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P-STAAR - Full Review

Total questions: 191

Worksheet time: 10hrs 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A student produces a labeled drawing of a virus for a presentation. The student states that a capsid has a function similar to the nuclear membrane found in animal cells.


Which of these describes the similar functions of capsids and nuclear membranes?

a)

Both transport proteins throughout the structures.

b)

Both provide energy for activities in the structures.

c)

Both protect genetic information for the structures.

d)

Both code for the proteins needed for the reproduction of the structures.

2.

In 1898 Friedrich Loeffler and Paul Frosch found evidence that the cause of the highly contagious hoof-and-mouth disease in livestock was a microscope infectious particle. It was discovered that this particle requires a host cell to reproduce.


Which pathogen is most likely responsible for causing hoof-and-mouth disease in livestock?

a)

a bacterium, because it is contagious

b)

a fungus, because it infects livestock

c)

a protist, because it is microscopic

d)

a virus, because it requires a host cell to reproduce

3.

Which of these describes a difference between viruses and cells?

a)

Cells contain protein, and viruses contain only carbohydrates.

b)

Viruses have flagella, and cells have only cilia.

c)

Cells reproduce independently and viruses require a host to reproduce.

d)

Viruses have membranes

4.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) often infects and destroys CD4 T-cells. These CD4 T-cells are one of many kinds of white blood cells that are an important part of the immune system, which protect the body.


The most common danger related to the destruction of CD4 T cells is -

a)

an increase in the risk of high blood pressure

b)

an increase in the threat of diseases caused by microorganisms and viruses

c)

a decrease in the flow of blood to vital organs

d)

a decrease in the amount of oxygen being transported to issues.

5.

The picture shows a 3D model of a virus called a bacteriophage. Bacteriophages can infect bacteria such as E.coli.


In what way are the bacteriophage and E.coli alike?

a)

they contain antibodies

b)

they reproduce by mitosis

c)

they have identical genomes

d)

they lack membrane-bound organelles

6.

A team of students encounters an unknown organism in a field while conducting a biodiversity study. Some students think the organism is a plant, while others think it is a fungus.


Which question should the students investigate to classify the organism correctly?

a)

Is there a cell wall around the cells of the organism?

b)

Does the organism perform photosynthesis?

c)

Is there nervous tissue present in the organism?

d)

Does the organism reproduce sexually?

7.

Which list correctly identifies characteristics that protists share with animals?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.

Five general characteristics of organisms in kingdoms Plantae or Fungi are listed in the box.


Which table correctly lists the characteristics of the organisms in the two kingdoms?

a)
b)
c)
d)
9.

A student wants to use the Venn diagram below to show the characteristics of two kingdoms of organisms. The characteristics that the two kingdoms share will be listed in the shaded area where the circles intersect.


Which of these is a characteristic that the student should list in the shaded part of the diagram?

a)

Heterotrophic

b)

Mobile

c)

Prokaryotic

d)

Multicellular

10.

The diagram shows taxonomic groups and a major distinguishing characteristic of all but two of them.


Which characteristic will be used to complete the chart ?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

Male guppies found in areas without predators are more colorful than the ones found in locations with large predator populations. A population of adult guppies originating from an area with a large number of predators is transferred to a nearby area with few predators.


Which of these is most likely to happen over a few generations?

a)

The mortality rate of the guppies will increase.

b)

Offspring will stop competing for resources.

c)

There will be an increase in mutations in the offspring.

d)

There will be an increase in the number of colorful guppies.

12.

The diagram shows light and dark colored beetles that live on a tree. Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

13.

The quiver tree grows in desert areas in southern Africa. In recent decades, average temperatures have been rising in southern Africa. Scientists predict that this warming trend will continue. Quiver trees in the hottest parts of their range near the equator are dying, but quiver trees at high elevations or in parts of the range that are farther from the equator are growing and reproducing.


Which of these best explains what is happening to the quiver tree population in southern Africa?

a)

Individual quiver trees are unable to adjust to rising temperatures, and only those in cooler parts of the range will survive.

b)

The quiver tree species is unable to survive rising temperatures throughout its range. The species is likely to undergo rapid extinction.

c)

Individual quiver trees can quickly adapt to rising temperatures. Individual trees will change their method of seed dispersal in cooler parts of the range.

d)

The quiver tree species will survive by producing offspring suited for warmer temperatures.

14.

An experiment is run where 50 beige mice and 50 black mice are placed on dark volcanic rock. Over the next 25 years, which type of mouse do you expect to be the majority?

a)

The beige mice because they have the adaptation to blend in and survive, and reproduce

b)

The black mice because they have the adaptation to blend in and survive, and reproduce

c)

The beige mice because they have an adaptation and can outlive the black mice

d)

The dark mice because they have an adaptation and can outlive the black mice

15.

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Fitness (natural selection)

d)

Competition

16.

This cladogram shows the evolutionary relationships among some mammals based on homologous structures.


Which statement is supported by this cladogram?

a)

Hippopotamuses are more closely related to cows than to javelinas.

b)

Toothed whales are more closely related to mouse deer than to hippopotamuses.

c)

Javelinas and pigs are more closely related than baleen whales and toothed whales.

d)

Cows and mouse deer are more closely related than javelinas and pigs.

17.

Scientists can determine relatedness among organisms by comparing partial amino acid sequences. The table shows four partial amino acid sequences from four organisms.


Which organism is the least related to the other three organisms?

a)

organism 1

b)

organism 2

c)

organism 3

d)

organism 4

18.

The image shows part of the humerus bone in different genera of primates.


Which statement is best supported by the observable structures of the different humorous bones?

a)

the primates lived in similar environments.

b)

the primates shared a common ancestor.

c)

the primates interbreed with similar organisms in a population.

d)

the primates had diets that consisted of similar types of foods.

19.

Cetaceans are whales and their relatives. The diagram shows some fossils of cetaceans.


Which statement provides the best evidence that Ambulecetus natans is an ancestor of Basilosaurus iris?

a)

homologous structure occurs in each fossil.

b)

similar nitrogenous bases are found in the DNA of each fossil.

c)

the fossils were found in different locations

d)

the youngest fossil is larger than the older fossils.

20.

Bactrian camels, dromedaries, llamas, and alpacas are all members of the same taxonomic family, Camelidae. Members of this family all have two toes, no hooves, true canine teeth, and a split upper lip. the family Camelidae originated in North America. The physical features of animals in this family and the family's geographical origin provide evidence that all these animals -

a)

live in the same type of ecosystem

b)

have slowly evolved to become herbivores

c)

have a common ancestor

d)

exchanged DNA at some point in the past

21.

When cells lose their ability to regulate the cell cycle, they can divide at an accelerated rate and form a mass of cells. This mass of cells is referred to as -

a)

a tumor

b)

an embryo

c)

a gland

d)

an organ

22.

Oncogenes are mutated forms of genes. Oncogenes can transform a cell into a tumor cell. Some tumor cells are benign, while others are malignant. How does the presence of an oncogene lead to the formation of a tumor?

a)

ATP production is inhibited

b)

Cell division is unregulated

c)

Somatic cell growth is inhibited

d)

Antibody activity is unregulated

23.

Cells typically respond to DNA damage in three ways: by ceasing to grow and divide until the damage is repaired, by permanently ceasing to grow and divide, or by dying. In 2010 a group of scientists reported that a certain kind of immune reaction can cause DNA damage that leads to a fourth response. DNA damage can turn off genes involved in cell-signaling pathways. Turning off these genes can cause less-mature cells to divide too rapidly, often leading to the development of -

a)

tumors

b)

allergies

c)

hemophilia

d)

cardiovascular disease

24.

Atherosclerosis is a disease that obstructs blood flow and, therefore, oxygen supply to target organs. A major component of atherosclerosis is the excessive reproduction of smooth muscle unregulated reproduction of the diseased blood-vessel cells. Which of these processes is the most likely target of these drugs?

a)

cell division

b)

erythroblast differentiation

c)

DNA transcription

d)

cellular respiration

25.

