rupture

of the small arteries and veins on the

surface of the brain)

d)

- Typically penetrating injury

- Can also be from depressed skull fracture

47.

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE:

Clinical presentations?

a)

Brief loss of consciousness followed by Lucid

Period/Interval (No Symptoms) then subsequent

rapid deterioration of nervous function

b)

Most often non-localizing signs

c)

Thunderclap Headache (“worst headache of your life”)

d)

• Headache

• Vomiting

• Seizures

• Decreasing Level of Consciousness

• Contralateral Hemiparesis

48.

EPIDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

Clinical presentations?

a)

Brief loss of consciousness followed by Lucid

Period/Interval (No Symptoms) then subsequent

rapid deterioration of nervous function

b)

Most often non-localizing signs

c)

Thunderclap Headache (“worst headache of your life”)

d)

• Headache

• Vomiting

• Seizures

• Decreasing Level of Consciousness

• Contralateral Hemiparesis

49.

SUBDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

Clinical presentations?

a)

Brief loss of consciousness followed by Lucid

Period/Interval (No Symptoms) then subsequent

rapid deterioration of nervous function

b)

Most often non-localizing signs

c)

Thunderclap Headache (“worst headache of your life”)

d)

• Headache

• Vomiting

• Seizures

• Decreasing Level of Consciousness

• Contralateral Hemiparesis

50.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

Clinical presentations?

a)

Brief loss of consciousness followed by Lucid

Period/Interval (No Symptoms) then subsequent

rapid deterioration of nervous function

b)

Most often non-localizing signs

c)

Thunderclap Headache (“worst headache of your life”)

d)

• Headache

• Vomiting

• Seizures

• Decreasing Level of Consciousness

• Contralateral Hemiparesis

51.

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE:

Dx test?

a)

CT Scan showing

a crescent-

shaped opacity

b)

CT Scan showing a

focal, high density areas

particularly in the

fissures or sulci

• CSF Analysis showing

presence of frank

bleeding or RBC

artifacts

c)

•CT Scan showing

a lesion within

the brain tissue

d)

•CT Scan

showing a lens-

shaped opacity

52.

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE:

Dx test?

a)

CT Scan showing

a crescent-

shaped opacity

b)

CT Scan showing a

focal, high density areas

particularly in the

fissures or sulci

• CSF Analysis showing

presence of frank

bleeding or RBC

artifacts

c)

•CT Scan showing

a lesion within

the brain tissue

d)

•CT Scan

showing a lens-

shaped opacity

53.

SUBDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

Dx test?

a)

CT Scan showing

a crescent-

shaped opacity

b)

CT Scan showing a

focal, high density areas

particularly in the

fissures or sulci

• CSF Analysis showing

presence of frank

bleeding or RBC

artifacts

c)

•CT Scan showing

a lesion within

the brain tissue

d)

•CT Scan

showing a lens-

shaped opacity

54.

EPIDURAL HEMORRHAGE:

Dx test?

a)

CT Scan showing

a crescent-

shaped opacity

b)

CT Scan showing a

focal, high density areas

particularly in the

fissures or sulci

• CSF Analysis showing

presence of frank

bleeding or RBC

artifacts

c)

•CT Scan showing

a lesion within

the brain tissue

d)

•CT Scan

showing a lens-

shaped opacity

55.

TYPES OF CEREBROVASCULAR

ACCIDENT

a)

Ischemic Stroke

b)

Hemorrhagic

Stroke

c)

Transient

Ischemic Attack

(Pre-stroke)

d)

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE

e)

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

56.

• Is a condition that presents with temporary

neurologic deficit

• Manifests as sudden loss of motor, sensory, or

visual function

• The pathognomonic sign of TIA is complete

recovery from the neurological deficits with no

evidence of ischemia upon imaging study

• Symptoms result from temporary impairment of

blood flow (ischemia) to a specific region of the

brain

• Usually serves as a warning for impending stroke

a)

Ischemic Stroke

b)

Hemorrhagic

Stroke

c)

Transient

Ischemic Attack

(Pre-stroke)

d)

INTRACEREBRAL HEMORRHAGE

e)

SUBARACHNOID HEMORRHAGE

57.

Mechanism of Injury:

Disruption of blood supply to a part of the brain

a)

Ischemic Stroke

b)

Hemorrhagic

Stroke

c)

Transient

Ischemic Attack

(Pre-stroke)

58.

Paralysis or weakness on the RIGHT side of the body

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

59.