 The diagram represent the cell cycle.

When cells leave the cell cycle, they exit during G-1 phase and then enter G-0, a resting period.  Most normal cells can leave G-0 phase and reenter the cell cycle at G-1 phase before entering S phase.  


Cancer cells are different because they cannot enter G-0 phase and are likely to do which of the following?

a)

fail to complete S phase

b)

mutate during G-1 phase

c)

repeat the cell cycle continuously

d)

die after completing mitosis

26.

The gray squirrel, Eastern fox squirrel, and red squirrel are all different species of squirrels. Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

To prevent existing named organisms from having their names changed as they become extinct

b)

To keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

To allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

To standardize the naming and organization of organisms to avoid confusion

27.

Organisms are classified today using the Linnaean system, and the following table shows the taxonomic classification of two marine organisms living along the Pacific Coast.


Taxonomic classification is important to marine biologists because it provides a way to -

a)

prove that marine evolution occurs

b)

discover and name every marine organism on Earth

c)

designate Latin as the universal language of marine biology

d)

identify marine organisms and find evolutionary relationships between them

28.

Scientists around the world use a standardized taxonomic system. Why would scientists want to use a taxonomic system that is standardized?

a)

In order to avoid confusion with the identification of organisms

b)

Because Linnaeus established the system

c)

So that Latin names can be applied for a practical purpose.

d)

In order to place organisms in different groups

29.

Adult mountain lions (Puma concolor) are almost 2 meters long. They have a black spot over each eye. The common names used throughout the United States for this species are listed below.


Why is it best for scientists to use the name from the standardized taxonomic system?

a)

The standardized name differentiates mountain lions and pumas.

b)

The standardized name is less descriptive of the animal that has been observed.

c)

Communication with other scientists about mountain lions will be reduced.

d)

All scientists will be using one name for mountain lions.

30.

The Linnaean taxonomic system classifies organisms into divisions called taxa. If two organisms belong to the same taxonomic group, they are related. Similarity at which of these levels indicates the closest relationship?

a)

Kingdom

b)

Class

c)

Order

d)

Genus

31.

The diagrams show a partial food web containing the Glyptapanteles wasp and the life cycle of this wasp.


Based on the two diagrams, which list correctly identifies the relationships Glyptapanteles wasp larvae have with other organisms?

a)
b)
c)
d)
32.

Which of these best demonstrates mutualism between certain types of bacteria and humans?

a)

Intestinal bacteria obtain nutrients from the gut and produce vitamin K used by humans.

b)

bacteria become resistant to antibacterial medication that humans use for treatment.

c)

invasive bacteria at an area of injury produce toxins that damage the healthy tissues of the human body.

d)

bacteria in improperly prepared food are consumed by humans, causing food poisoning.

33.

In North American forests, two species of birds, nuthatches and brown creepers, forage on the same trees for insects. Brown creepers feed on insects found near the bottom of the tree trunk, while nuthatches feed on insect in the top part of the tree.


The difference in foraging behavior most likely affects the nuthatches and brown creepers by -

a)

allowing the birds to avoid many types of predators

b)

reducing competition between the birds for resources

c)

preventing the birds from interbreeding with each other

d)

establishing dominance between the birds for nesting sites

34.

A remora is a fish that has an adhesive disk on the back of it head that it uses to attach itself to a large shark. When food floats away from the shark's mouth as it feeds, the remora collects the scraps. drawing of a shark with a remora attached and a remora's adhesive disk is shown below.


The relationship between the remora and the shark is an example of -

a)

predation

b)

parasitism

c)

commensalism

d)

competition

35.

A student performed an investigation in which two ivy plants were planted in two separate containers that had earthworms mixed in with the soil, and the other container has soil and no earthworms. The plants were given the same amount of water and exposed to the same amount of sunlight. The student observed that after several weeks of growth, the plant exposed to earthworms appeared to be healthier and exhibited more growth. To conclude that the relationship between the plant and the earthworm is an example of mutualism, the student must perform follow-up investigations that do which of the following?

a)

Determine whether the earthworms damage the soil in any way

b)

Determine whether the earthworms benefit from being with the plant

c)

Determine whether the water given to the plant is unpolluted

d)

Determine whether the other plant in the investigation suffers as a result of not being exposed to earthworms

36.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

37.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

38.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

40.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.

a)

The event represents RNA translation in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

The event takes place in the bacterial cells

c)

The event produces genetically identical daughter cells

d)

The even provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells.

42.

Which diagram demonstrates how crossing-over contributes to genetic variety during meiosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
43.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has-

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

44.

Sexual reproduction in animals depends on the production of gametes. Which of these processes produces gametes in animals?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Fertilization

c)

Meiosis

d)

Binary Fission

45.

Crossing-over between nonsister chromatids during meiosis is significant in heredity. This process most likely leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

The expression of dominant traits

b)

Number of gametes

c)

The occurrence of polyploidy

d)

Genetic variation

46.

A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?

a)

the sibling of the organism

b)

the offspring of the organism

c)

the other organism living nearby

d)

the mating partner of the organism

47.

A codon chart is shown.


Which of these changes to the DNA triplet 3' GCT 5' will not affect the protein produced?

a)

GTT

b)

TCT

c)

TCC

d)

GCA

48.

Sickle-shaped red blood cells result from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. This mutation results in sickle-cell anemia. A partial sequence of bases from a normal hemoglobin gene and a sequence that results in sickle-cell anemia are shown below.


What type of mutation is depicted in this sequence?

a)

substitution

b)

insertion

c)

deletion

d)

frameshift

49.

Early-onset Alzheimer's disease affects peope under the age of 65. Less than five percent of people who are diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease have this type. Many cases of early-onset Alzheimer's disease are inherited, a type is known as familial Alzheimer's disease (FAD). Which statement is best supported by this information?

a)

FAD is the result of a genetic change in one or more chromosomes.

b)

Natural selection will continue to reduce the incidence of FAD.

c)

FAD affects only the genes of middle-aged people.

d)

deletion of one amino acid causes FAD.

50.

In the 1960s the molecular biologist George Streisinger developed the strand-slippage hypothesis. Streisinger noticed that mutation occurred in areas of DNA that contained many repeated sequences. When a strand-slippage error occurs, an insertion mutation can result. How does the insertion mutation affect the DNA?

a)

nitrogenous bases are added

b)

nitrogenous bases are exchanged.

c)

nitrogenous bases are damaged.

d)

nitrogenous bases are deleted.

51.

Mice have two unlinked allele pairs that affect fur color. The table shows how allele pairs affect fur color. The term "agouti" describes fur with pigmentation that changes in each hair from the shaft to the tip, giving the fur a banded appearance. Mice with the aa allele pair are albino, regardless of the second allele-pair combination.


What is the probability of albinism in the offspring of a cross between two mice with AaBb

a)

1/16

b)

3/16

c)

4/16

d)

9/16

52.
a)

I-1:aa

I-2:Aa

b)

I-1:AA

I-2:Aa

c)

I-1:Aa

I-2:aa

d)

I-1:aa

I-2:AA

53.

In humans blood type is determined by the A, B , and O alleles. The A and B alleles are codominant to each other and dominant over the O allele. An individual with the AO genotype and an individual with the BO genotype can produce offspring with which of the following phenotypes?

a)

O only

b)

A or B only

c)

A, B, or O only

d)

A, B, AB, or O

54.
a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

55.

a)

The F1 generation is composed only of males.

b)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will not be able to reproduce.

c)

The F1 generation is the result of a dihybrid cross.

d)

Two of the offspring in the F1 generation will experience a spontaneous mutation.

56.

A new predator of rabbits has been introduced within an ecosystem. This new predator runs faster than the native predator of rabbits.


Which statement describes what will most likely occur in the rabbit population due to the introduction of the predator?

a)

The rabbits will mutate their genes and express genes that increase their speed.

b)

Slower rabbits will develop stronger legs and pass this trait to their offspring.

c)

Rabbits will mate and produce offspring with a different species that has faster runners.

d)

Faster rabbits will survive and reproduce increasing the average speed of the rabbit population.