RIGHT visual field deficit

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

60.

Apashia

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

61.

Altered intellectual ability

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

62.

slow, cautious behavior

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

63.

Paralysis or weakness on the LEFT side of the body

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

64.

LEFT visual field deficit

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

65.

Spatial - perceptual deficits

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

66.

increased distractibility

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

67.

- Impulsive behavior and poor judgement

- Lack of awareness of deficits

a)

Left Hemispheric Stroke

b)

Right Hemispheric Stroke

68.

Mechanism of Injury:

Bleeding into the brain tissue, the ventricles, or the

subarachnoid space

a)

Ischemic Stroke

b)

Hemorrhagic

Stroke

c)

Transient

Ischemic Attack

(Pre-stroke)

69.

are episodes of abnormal motor,

sensory, autonomic, or psychic activity (or a

combination of these) that result from

excessive discharge from cerebral neurons.

a)

Seizures

b)

Epilepsy

70.

as at least two

unprovoked seizures occurring more than 24

hours apart.

a)

Seizures

b)

Epilepsy

71.

Electrical disturbance (dysrhythmia) in the nerve cells in one section of

the brain

a)

SEIZURE DISORDER

b)

Epilepsy

c)

HEMORRHAGIC STROKE

d)

ISCHEMIC STROKE

72.

Inflammation of the fibrous coverings of the nervous system

(meninges)

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

ISCHEMIC STROKE

c)

SUBARACHNOID HEMMORHAGE

73.

All are causative Agents of Meningitis, EXCEPT:

a)

Streptococcus pneumoniae

b)

Neisseria meningitidis

c)

Enteroviruses

d)

Cryptococcus neoformans

e)

Epstein Barr virus

74.

All are signs of Meningeal Irritation, EXCEPT:

a)

Neck immobility (Nuchal rigidity)

b)

Positive Kernig Sign

c)

Positive Brudzinski Sign

d)

Photophobia

e)

Throbbing Headache

75.

An acute inflammatory process of the brain tissue

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

ISCHEMIC STROKE

c)

SUBARACHNOID HEMMORHAGE

d)

ENCEPHALITIS

76.

most common causative agent of ENCEPHALITIS

a)

Herpes simplex virus

b)

Cryptococcus neoformans

c)

Aspergillus fumigatus

d)

Coccidioides immitis

77.

Occur early in VARIANT

CREUTZFELDT–JAKOB (vCJD) and late

onset in CREUTZFELDT–JAKOB (CJD)

a)

True

b)

False

78.

An immune-mediated, progressive

demyelinating disease of the CNS

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

ISCHEMIC STROKE

c)

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

d)

ENCEPHALITIS

79.

TYPES OF MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS (MS). Select all that apply.

a)

Relapsing-remitting

b)

Primary progressive

c)

Secondary progressive

d)

Progressive-relapsing

e)

all of the above

80.

- Is an autoimmune

disorder affecting the myoneural

junction

- It is characterized by varying degrees

of weakness of the voluntary muscles

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

c)

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

d)

ENCEPHALITIS

81.

- Caused by unilateral inflammation of CN VII

- This results to ipsilateral weakness or paralysis

of the facial muscles

a)

MENINGITIS

b)

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

c)

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

d)

ENCEPHALITIS

e)

BELL’S PALSY

82.

A slowly progressing neurologic movement

disorder that eventually leads to disability

a)

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

b)

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

c)

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

d)

ENCEPHALITIS

e)

BELL’S PALSY

83.

All are cardinal signs of Parkinson’s disease, EXCEPT:

a)

Postural Instability

b)

Orthostatic hypotension

c)

Tremors

d)

Rigidity

e)

Bradykinesia/Akinesia

84.

a chronic, progressive, neurodegenerative brain disease

a)

PARKINSON’S DISEASE

b)

MYASTHENIA GRAVIS

c)

MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS

d)

ALZHEIMER’S DISEASE

e)

BELL’S PALSY

85.

Signs of sepsis in acute fulminant infection during meningitis includes the following, EXCEPT

a)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation

b)

Myalgia

c)

Abrupt onset of high fever

d)

Extensive purpuric lesions

86.

Diffuse slowing or focal changes in the temporal lobe in EEG is seen in what type of encephalitis?

a)

West Nile Encephalitis

b)

CJD/vCJD

c)

Herpes simplex encephalitis

d)

St. Louis Encephalitis

87.

The most common type of Multiple Sclerosis is

a)

Progressive-relapsing

b)

Relapsing-remitting

c)

Secondary progressive

d)

Primary progressive

88.

For Multiple Sclerosis, medications for spasticity would include the following, EXCEPT

a)

Dantrolene (Dantrium)

b)

Diazepam (Valium)

c)

Baclofen (Lioresal)

d)

Dalfampridine (Ampyra)

89.

Myasthenia Gravis is caused by what pathogenic mechanism?

a)

Autoimmune destruction of acetylcholine receptors

b)

Enzymatic destruction of the myoneural junction

c)

Increased breakdown of acetylcholine

d)

Delayed acetylcholine release

90.

The confirmatory test for Myasthenia Gravis is?

a)

.

Single Fiber Electromyography

b)

Repetitive Nerve Stimulation

c)

Tensilon Test

d)

Ice Test

91.

The paralysis caused by Bell's Palsy results in residual neurologic deficit after recovery.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Diagnosis of Parkinson's disease is confirmed by a positive response to Levodopa trial.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

Majority of the cases of Alzheimer's disease is of Early Onset Alzheimer's.

a)

True

b)

False

94.

The following are drugs given for the depression experienced in Alzheimer's Disease, EXCEPT

a)

Sertraline (Zoloft)

b)

Fluvoxamine (Luvox)

c)

Risperidone (Risperidal)

d)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

95.

Oculovestibular Reflex

a)

CN VIII

b)

Cerebellum

c)

CN X

d)

CN V

96.

Point-to-point test

a)

CN VIII

b)

Cerebellum

c)

CN X

d)

CN V

97.

Rapid Alternating Movement

a)

CN VIII

b)

Cerebellum

c)

CN X

d)

CN V

98.

Gag Reflex

a)

CN VIII

b)

Cerebellum

c)

CN X

d)

CN V

99.

Corneal Reflex

a)

CN VIII

b)

Cerebellum

c)

CN X

d)

CN V

100.

An upper motor neuron lesion may cause muscle spasticity. A lower motor neuron may cause hyperactive reflexes.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

101.

CN IV is responsible for innervating the superior rectus muscle. CN VI can be tested by letting the patient move their eyes laterally.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

102.

CN V can be tested by checking the taste sensation of the patient. CN XI can be assessed by performing the Gag Reflex.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

103.

Epidural Hemorrhage usually occurs due to the rupture of the middle meningeal artery. Subdural hemorrhage usually occurs due to the rupture of the bridging veins.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

104.

Epidural Hemorrhage is characterized by a slow progression of the onset of neurologic deficit. It presents as a lens-shaped opacity on CT scan.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

105.

Subdural Hemorrhage is usually identified with the presence of a "Lucid Interval" where the patient is asymptomatic. It is then followed by the rapid progression of neurologic deficits.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

106.

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage would present a "Thunderclap Headache" in the patient. It is cause by the rupture of the small arteries and veins on the surface of the brain.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

107.

Diabetes Mellitus Type 2 is a risk factor for ischemic stroke. Arteriovenous malformation increases the risk of ischemic stroke as well.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

108.

Transient Ischemic Attack will present some changes in the brain tissue upon CT scan examination despite having fully recovered from the symptoms. It serves as a warning sign for intracerebral hemorrhage.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

109.

Ataxia is defined as the inability to maintain a stable gait and inability to ambulate properly. Hemiparesis is the weakness of one side of the body.

a)

The first statement is TRUE

b)

The second statement is TRUE

c)

BOTH statements are TRUE

d)

NONE of the statements are TRUE

110.

Caused by penetrating brain injury

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

111.

Results from excessive discharge of cerebral neurons

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

112.

Complete recovery of symptoms with normal CT scan findings

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

113.

Thunderclap Headache

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

114.

Focal, high-density areas on CT Scan

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

115.

Lens-shaped opacity on CT Scan

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Epilepsy

c)

Transient Ischemic Attack

d)

Subarachnoid Hemorrhage

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

116.

Crescent-shaped opacity on CT Scan

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Ischemic Stroke

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

117.

Chiefly caused by uncontrolled hypertension

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Ischemic Stroke

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

118.

Mainly caused by occlusion of cerebral blood supply

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Ischemic Stroke

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

119.

Lucid Interval

a)

Intracerebral Hemorrhage

b)

Subdural Hemorrhage

c)

Hemorrhagic Stroke

d)

Ischemic Stroke

e)

Epidural Hemorrhage

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