57.

The aye-aye lemur is a mammal that fees mostly on insect larvae that live inside trees. The aye-aye lemur ha a specialized middle finger that is long and thin. The aye-aye lemur moves along a tree branch and taps the branch with its specialized finger. When the aye-aye lemur hears a difference in the echo, it will tear open the bark with its teeth until the insect tunnel is exposed. The aye-aye lemur then uses its specialized finger to reach the insect larvae and remove it.


Which selective pressure most likely resulted in the development of the aye-aye lemur's special adaptation ?

a)

Limited availability of water

b)

Competing for males

c)

Large numbers of natural predators

d)

Food sources that are hard to find

58.

The white tail cattail is a hybrid species of plant that is a result of the cross between broad-leaved cattail and the narrow-leaved cattail. Over time, the white cattail has established itself in the wetlands of Midwestern states.


Which of these explains the success of the white cattail ?

a)

Favorable genes form parental generations provide advantageous characteristics to the hybrid species.

b)

Hybridization produces offspring traits that allow different species to survive in extreme environments

c)

Inherited traits passed on from parental generations make hybrid species more susceptible to disease.

d)

Hybrid species display more adaptations due to their reduced genetic diversity

59.

Adaptations that result from natural selection are expected to increase the fitness of an organism. In terms of natural selection, which of the following best describes fitness ?

a)

Being able to escape from predators

b)

Being among the strongest organisms in a population

c)

Being able to survive, find a mate, and produce offspring

d)

Being able to survive long enough to reach the adult stage

60.

In the 1040s, the scientist J. B. S. Haldane linked may human red blood cell disorders with the tropical regions where malaria occurs. Haldane hypothesized that the widespread presence of these red blood cell disorders as well as traits that protect individuals from malaria were the result of natural selection. Haldane's hypothesis was later confirmed by the research of A. C. Allison.


The resistance to malaria carried by individuals in areas where malaria is widespread is the result of --

a)

a vaccine against malaria

b)

the individuals' genetic composition

c)

antibiotic medications

d)

the individuals' behavior in avoiding those with the infection

61.

a)

The event represents RNA translation in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

b)

The event takes place in the bacterial cells

c)

The event produces genetically identical daughter cells

d)

The even provides genetic diversity in eukaryotic cells.

62.

Which diagram demonstrates how crossing-over contributes to genetic variety during meiosis?

a)
b)
c)
d)
63.

Human body cells each have 46 chromosomes in their nuclei. Meiosis is necessary in order to ensure that each gamete produced in the human body has-

a)

12 chromosomes

b)

23 chromosomes

c)

46 chromosomes

d)

92 chromosomes

64.

Sexual reproduction in animals depends on the production of gametes. Which of these processes produces gametes in animals?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Fertilization

c)

Meiosis

d)

Binary Fission

65.

Crossing-over between nonsister chromatids during meiosis is significant in heredity. This process most likely leads to an increase in which of the following?

a)

The expression of dominant traits

b)

Number of gametes

c)

The occurrence of polyploidy

d)

Genetic variation

66.

Enzymes are proteins that have a three-dimensional shape that is specific to a particular substrate. environmental conditions can change the shape of the protein.


What is the most likely result if the shape of the enzyme changes?

a)

The substrate will change its shape to match the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will no longer be able to catalyze the reaction with the substrate.

c)

The products made from the enzyme and the substrate will be changed

d)

The enzyme will be able to bind to more diverse substrates than before.

67.

The graphs show the reaction rate for an enzyme across a range of temperatures and pH.

Based on this data, this enzyme functions best at what temperature and pH?

a)

Temperature of 27° and pH of 4Temperature\ of\ 27\degree\ and\ pH\ of\ 4

b)

Temperature of 37° and pH of 6Temperature\ of\ 37\degree\ and\ pH\ of\ 6

c)

Temperature of 40° and pH of 8Temperature\ of\ 40\degree\ and\ pH\ of\ 8

d)

Temperature of 50° and pH of 10Temperature\ of\ 50\degree\ and\ pH\ of\ 10

68.

The diagram represents one way an enzyme can be inhibited.


Which statement explains the effect of an inhibitor on an enzyme?

a)

A substrate will be able to bond with the enzyme.

b)

The enzyme will likely be attacked by immune cells.

c)

The enzyme will be unable to produce more enzymes.

d)

A substrate will be unable to attach to the enzyme.

69.

Alzheimer's disease, which is loss of brain function and cognition over time, is caused by a buildup of abnormal protein fragments that damage brain cells. The BACE2 enzyme decreases the abnormal protein fragment in the brain of people who suffer from Alzheimer's disease.


Which statement explains how BACE2 most likely works?

a)

BACE2 breaks down into smaller pieces that react with the abnormal protein fragments, forming more complex molecules

b)

BACE2 speeds up the reaction that breaks down the abnormal protein fragments.

c)

BACE2 molecules link several abnormal protein fragments together, forming a complete protein.

d)

BACE2 is a reactant that combines with the abnormal protein fragments.

70.
a)

Lactose

b)

Galactose

c)

Galactose - 1 - phosphate

d)

Glucose - 6 - phosphate

71.

Which of these components are found in the cells of all living organisms?

a)

Estrogen and testosterone

b)

Hemoglobin and lymphocytes

c)

Cytosine and Guanine

d)

Cellulose and Chlorophyll

72.

Scientist use zebra fish to study human genetic diseases because zebra fish and humans share many of the same genetic diseases.


Which statement describes why zebra fish experience similar genetic diseases as humans?

a)

Zebra fish have an omnivorous diet similar to that of humans.

b)

Zebra fish have nucleotide sequences similar to those of humans.

c)

Zebra fish to through embryonic stages similar to those of humans.

d)

Zebra fish produce gametes through a process that is similar to that of humans.

73.

Researchers combined sequences of fruit-fly DNA from a gene for a particular trait with frog DNA. The mixture was heated to separate the DNA strands. Cooling allowed the single strands to form pairs. The researchers observed that some of the fruit-fly DNA paired with frog DNA.

a)

Similar nucleotides are present in both fruit-fly and frog DNA

b)

Fruit flies and frogs can be made to develop some of the same physical traits.

c)

heat can cause mutations in the DNA sequences of organisms

d)

the replication of genetic material can occur at any temperature.

74.

In the early 1980s scientists were able to produce two biomolecules by splicing a human gene into the bacterium E. coli to make recombinant human insulin and growth hormone. Which statement best explains why this experiment was successful?

a)

Human cells are eukaryotic, and E. coli cells are prokaryotic

b)

All living organisms share the same genome.

c)

The genes for all organisms are composed of the same building blocks.

d)

The human body contains many types of bacteria, including E. coli.

75.

Organisms can be classified based on homology, which is shared characteristics inherited from a common ancestor. In the past, homologies were based on studies of anatomical structures and patterns of embryonic development. In more recent years, the use of molecular biology techniques has allowed homologies to be compared at the level of nucleotide sequences. Nucleotide sequence comparisons are possible because all organisms share which of the following?

a)

DNA bases

b)

Cellular organelles

c)

Division of the nuclear chromosomes

d)

Types of proteins needed for cellular functions

76.

What would be the most likely effect of a wildfire that burned a large area of a forest?

a)

more sugars and starches would be available for animals in the area

b)

the availability of fossil fuels for use by industries in the area would be reduced

c)

Less carbon dioxide would be removed from the atmosphere in the area by plants.

d)

An increase in animal respiration would increase the release of carbon dioxide in the area.

77.

As part of the nitrogen cycle, animals acquire some amino acids by doing which of the following?

a)

Breathing air

b)

Eating plants

c)

Drinking water

d)

Producing waste

78.

This diagram demonstrates why the ocean is a larger carbon sink.


An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere can cause atmospheric temperatures to increase. which statement explains how this could affect the ocean as a carbon sink?

a)

Less atmospheric carbon dioxide would be available to phytoplankton.

b)

Dissolved carbon dioxide gas in the ocean would increase because surface winds would cause a deeper circulation pattern, making more room for gas.

c)

Less carbon dioxide gas would be contained in the ocean because increasing precipitation would dilute the carbon entering the ocean.

d)

less carbon dioxide would be dissolved in the ocean because increasing atmospheric temperatures would cause ocean temperatures to increase.

79.

Atmospheric nitrogen has to be combined with other elements, or fixed, in order to be used by plants. Lightning is one way that nitrogen is fixed.

when lightning occurs, the extreme heat breaks the bonds in nitrogen to combine with oxygen and form nitrogen oxides. In what ways is most of the nitrogen fixed by lightning made available for use by plants?

a)

it is moved by the wind toward dry areas.

b)

it is incorporated into the exoskeletons of flying insects that eat plants.

c)

it is inhaled and exhaled by birds roosting in trees during rainstorms

d)

it is carried by rain to the soil

80.

The diagram shows the flow of organic molecules through an ecosystem. One process that occurs in the ecosystem is labeled X, and another process that occurs is labeled Y.


Which two processes are identified by eh labels X and Y?

a)

X: Respiration

Y: Predation

b)

X: Adaptation

Y: Decomposition

c)

X: Fermentation

Y: Nitrogen fixation

d)

X: Decomposition

Y: Respiration

81.

Which statement accurately describes the energy needs for photosynthesis and cellular respiration?

a)

Solar energy is needed for cellular respiration but not for photosynthesis.

b)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for both cellular respiration and photosynthesis.

c)

Chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for photosynthesis, and solar energy is needed for cellular respiration.

d)

Solar energy is needed for photosynthesis, and chemical energy in the form of glucose is needed for cellular respiration.

82.

Which statement explains how producers are dependent upon consumers for their survival ?

a)

Consumers supply oxygen for producers to undergo aerobic respiration.

b)

Consumers produce carbon dioxide for producers to use during photosynthesis.

c)

Consumers provide chemical energy needed by producers for cellular respiration.

d)

Consumers make lactic acid that producers use in photosynthesis.

83.

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both involve the use and release of gases. Which statement correctly identifies the role of gases in the two processes?

a)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use carbon dioxide and release oxygen.

b)

Photosynthesis and cellular respiration both use oxygen and release carbon dioxide.

c)

Cellular respiration uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide, while photosynthesis uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen.

d)

Cellular respiration uses carbon dioxide and releases oxygen, while photosynthesis uses oxygen and releases carbon dioxide.

84.

Which statement best describes the relationship between the products of photosynthesis and the reactants in cellular respiration?

a)

The products of photosynthesis serve as the reactants in cellular respiration to provide chemical energy.

b)

The products of photosynthesis combine with the reactants in cellular respiration to remove ATP from cells.

c)

The products of photosynthesis inhibit the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

d)

The products of photosynthesis change the structure of the reactants in cellular respiration in the presence of light.

85.

Diatoms are one of the most common types of phytoplankton in marine habitats. Like plants, diatoms contain chlorophyll and produce glucose from which of the following?

a)

Oxygen and ATP

b)

Carbon dioxide and oxygen

c)

ATP and water

d)

Carbon dioxide and water

86.

Students are modeling mRNA during the process of protein synthesis. Which answer choice correctly describes the model of mRNA strand being transcribed?

a)

The mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand: however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine.

b)

The mRNA strand is complementary to the DNA template strand: however, uracil instead of thymine is paired with adenine.

c)

The mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand; however, uracil instead of adenine is paired with thymine.

d)

The mRNA strand is an exact copy of the DNA template strand/; however, uracil instead of thymine is paired with adenine.

87.

Which of these is the correct amino acid chain produced from the DNA template strand?

a)

arginine- leucine - proline - asparagine - lysine - arginine

b)

tryptophas - phenylalanine - leucine - glycine - asparagine - phenaylalanine

c)

serine - leucine - proline - asparagine - lysine - arginine

d)

tryptophan - phenylalanine - leucine - glycine - asparagine - serine

88.

A model of a biological process is shown above. What is the purpose of this process?

a)

To replicate the DNA of an organism before cell division

b)

to assemble nucleotides in an nRNA chain along a DNA template

c)

to synthesize amino acids used to unzip strands of DNA and copy the genetic code.

d)

to translate the genetic code into a specific sequence of amino acids

89.

The initial steps in gene expression are modeled in the picture above. Double-stranded DNA first unwinds into two strands.


Which process are products are represented in Diagram 2?

a)

Process: transcription/ product: mRNA

b)

Process: Translation: product; protein

c)

Process: replication; product: tRNA

d)

Process: recombination; product: polymerase

90.

Part of an important cellular process involving a DNA strand is modeled below.


What is the purpose of this cellular process?

a)

Preserving genetic information for future generations

b)

deleting the information in the sequence produced from the DNA template

c)

transcribing information in the DNA sequence for use by the cell

d)

Producing more nucleotides for the DNA sequence.

91.

A dichotomous key for identifying fish is shown.


Based on this key, which two fish have eyes located on either side of their head and are not spotted?

a)

Glassy sweeper and squirrelfish

b)

Glasseye snapper and spotted eagle ray

c)

Spotted goatfish and bandtail puffer

d)

Peacock flounder and glassy sweeper

92.

Many tree frog populations are threatened due to habitat loss. In an effort to promote conservation, tree frogs may be bred in captivity. A zoo acquired male and female tree frogs from two different populations. In the zoo, the tree frogs were able to successfully mate within their own population, but breeding attempts between the two populations were unsuccessful.


Based on this information, which statement correctly describes the relationship between the two populations of tree frogs.

a)

They are in the same species but different kingdoms.

b)

They are in the same class but different phyla.

c)

They are in the same family but different orders.

d)

They are in the same genus but different species.

93.

A student used a microscope to study four members of the phylum Ciliophora. Members of this phylum move when propelled by hundreds of tiny cilia.


Although these organisms belong to the same phylum, they are classified as different -

a)

families

b)

species

c)

kingdoms

d)

orders

94.

The relationships among different orders of millipedes are shown in the cladogram.


Based on this cladogram, which statement best describes relationships among millipede orders?

a)

Stemmiulida is more closely related to Merocheta than Penicillata is to Merocheta.

b)

Spirostreptida is more closely related to Glomerida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomerida.

c)

Polyzoniida is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Sphaerotheriida is to Glomeridesmida.

d)

Merocheta is more closely related to Glomeridesmida than Glomerida is to Glomeridesmida.

95.

Simple leaves have a single leaf on a petiole, or stem, while compound leaves have more than one leaflet on a petiole. This unknown leaf can be identified using the dichotomous key.


Which tree does the unknown leaf come from?

a)

Ungnadia speciosa

b)

Sophora secundiflora

c)

Salix nigra

d)

Quercus laceyi

96.

During secondary succession, which of these best describes why decomposing pioneer plants give way to larger more complex plants species, such as hardwood trees?

a)

Increased amounts of sunlight are able to reach the ground while the pioneer species are decomposing.

b)

increased soil temperatures from decomposing pioneer species help tree seeds germinate more quickly.

c)

increased amounts of decomposing pioneer species remove nutrients that tree seedlings need to grow and mature.

d)

increased amounts of soil from decomposing pioneer species allow plants with more extensive root systems to become established.

97.

grassland ecosystem in Texas have evolved to depend on periodic fires to return nutrients to the soil and encourage plant reproduction. humans have prevent fires in many of these grassland areas, resulting in plant and animal communities with tlittle diversity. wildlife biologists often recommend purposefully stating fires called prescribed burns. which are moonitored and controlled, in grassland ecosystems every 3 to 4 years. These biologists observe greater diversity in plant and animal life in the years following a prescribed burns.


What natural processes are the biologist attempting to imitate?

a)

biomagnification

b)

succession

c)

population bottleneck

d)

species extension

98.

A small town in the piney woods of East Texas has a soccer field composed of native grasses. The soccer field is mowed once a week.


What effect does continual mowing have on the ecology of the field?

a)

Mowing increases the likelihood of nonnative species displacing native species.

b)

Mowing increases the number of species found in the field.

c)

Mowing causes different types of communities to form across the field.

d)

Mowing maintains a low species diversity by inhibiting further succession.

99.

An estuary collects sediments from the ocean and rivers that feed into it. The sediments swirl around and then settle to form a mudflat. Eel grass is then established on the mudflat. The ecosystem changes over time and ultimately develops into a salt marsh that contains mangrove trees.


Which of the following is likely NOT involved in this example of ecological succession?

a)

the rotting remains of plants add to the fertility of the soil.

b)

the soil becomes so fertile that eel grass is replaced by the other plant species.

c)

the roots from plants help stabilize the sediment, keeping it in place.

d)

the concentration of salt becomes so high that all plant life is destroyed.

100.

The rocky material left behind by a retreating glacier forms what is called a moraine. When primary succession occurs on a moraine, which life forms will help create the soil by breaking down bare rock?

a)

insects

b)

lichens

c)

grasses

d)

deciduous trees

101.

Gibberellins are hormones produced in the root tips of plants. The plant uses these hormones to stimulate the growth of shoots.


How are gibberellins able to affect other parts of the plant?

a)

Gibberellins are absorbed through the stomata and attach to chloroplasts.

b)

Gibberellins are transported through vascular tissues to other parts of the plant.

c)

Gibberellins become concentrated within the tissues of the plant during mitosis.

d)

Gibberellins become modified once they infect healthy cells and are later released to infect other cells.

102.

A chart of some plant systems and functions is shown.


Which system interactions are dependent on the plant's ability to respond to the direction of light?

a)

Option 1

b)

Option 2

c)

Option 3

d)

Option 4

103.

Plant roots have extensions called root hairs. These root hairs. These root hairs are important in the homeostasis

of the plant.


Which statement best explains the importance of the root hair to the stems and leaves of the plant?

a)

Root hairs convert minerals into glucose for immediate use by cells.

b)

Root hairs decrease the need for osmosis and diffusion in vascular tissue.

c)

Root hairs prevent water loss in leaves through transportation and gas exchange.

d)

Root hairs increase the surface area of the roots for nutrient and water absorption.

104.

A corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel and the female flower forms the ear of corn. The silk that emerge from the ear are the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed.


Which of these must happen for corn seeds to develop on the ear?

a)

More tassels that silks need to be present on the same plant.

b)

Pollen grains must fall from tassels and land on the silks of the ear.

c)

Pollen must be transported from the tassel to the silk through the phloem.

d)

The tassels must come into direct contact with the silks of the ear.

105.

Fruits grown in hot climates are usually less sweet than those grown in cooler temperatures. The high temperatures increase the rate of respiration in the plants, thus reducing the sugar content in some fruits.


Why does increased respiration in the leaves and stems reduce the sugar content in the fruits of a plant?

a)

Chloroplasts move from the fruits to the leaves and stems to provide energy for respiration.

b)

The flow of nutrients shifts from the phloem to the xylem, moving nutrients away from the fruits.

c)

Sugars are moved from the fruits to the roots for storage.

d)

Sugars produced in the leaves are used as an energy source instead of being stored in fruits.

106.

Gibberellins are hormones produced in the root tips of plants. The plant uses these hormones to stimulate the growth of shoots.


How are gibberellins able to affect other parts of the plant?

a)

Gibberellins are absorbed through the stomata and attach to chloroplasts.

b)

Gibberellins are transported through vascular tissues to other parts of the plant.

c)

Gibberellins become concentrated within the tissues of the plant during mitosis.

d)

Gibberellins become modified once they infect healthy cells and are later released to infect other cells.

107.

A chart of some plant systems and functions is shown.


Which system interactions are dependent on the plant's ability to respond to the direction of light?

a)

Option 1

b)

Option 2

c)

Option 3

d)

Option 4

108.

Plant roots have extensions called root hairs. These root hairs. These root hairs are important in the homeostasis

of the plant.


Which statement best explains the importance of the root hair to the stems and leaves of the plant?

a)

Root hairs convert minerals into glucose for immediate use by cells.

b)

Root hairs decrease the need for osmosis and diffusion in vascular tissue.

c)

Root hairs prevent water loss in leaves through transportation and gas exchange.

d)

Root hairs increase the surface area of the roots for nutrient and water absorption.

109.

A corn plant produces both male and female flowers. The male flower forms the tassel and the female flower forms the ear of corn. The silk that emerge from the ear are the stigma of the female flower. Each silk leads to an ovule that can become a corn seed.


Which of these must happen for corn seeds to develop on the ear?

a)

More tassels that silks need to be present on the same plant.

b)

Pollen grains must fall from tassels and land on the silks of the ear.

c)

Pollen must be transported from the tassel to the silk through the phloem.

d)

The tassels must come into direct contact with the silks of the ear.

110.

Fruits grown in hot climates are usually less sweet than those grown in cooler temperatures. The high temperatures increase the rate of respiration in the plants, thus reducing the sugar content in some fruits.


Why does increased respiration in the leaves and stems reduce the sugar content in the fruits of a plant?

a)

Chloroplasts move from the fruits to the leaves and stems to provide energy for respiration.

b)

The flow of nutrients shifts from the phloem to the xylem, moving nutrients away from the fruits.

c)

Sugars are moved from the fruits to the roots for storage.

d)

Sugars produced in the leaves are used as an energy source instead of being stored in fruits.

111.

CRISPR-Cas 9 is a genetic modification technique that edits parts of the genome of an organism. Using this technique, scientists can add, remove, or modify sections of the DNA sequence.


How can scientists use this technique to control gene expression?

a)

By activating or deactivating specific genes

b)

By calculating the number of genes different organisms produce

c)

By identifying how closely related one individual is to another

d)

By determining the number of chromosomes in an organism

112.
a)

The alleles for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older.

b)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by latitude.

c)

The arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth.

d)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature.

113.

Human bone muscle and nerve cells all contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?

a)

The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA sequences.

b)

The regulation of gene expression within each cell type.

c)

The mutation of genes within each cell type.

d)

The use of different methods of cell division.

114.

At birth, Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. However, when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35 degrees Celsius, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

Poor blood circulation

b)

Infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

Gene expression that is regulated by temperature

d)

A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone dependent

115.

In 1917, the biologist Thomas Hunt Morgan conducted studies in which he kept some caterpillars in the dark and places some others under red, green, or blue lights. Exposure to red light produced butterflies with brightly color wings. Exposure to green light resulted in dark-colored wings. Exposure to blue light or no light resulted in pale-colored wings. What was the most likely conclusion of Morgan's research?

a)

The pigment in butterfly wings absorbs light from the environment.

b)

The phenotypic expression of wing shape depends on color pigmentation in butterflies.

c)

The genes regulating wing color in butterflies are influenced by environmental factors.

d)

Caterpillars exposed to red and green light are healthier than caterpillars exposed to no light or blue light.

116.

CRISPR-Cas 9 is a genetic modification technique that edits parts of the genome of an organism. Using this technique, scientists can add, remove, or modify sections of the DNA sequence.


How can scientists use this technique to control gene expression?

a)

By activating or deactivating specific genes

b)

By calculating the number of genes different organisms produce

c)

By identifying how closely related one individual is to another

d)

By determining the number of chromosomes in an organism

117.
a)

The alleles for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older.

b)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by latitude.

c)

The arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth.

d)

Gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature.

118.

Human bone muscle and nerve cells all contain the same number of chromosomes with the same complement of genes. What enables these cells to perform specialized activities?

a)

The ability of some cells to remove unnecessary DNA sequences.

b)

The regulation of gene expression within each cell type.

c)

The mutation of genes within each cell type.

d)

The use of different methods of cell division.

119.

At birth, Himalayan rabbits are usually white over their entire bodies. However, when parts of their bodies reach temperatures below 35 degrees Celsius, a pigment that causes these parts to turn black is produced. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

Poor blood circulation

b)

Infection caused by cold temperatures

c)

Gene expression that is regulated by temperature

d)

A trait that is both sex-linked and hormone dependent

120.

In 1917, the biologist Thomas Hunt Morgan conducted studies in which he kept some caterpillars in the dark and places some others under red, green, or blue lights. Exposure to red light produced butterflies with brightly color wings. Exposure to green light resulted in dark-colored wings. Exposure to blue light or no light resulted in pale-colored wings. What was the most likely conclusion of Morgan's research?

a)

The pigment in butterfly wings absorbs light from the environment.

b)

The phenotypic expression of wing shape depends on color pigmentation in butterflies.

c)

The genes regulating wing color in butterflies are influenced by environmental factors.

d)

Caterpillars exposed to red and green light are healthier than caterpillars exposed to no light or blue light.

121.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

122.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

123.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

124.

a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

125.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.

The San Marcos salamander, Eurycea nana, is a light reddish-brown translucent salamander about 2-5 cm in length. E. nana is found only in Spring Lake and a portion of the San Marcos River.


Which human activity would most likely decrease the ability of the salamanders to survive?

a)

increasing water consumption that decreases the flow of clean water from the springs that feed the river

b)

public transportation that reduces the number of automobiles that contribute to pollution runoff into the river

c)

tourism that helps fund the educational programs related to river ecosystem conservation

d)

the addition of a new food source into the river limits competition for resources.

127.

In the mid-1980s an aggressive strain of algae known as Caulerpa was accidentally introduced into the Mediterranean Sea when a seaside aquarium cleaned out its tanks. The algae contain a toxin that prevents native herbivores from consuming it. Caulerpa quickly spread over the seafloor, crowing out many species including sponges, corals, sea fans, and lobsters.


Which statement explains the most likely impact Caulerpa has had on the biodiversity in the Mediterranean Sea?

a)

The presence of Caulerpa within an ecosystem is an indicator of the ecosystem's health.

b)

The spread of Caulerpa improved the habitat for many species of seagrasses, and increased the biodiversity.

c)

Caulerpa interbred with native species with the same adaptations within the ecosystem.

d)

Caulerpa became dominant within the ecosystem and reduced biodiversity.

128.

Scientist have observed many types of tropical fish moving beyond their traditional ocean ranges into waters that have historically been more temperate. These fish compete for food with native fish, consuming much from the kelp forests and beds of sea grass.

a)

agricultural runoff that contributes to dead zones in the ocean

b)

global droughts that raise the salt concentration of ocean waters

c)

the rising temperatures of ocean waters

d)

acid rain pollution that lowers the pH of oceans waters

129.

Roads are often built through forests for industrial purposes or as land is developed for residential and commercial needs. How would road construction through a forest most likely affect the ecosystem?

a)

non-native species would replace native species

b)

the number of primary consumers would increase

c)

the natural succession of vegetation would change

d)

all producers would be eliminated from the community

130.

Food webs such as the one shown were first used in 1927 by the animal ecologist Charles Elton. The food web below represents the feeding relationships among organisms in an Alaskan ecosystem.


an environmental change that removed which of these organisms from the ecosystem would cause the most instability in the ecosystem?

a)

Auklets

b)

Foxes

c)

Salmon

d)

Zooplankton

131.

A partial Texas food web is shown.


The populations of which organisms will most likely increase as a result of a disease that suddenly reduced the population of Texas horned lizards?

a)

grasses and ants

b)

ants and grasshoppers

c)

grasshoppers and texas cottonmouths

d)

texas cottonmouths and red-shouldered hawks

132.

A biomass pyramid of an ecosystem is shown.


Which statement provides the best explanation for the difference in biomass of organisms found at each trophic level?

a)

Organisms at higher trophic levels have less energy available to them than organisms at lower trophic levels.

b)

Organisms at higher trophic levels require smaller habitats than organisms at lower trophic levels.

c)

organisms at lower trophic levels provide less energy than organisms at higher trophic levels.

d)

Organisms at lower trophic levels outcompete organisms at higher trophic levels.

133.

The table lists some organisms found in a swamp ecosystem and their sources of energy.


When constructing an energy pyramid of the swamp ecosystem, which of these would be placed at the top of the pyramid?

a)

Grass carp

b)

American alligator

c)

Eastern mud turtle

d)

Great blue heron

134.

A partial meadow food web is shown.


Based on this food web, which organisms are direct sources of energy for secondary consumers?

a)

Aphid, Bird, Rabbit

b)

Ladybug, Fox, Dragonfly

c)

Frog, Butterfly, Berries

d)

Mouse, Snake, Hawk

135.

The energy pyramid below shows the energy made available by producers.


Based on the energy flow between trophic levels in an energy pyramid, how much energy would be expected to be found at the secondary consumer level in this pyramid?

a)

100 joules

b)

500 joules

c)

1,000 joules

d)

50 joules

136.

Which four body systems interact to allow a person to sneeze?

a)

Muscular, immune, nervous, respiratory

b)

Nervous, respiratory, circulatory, skeletal

c)

Respiratory, endocrine, skeletal, circulatory

d)

Lymphatic, skeletal, respiratory, muscular

137.

The fuzzy millipede, Polynexus fasciculatus, is found in Texas and is preyed upon by most species of ants. To protect itself against the ants, it ejects fibers from a tuft located at the tail end of its body. The tufts have hooks at the tips and barbs along their length that lock and interlink with the ant's setae, small hairs that cover the body of the ant. When an ant attacks, the millipede flexes its back end toward the ant and wipes the tufts against it. As the ant attempts to remove the tufts, it entangles itself more, becoming immobilized.


Which two systems most directly interact in the fuzzy millipede's defense against ants?

a)

Muscular and integumentary

b)

Immune and muscular

c)

Integumentary

d)

Endocrine and immune

138.

A feedback mechanism in the human body is shown.


Based on this diagram, which two systems interact to maintain homeostasis?

a)

The nervous and reproductive systems work together to stimulate the production of insulin.

b)

The circulatory and endocrine systems work together to keep blood sugar levels consistent.

c)

The excretory and nervous systems work together to convert glycogen into glucose.

d)

The immune and circulatory systems work together to circulate blood through the pancreas.

139.

The female reproductive and endocrine systems work interactively for which main purpose?

a)

To maintain homeostasis by removing waste products from the body

b)

To release neurotransmitters during times of stress

c)

To control hormone levels to prepare the body for pregnancy

d)

To exchange gases to support cellular aerobic respiration

140.

How do the circulatory system and immune system work together to respond to an injury?

a)

Increased blood flow kills healthy cells which prevents infection at the site of the injury.

b)

Increased blood flow removes infected cells from the body at the site of the injury.

c)

Increased blood flow carries white blood cells to the site of the injury.

d)

Increased blood flow allows for an increase in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide at the site of the injury.

141.

Some species of millipedes will roll into a ball when threatened, while other species of millipedes can secrete noxious chemicals from their bodies.


These adaptations allow the millipedes to -

a)

survive in different temperatures

b)

avoid different types of predators

c)

conserve different amounts of energy

d)

blend into different types of environments

142.

The Indian leaf butterfly has traits that allow it to resemble a leaf. The bright colors of the monarch butterfly indicate that the butterfly tastes bad and can be poisonous.


How does the appearance of these butterflies help them to survive?

a)

The Indian leaf butterfly is able to avoid predators while the monarch butterfly warns predators away.

b)

The Indian leaf butterfly frightens predators away while the monarch butterfly poisons predators before they can eat it.

c)

Both butterflies rely on camouflage to avoid predations.

d)

Both butterflies cooperate with one another to avoid predation.

143.

The table below provides some information about the feeding methods of the five rhinoceros species.


Which rhinoceros species is best adapted for feeding in the large open grasslands of Africa's Serengeti ecosystem?

a)

Black rhinoceros

b)

White rhinoceros

c)

Sumatran rhinoceros

d)

Javan rhinoceros

144.

Which answer choice best describes a community?

a)

Praying mantises caring for their young

b)

Three-spined sticklebacks living in estuaries

c)

Different species of lizards occupying the same niche in a desert

d)

roosting mother bats recognizing their offspring

145.

The human body is composed of organ systems. Which list represents a system organized from least to most complex?

a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

The diagram shows some of the levels of biological organization.


In what order are the levels in the diagrams?

a)

population --> community --> ecosystem

b)

organism --> community --> population

c)

organism --> population --> community

d)

ecosystem --> population --> community

147.

Recent studies in bone research indicate that using ultrasound on a broken bone can decrease the healing time by 25%. Which of these are the most basic levels of organization involved when a bone heals?

a)

cells and tissue

b)

cells and organ systems

c)

organs system and organism

d)

tissue and organ system

148.

The table shows observations made by four students during a field trip to a nature area.


Which student made o0berservations of a community of organisms?

a)

student 1

b)

student 2

c)

student 3

d)

student 4

149.

What is the role of mRNA in expressing specialized structures?

a)

making energy available for cellular activities

b)

producing sugars that assist with replication

c)

creating bonds to form biomolecules

d)

providing information to for proteins

150.

As a fertilized egg divides, the cells differentiate because they -

a)

contain a lipid bilayer

b)

can clump together

c)

metabolize sugars rapidly

d)

have specific genes activated

151.

Animal develop from a single fertilized egg. The embryonic cells become specialized for a variety of functions.


Which of these statements best describes how different cells types develop?

a)

Each cell type contains only the active parts of the DNA needed for that type of cell type

b)

Each cell type has only one chromosome containing the DNA needed for that cell type

c)

Each cell has an identical copy of DNA with enzymes controlling the expression of specific genes, leading to a variety of cells.

d)

Each cell has multiple copies of DNA that are affected in different ways by the environment to change the function of the cell at regular intervals.

152.

How does RNA and DNA differ?

a)

RNA contains uracil and deoxyribose

b)

RNA contains uracil and ribose

c)

RNA contains ribose and thymine

d)

RNA contains deoxyribose and thymine

153.

Which of the following describes RNA?

a)

RNA is usually double-stranded and contains the base thymine

b)

RNA is longer than DNA and uses five bases to encode information

c)

RNA is usually single-stranded and contains the base uracil

d)

RNA is made in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells and stays there to carry out its functions.

154.

Conservation biologists studying cheetah populations have determined that the lack of genetic diversity among the cheetahs is due to genetic drift.


Which statement explains the most likely consequence of having a low genetic diversity on the cheetah population?

a)

The chances of a mutation occurring in the cheetah population are decreased, increasing the cheetah survival rate.

b)

The gene pool remains in equilibrium and future generations of cheetah offspring are stronger and better adapted to their environments.

c)

The cheetah population becomes less likely to survive an outbreak of a disease or an environmental change, increasing the chance of species extinction.

d)

Genetic variability is maintained from older cheetah populations that have survived and endured environmental stressors.

155.

Common baboons live on the savanna in breeding groups called troops. While females tend to stay with the troop, younger or less dominant males may leave to join a neighboring troop. Which of these is a likely outcome of movement by young males ?

a)

Gene flow occurs between populations.

b)

Allele frequencies suddenly change.

c)

Relative genotypic frequencies reach a constant state.

d)

Intermediate phenotypes increase in the species.

156.

Two populations of mice living in the same forest are separated by a large water-filled ditch. After a rainstorm, flooding brings several mice from one population to the other population. When the mice from the first population reproduce with members of the second population, which of the following will likely occur?

a)

All the offspring will die as a result of reproductive mutations.

b)

The offspring will be forced to leave the second population.

c)

The offspring will be genetically identical to their parent from the first population.

d)

The offspring in the second population will have greater genetic variety.

157.

Lord Howe Island is a volcanic island in the Tasman Sea that is about 11 km long and 2.8 km wide. The island has two species of palm trees, Howea forsteriana, and the more abundant Howea belmoreana. The two species do not interbreed even when they grow very close to each other. Which evolutionary process fails to occur ?

a)

Genetic drift of Howea forsteriana

b)

Natural selection of adaptive traits in both species

c)

Gene flow between the two species

d)

Mutations in Howea belmoreana

158.

The concept of gene flow is demonstrated when a cow is driven off from its hers, joins another herd, and reproduces. When the cow contributes to the gene pool of the new herd, which of these most likely increases?

a)

Natural selection

b)

Genetic variation

c)

Environmental fitness

d)

Reproductive mutations

159.

Students using a microscope to look for structures present in four different cells. the students placed an X for each structure that was viewed for each cell on the table shown.


Which cell that was viewed is most likely a prokaryote?

a)

Cell W

b)

Cell X

c)

Cell Y

d)

Cell Z

160.

A student groups different types of cells as shown.


Which table heading should the student use for the two groups?

a)

1. Animal Cells 2. Plant Cells

b)

1. Prokaryotic Cells 2. Eukaryotic Cells

c)

1. Mobile Cells 2. Motile Cells

d)

1. Fungal Cells 2. Bacterial Cells

161.

The picture shows a student using a microscope to study a prepared slide of a single-celled organism.


A single-cell organism can be classified as a prokaryote based on the absence of -

a)

a cell membrane

b)

ribosomes

c)

chromosomes

d)

a nucleus

162.

4. Some students used the information they gathered from lab investigations to prepare a table. They entered the table in their lab notebooks.


Which of these correctly identifies the two cells described in the table?

a)

Cell 1 is eukaryotic, and Cell 2 is prokaryotic.

b)

Cell 1 is prokaryotic, and Cell 2 is eukaryotic.

c)

Both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are eukaryotic.

d)

Both Cell 1 and Cell 2 are prokaryotic

163.

Both euglena (eukaryote) and cyanobacteria (prokaryote) are photosynthetic unicellular organisms found in pond water. The feature that distinguishes euglena from cyanobacteria is the -

a)

ability to maintain homeostasis

b)

presence of ribosomes

c)

ability to reproduce

d)

presence of a nuclear membrane

164.

White-tailed deer are seasonal breeders. female white-tailed deer begin their reproductive cycle in the fall. Rising testosterone levels in male white-tailed deer cause them to start their breeding season around the same time. Offspring are born the following spring and summer.


What is the most likely explanation for white-tailed deer having a seasonal breeding cycle instead of a monthly breeding cycle like many domesticated animals?

a)

Male and female deer come into contact with each other only in the fall.

b)

Large predators are not found in deer habitats during the spring and summer months.

c)

Giving birth only in the spring and summer ensures that offspring are born when food is most available.

d)

Deer give birth in the spring and summer in order to avoid being pregnant during the hot summer months.

165.

The green frog (Liithobathes clamitans clamitans) is found in many parts of the United States. The table contains some information about this frog.


Why does the ability to lay 1,000 to 5, 000 eggs increase the fitness of the species L. clamitans clamitans?

a)

It increases opportunities for offspring to compete for limited resources.

b)

It increases the probability that some offspring will survive long enough to reproduce.

c)

It increases the probability that moving water will promote gene flow from one population to another.

d)

It increases the chance of the recombination of alleles, leading to genetic drift in the population.

166.

What condition is essential for natural selection to result in a new species ?

a)

Unlimited resources

b)

An inherited variation

c)

A static environment

d)

A long life span

167.

Which description best identifies this type of cellular transport?

a)

Active transport, because energy is being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient

b)

Facilitated diffusion, because energy is being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

c)

Osmosis, because energy is being used to move molecules with the concentration gradient

d)

Endocytosis, because energy is not being used to move molecules against the concentration gradient.

168.

In a study of physical endurance, researchers observed significant increases in the heart rates and breathing rates of participants immediately after they engaged in strenuous exercise.


Which statement best explains the increase in the heart rate and breathing rate during exercise?

a)

the water concentration in the blood increases.

b)

body cells require increased oxygen as energy is expended.

c)

muscle cells increase in temperature and require fluid to reduce the temperature.

d)

an increase in muscle activity causes increases in glucose levels in red blood cells.

169.

The picture shows a contractile vacuole of a unicellular freshwater organism. The contractile vacuole regulates the flow of water into and out of the cell in an aquatic environment.


What condition caused the contractile vacuole to fill with water?

a)

the concentration of water is greater outside the cell than inside the cell.

b)

the temperature of water in the vacuole is higher than the temperature of its environment.

c)

the concentration of water inside the cell is the same as the concentration outside the cell.

d)

The temperature of water in the vacuole is lower than the temperature of its environment.

170.

This diagram shows cellular activity across a cell membrane.


Which two process does this diagram most directly model?

a)

energy conversion and synthesis of new molecules

b)

synthesis of new molecules and homeostasis

c)

transport of molecules and energy conversions

d)

homeostasis and transport of molecules

171.

Some students used vinegar to dissolve away the cells of these eggs and used these eggs as models of human red blood cells. The students observed the changes in the eggs when they were placed in different solutions.


Which statement best describes the role of the cell membrane in this model?

a)

the cell membrane is an impermeable barrier that prevents water from entering the cell.

b)

the cell membrane allows solutes to enter the cell, which causes the cell to shrink.

c)

the cell membrane allows water to enter and leave the cell.

d)

the cell membrane removes solutes from the environment.

172.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

173.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

174.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

175.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

176.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

177.

Which role of protist has the most positive effect on maintaining the plant population in an ecosystem?

a)

protists are a major food source for animals.

b)

protists produce approximately 75 percent of the oxygen on earth.

c)

protist decompose dead materials, retuning nutrients to the soil.

d)

protist found in the gut of animals assist in digestion.

178.

Saprophytes are fungi that feed on dead and decomposing organisms. They secrete enzymes that digest components of cell walls, such as cellulose and lignin.


Which statement explains why these fungi are an important part of the biogeochemical cycle?

a)

Saprophytes perform gas exchange that assists the cellular activaties of autotrophs.

b)

Saprophytes extract minerals from living tissue to recycle them back into the soil.

c)

Saprophytes transport nutrients through the xylem and phloem in autotrophs.

d)

Saprophytes return organic material to the oil for use by living organisms.

179.

A student researching bacteria concluded a report with the claim in the box.


Which statement correctly addresses the validity of the claim?

a)

the claim is valid because many studies and experiments have shown that bacteria disrupt homeostasis

b)

the claim is invalid because there are many types of bacteria that help organisms maintain homeostasis.

c)

the claim is invalid because only microorganisms such as viruses disrupt the health of organisms.

d)

the claim is valid because bacteria cause disease.

180.

Some fungi secrete substances that are toxic to bacteria that compete with them for food. Scientists have used their knowledge of this ability of fungi in order to produce which of the following substances?

a)

yogurt

b)

fertilizers

c)

Plastic

d)

Antibiotics

181.

A student sets up a compost bin outdoors. Inside the bin, microorganisms convert the student's vegtable and paper scraps into rich fertilizer. Which of the following best describes the role that these microorganisms play in natural habitats?

a)

the microorganisms help balance the number of producers and consumers.

b)

the microorganisms help keep nutrients cycling through the ecosystem.

c)

the microorganisms turn solar energy into sugar

d)

the microorganisms function as autotrophs

182.

The diagram shows data on the evolution of horses.


The date in the diagram is evidence that -

a)

a new species of horse suddenly appeared

b)

horses slowly developed over time

c)

Horses have similar stages of rapid embryological development

d)

horses have a common ancestry with other hovved animals

183.

Niles Eldredge and Stephen Jay Gould researched the lenses of the eyes of fossil trilobites of different species. In 1972 they published a paper in which they described the tendency of a species to remain the same un5il a sudden change in the environment causes a new related species to appear.


Which hypothesis was most challenged by the work of Eldredge and Gould?

a)

Redi's hypothesis that spontaneous generation does not occur

b)

Haeckel's hypothesis that embryological development mimics the evolution of species

c)

Wallace's hypothesis that geography affects the distribution of species

d)

Darwin's hypothesis that the development of species is a slow, gradual process

184.

The graph shows the number of taxa of reptiles whose fossilized tracks have been found.


Which statement is best supported by this data?

a)

Competition for food and shelter among reptile species was very low during the Triassic period.

b)

A great extinction occurred during the Jurassic period.

c)

Environmental conditions for speciation were most favorable for reptiles during the Permian period.

d)

Reptiles adapted to a terrestrial environment during the Cretaceous period.l

185.

This diagram of the fossil record represents changes in mollusks over millions of years.


How can the pattern of changes in the fossil record best be explained?

a)

the mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. A large sudden change occurred in their environment. After the changes, the mollusk with the bigger shells was better adapted to the new environment.

b)

the mollusks were well adapted to their stable environment. the mollusks hybridized with a smaller species of mollusk. A new species of mollusk with a bigger shell resulted.

c)

the mollusks were not well adapted to their environment. the length of the mollusk's shells changed gradually over time. The mollusks in the original population that has small shells died over a period of many years.

d)

the mollusks were well adapted to their environment. humans introduced a new species of mollusk that was not adapted to this environment. the introduced mollusk outcompeted the native mollusk species.

186.

The cladogram shows the evolution of land plants as indicated by fossil records.


Which discovery would challenge the validity of this cladogram?

a)

A large aquatic vascular plant about 200 million years old

b)

A species of algae that has existed for less than one million years

c)

A moss species that has existed for less than 380 million years

d)

A fossil of a fern more than 425 million years old.

187.

Male guppies found in areas without predators are more colorful than the ones found in locations with large predator populations. A population of adult guppies originating from an area with a large number of predators is transferred to a nearby area with few predators.


Which of these is most likely to happen over a few generations?

a)

The mortality rate of the guppies will increase.

b)

Offspring will stop competing for resources.

c)

There will be an increase in mutations in the offspring.

d)

There will be an increase in the number of colorful guppies.

188.

The diagram shows light and dark colored beetles that live on a tree. Which result is most likely to occur to the beetle population due to predation over time?

a)

The number of light-colored beetles in the population will increase.

b)

There will be more dark-colored beetles than light-colored beetles.

c)

The number of light-colored beetles will decrease.

d)

The dark-colored beetles will move to a different type of tree.

189.

The quiver tree grows in desert areas in southern Africa. In recent decades, average temperatures have been rising in southern Africa. Scientists predict that this warming trend will continue. Quiver trees in the hottest parts of their range near the equator are dying, but quiver trees at high elevations or in parts of the range that are farther from the equator are growing and reproducing.


Which of these best explains what is happening to the quiver tree population in southern Africa?

a)

Individual quiver trees are unable to adjust to rising temperatures, and only those in cooler parts of the range will survive.

b)

The quiver tree species is unable to survive rising temperatures throughout its range. The species is likely to undergo rapid extinction.

c)

Individual quiver trees can quickly adapt to rising temperatures. Individual trees will change their method of seed dispersal in cooler parts of the range.

d)

The quiver tree species will survive by producing offspring suited for warmer temperatures.

190.

An experiment is run where 50 beige mice and 50 black mice are placed on dark volcanic rock. Over the next 25 years, which type of mouse do you expect to be the majority?

a)

The beige mice because they have the adaptation to blend in and survive, and reproduce

b)

The black mice because they have the adaptation to blend in and survive, and reproduce

c)

The beige mice because they have an adaptation and can outlive the black mice

d)

The dark mice because they have an adaptation and can outlive the black mice

191.

Which term refers to the process by which individuals that are better suited to the environment survive and reproduce therefore passing down their genes to their offspring?

a)

Evolution

b)

Variation

c)

Fitness (natural selection)

d)

Competition